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Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9 PDF Download

Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation.

Logical Reasoning Section

Q1: If car means boat, boat means bicycle and bicycle means plane, then ________ is used as air transport.
(a) boat
(b) plane
(c) bicycle
(d) car

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Ans: (c)
The plane is used as air transport but bicycle means plane. So, the correct answer is a bicycle.

Q2: If the first and third digits of each of the given numbers are swapped and the numbers are then sorted in ascending order, what will be the total of the digits of the second highest number created?
(a) 18
(b) 13
(c) 14
(d) 17

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Ans: (a)

  • First, we swap the first and third digits of each number: 725 becomes 527, 396 becomes 693, 815 becomes 518, 437 becomes 734, and 526 becomes 625.
  • Next, we arrange these new numbers in ascending order: 518, 527, 625, 693, 734.
  • The second highest number in this order is 693.
  • Now, we find the sum of the digits of 693: 6 + 9 + 3 = 18.

Q3: Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.
Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 3

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Ans: (d)
Similar figure repeats in every third step and each time a figure reappears it gets vertically inverted.

Q4: In the provided sequence of letters, certain letters are absent and are listed in the options below. Choose the correct option.
Select the correct option.a _ b _ acb _ _ cbdac _ d (a) bcdda
(b) cddba
(c) abdcb
(d) cddab 

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Ans: (d)

  • The sequence starts with "a" and has gaps that need to be filled with the correct letters.
  • By analyzing the pattern, we can see that the missing letters should logically fit into the sequence.
  • Option (d) "cddab" correctly fills the gaps, maintaining the order of the letters.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option (d) as it completes the series accurately.

Q5: Choose the figure which is different from the rest.
Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9

(a) 5
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4

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Ans: (b)
In all other figures, there are two small line segments towards the pin and three small line segments towards the arrow.

Q6: Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9

(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 4

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Ans: (d)
Figure 4, contains figure (X).

Q7: Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark (?).

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9

(a) 4
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3

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Ans: (b)
The symbols move in the sequence. Also, the arrow rotates 135o anti-clockwise; the trapezium gets vertically inverted and the pin-shaped symbol rotates 90o clockwise.

Q8: How much money do Vivek and Suman have together?
Statement I: Suman has 20 rupees less than what Tarun has.
Statement II: Vivek has 30 rupees more than what Tarun has.
(a) Neither I nor II is sufficient
(b) II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
(c) Both I and II are sufficient
(d) I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient

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Ans: (a)
From I, we have: S = T - 20.
From II, we have: V = T + 30.
Thus, from both I and II, we have: V + S = (T + 30) + (T - 20) = (2T + 10).
So, to get the required amount, we need to know the amount that Tarun has.

Q9: If white means blue, blue means red and red means green, then what is the colour of human blood?.
(a) white
(b) blue
(c) green
(d) red

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Ans: (b)
Colour of human blood is red but blue means red. So, the correct answer is blue.

Q10: If ‘@’ represents ‘×’, ‘#’ represents ‘–’, ‘$’ represents ‘+’ and ‘*’ represents ‘÷’, which of the following statements is accurate?
(a) 18 @ 3 * 3 $ 7 # 12 = 18
(b) 18 * 3 @ 3 # 7 $ 12 = 23
(c) 18 $ 3 * 3 @ 7 # 12 = 40
(d) 18 $ 3 @ 3 * 7 # 12 = 15

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Ans: (b)

  • First, we need to replace the symbols with their respective operations: @ = ×, # = –, $ = +, and * = ÷.
  • For option (b): 18 * 3 @ 3 # 7 $ 12 becomes 18 ÷ 3 × 3 – 7 + 12.
  • Calculating step-by-step: 18 ÷ 3 = 6, then 6 × 3 = 18, next 18 – 7 = 11, and finally 11 + 12 = 23.
  • Thus, option (b) is correct as it equals 23.

Science Section

Q11: A particle travels in a straight path with uniform acceleration, beginning from a stationary position. What is the percentage increase in its displacement during the 5th second in relation to the displacement in the 4th second?
(a) 35.21%
(b) 40%
(c) 28.57%
(d) 45.55%

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Ans: (c)

  • The formula for displacement during a specific second is derived from the equations of motion. For the 4th second, the displacement is given by the formula: s4 = u + (1/2) a (7), where u is the initial velocity (0 in this case) and a is the acceleration.
  • For the 5th second, the displacement is calculated using: s5 = u + (1/2) a (9).
  • To find the percentage increase, we use the formula: Percentage Increase = [(s5 - s4) / s4] * 100.
  • After calculating, we find that the percentage increase in displacement from the 4th to the 5th second is 28.57%.

Q12: What happens to the temperature during the melting of ice when heat is supplied continuously?
(a) Temperature increases
(b) Temperature decreases
(c) Temperature first increases and then decreases
(d) Temperature remains constant

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Ans: (d)
The supplied heat is utilized in breaking the interaction between constituent of ice, and so temperature remains constant.

Q13: Arrange the five kingdoms in the increasing order of complexity.
(a) Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia 
(b) Protista, Fungi, Monera, Plantae and Animalia 
(c) Animalia, Plantae, Fungi, Protista and Monera 
(d) Plantae, Fungi, Animalia, Protista and Monera 

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Ans: (a)
The Five Kingdoms are arranged in the order of increasing cellular complexity and organisation levels. Kingdom Monera is the lowest as they include prokaryotes. Kingdom Protista follows Monera as they are single-celled eukaryotes. Protista is followed by Kingdom Fungi, Kingdom Plantae and finally Kingdom Animalia.

Q14: Atomicity of a molecule plays a vital role in determining the number of atoms. Which of the following represents a tetra-atomic molecule?
(a) NH3
(b) H2
(c) CH4
(d) CO2 

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Ans: (a)
Tetra atomic molecules are those molecules that are formed by a combination of four atoms.

Q15: Which among the following are involuntary muscles?
 I. Smooth Muscles 

II. Striated Muscles 
III. Cardiac Muscles
(a) I and II 
(b) I and III 
(c) II and III 
(d) I and III 

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Ans: (b)
Both smooth and cardiac muscle functions cannot be controlled by any organisms, hence they are involuntary.

Q16: The unicellular prokaryotes and eukaryotes are grouped into ____ and _____ respectively.
(a) fungi and monera 
(b) monera and protista 
(c) monera and fungi 
(d) protista and monera 

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Ans: (b)
Kingdom Monera and Protista consist of unicellular prokaryotes and eukaryotes respectively.

Q17: Select the incorrect pairing.
(a) Golgi apparatus – Formation of lysosomes
(b) Lysosome – Autophagy
(c) Vacuole – Osmoregulation
(d) Chloroplast – Photosynthesis

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Ans: (d)

  • The question asks for the incorrect match among the options provided.
  • The Golgi apparatus is indeed responsible for the formation of lysosomes, making option (a) correct.
  • Lysosomes are involved in autophagy, which is the process of breaking down cellular components, so option (b) is also correct.
  • Vacuoles play a role in osmoregulation, helping to maintain the balance of water in cells, confirming option (c) is correct.
  • However, option (d) incorrectly states that chloroplasts are related to turgidity and rigidity; they are primarily involved in photosynthesis.

Q18: A particle moving with initial velocity of 6 m/s is subjected to a uniform acceleration of -1.5 ms-2. Find the displacement in next 2 s:
(a) 9 m
(b) 12 m
(c) 0
(d) 15 m

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Ans: (a)
Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9

Q19: What are two external conditions required for the matter to exist in a particular physical state?
(a) Temperature and humidity 
(b) Temperature and pressure 
(c) Pressure and humidity 
(d) Density and pressure 

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Ans: (b)
Pressure and temperature are two external conditions

Q20: Identify the unicellular organism from the following image: 
(a) Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9(b) Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9(c) Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9(d) Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9

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Ans: (c)
The image shown in option C is an organism and the rest are various cells found in the human body. The 1st one is the RBCs, the second one is the sperm cells and the last one is the nerve cells. The correct option is C which shows diatoms

Q21: Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1: Mountaineers often face issues such as nosebleeds when they reach high altitudes. Statement 2: Atmospheric pressure reduces as altitude increases.
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(b) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • Both statements are true: Mountaineers do experience nosebleeds at high altitudes due to lower oxygen levels and dryness.
  • Atmospheric pressure decreases: As you climb higher, the air pressure drops, which can lead to various health issues.
  • Explanation link: The decrease in atmospheric pressure is the reason why nosebleeds occur, making statement 2 a correct explanation for statement 1.
  • Conclusion: Therefore, both statements are true, and statement 2 explains statement 1 accurately.

Q22: Which among the following is a muscle tissue that stops its rhythmic contraction and relaxation only when the organism is dead?
(a) Smooth Muscles 
(b) Striated Muscles 
(c) Cardiac Muscles 
(d) All of the above

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Ans: (c)
Even though smooth and striated muscles undergo contraction and relaxation, only cardiac muscles undergo rhythmic contraction and relaxation. This is what results in the heartbeat.

Q23: Select the accurate statements. I. Raising temperature and lowering pressure can turn gases into liquids. II. Ice at 273 K cools more effectively than water at 273 K. III. The process of salt dissolving in water shows that matter is continuous. IV. Both evaporation and melting require heat absorption.
(a) I and IV only
(b) II and IV only
(c) II and III only
(d) I and III only

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Ans: (b)

  • Statement I is true; increasing temperature and decreasing pressure can indeed liquefy gases.
  • Statement II is also correct; ice at 273 K is more effective in cooling than water at the same temperature because it absorbs more heat during melting.
  • Statement III is incorrect; the dissolution of salt in water does not indicate that matter is continuous.
  • Statement IV is true; both evaporation and fusion (melting) processes require heat absorption.

Thus, the correct statements are II and IV, making the answer (b).

Q24: Consider the following statements and choose the correct option:
Statement 1: The formula unit mass of zinc oxide is 81 u.
Statement 2: The formula unit mass is the sum of all the atoms present in the formula unit of the compound.
(a) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect. 
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct. 
(c) Both the statements are correct. 
(d) Both the statements are incorrect. 

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Ans: (c)
ZnO = 65 + 16 = 81

Q25: Find the odd one out.
(a) Diatom 
(b) Paramecium 
(c) Anabaena 
(d) Amoeba 

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Ans: (c)
Anabaena belongs to Monera and the rest falls under Protista.

Q26: Read the given statements and select the correct option. 
Statement 1: The process of heating coal strongly without air to produce various products is known as destructive distillation of coal. 
Statement 2: Kerosene and diesel are produced through the destructive distillation of coal.
(a) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. 
(b) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. 
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. 
(d) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are false. 

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Ans: (c)

  • Statement 1 is accurate as it describes the process of destructive distillation of coal correctly.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect because kerosene and diesel are primarily obtained from the distillation of crude oil, not from coal.
  • Thus, while the first statement is true, the second statement is false.
  • This leads us to conclude that the correct answer is option (c).

Q27: Which of the following solutions has the lowest mass by mass percentage?
(a) 8 g of sodium bicarbonate in 160 g of water
(b) 50 g of potassium dichromate in 250 g of water
(c) 30 g of calcium chloride in 190 g of water
(d) 3 g of sugar in 90 g of water 

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Ans: (d)

  • To find the mass by mass percentage, we use the formula: (mass of solute / total mass of solution) x 100.
  • For option (d), the total mass is 3 g (sugar) + 90 g (water) = 93 g.
  • The mass percentage is (3 g / 93 g) x 100 ≈ 3.23%.
  • Calculating the percentages for the other options shows they are higher than this value, making option (d) the one with the lowest mass by mass percentage.

Q28: Which of the following statements are accurate? 
I. Kerosene is combustible while dried grass is a non-combustible substance. 
II. Carbon dioxide is the best extinguisher for fires involving oil and petrol. 
III. The calorific value of biogas is higher than that of petrol. 
IV. The rubbing surface present on the matchbox has powdered glass and a little red phosphorus.
(a) I and III only
(b) I and IV only
(c) II and IV only
(d) II and III only 

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Ans: (c)

  • Statement I is incorrect because dried grass is actually combustible.
  • Statement II is correct; carbon dioxide is effective for extinguishing oil and petrol fires.
  • Statement III is incorrect; biogas has a lower calorific value compared to petrol.
  • Statement IV is correct; matchbox surfaces do contain powdered glass and red phosphorus.
  • Thus, the correct options are II and IV, making (c) the right answer.

Q29: Substance P is derived from the destructive distillation of wood and is a component of gunpowder. Substance Q represents the purest form of amorphous carbon, obtained by dehydrating sugar with concentrated H2SO4. What are P and Q, respectively?
(a) Animal charcoal and Lamp black
(b) Gas carbon and Sugar charcoal
(c) Wood charcoal and Animal charcoal
(d) Wood charcoal and Sugar charcoal

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Ans: (d)

  • Substance P is known as Wood charcoal, which is produced through the process of destructive distillation of wood.
  • Substance Q is identified as Sugar charcoal, the purest form of amorphous carbon, created by dehydrating sugar using concentrated sulfuric acid.
  • Both substances are important in various applications, with P being used in gunpowder and Q being a form of carbon used in different industrial processes.
  • Thus, the correct pairing of P and Q is Wood charcoal and Sugar charcoal.

Q30: Which among the following group of animals is/are multicellular organisms with a cell wall?
(a) Animalia 
(b) Protista 
(c) Fungi 
(d) Monera 

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Ans: (c)
Kingdom Animalia lacks a cell wall while Fungi and Monera consist of single cellular organisms. Kingdom fungi on the other hand consist of multicellular eukaryotic organisms with a cell wall.

Q31: The heat generated by a human body is trapped inside with the help of _____ tissue.
(a) areolar tissue 
(b) fluid tissue 
(c) cartilage 
(d) adipose tissue 

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Ans: (d)
Adipose tissue is seen between internal organs and below the skin. The fat inside the adipose tissue act as a layer of insulation that traps heat.

Q32: An organic compound ‘X’ has a melting point of –33°C and a boiling point of 66°C. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding this substance?
(a) At –100°C, X exists in solid state.
(b) At 0°C, X exists in liquid state.
(c) At 90°C, X exists in gaseous state.
(d) All of these

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Ans: (d)

  • At –100°C, the temperature is well below the melting point of –33°C, so X would be in a solid state.
  • At 0°C, which is above the melting point but below the boiling point, X would be in a liquid state.
  • At 90°C, the temperature is above the boiling point of 66°C, meaning X would be in a gaseous state.
  • Since all the statements are true, the correct answer is All of these.

Q33: After placing a thin layer of Rhoeo leaf in water on a clean glass slide and observing it under a high power microscope, what will you notice after adding a concentrated salt or sugar solution and waiting for a few minutes?
(a) Cell contents are separated from the cell wall.
(b) Cytoplasm along with plasma membrane has come to lie on one side of cell wall.
(c) A clear space is seen between the cell wall and protoplast of the cell.
(d) All of these 

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Ans: (d)

  • When you add a concentrated salt or sugar solution to the Rhoeo leaf, it causes water to move out of the cells.
  • This process is called osmosis, where water moves from an area of low concentration to high concentration.
  • As a result, the cell contents shrink away from the cell wall, creating a clear space.
  • Thus, all the observations mentioned in the options are correct, making the answer (d) All of these.

Q34: Consider the followings statements and choose the correct option: 
Statement 1: If an object moves with a constant speed, its speed-time graph is a straight line.
Statement 2: The area under the velocity-time graph gives the acceleration of the object. 
(a) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect. 
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct. 
(c) Both the statements are correct. 
(d) Both the statements are incorrect.

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Ans: (a)
The area under the velocity-time graph gives the displacement of the object.

Q35: Read the given statements (i-iv) and select the option that correctly fills any two of the blanks. 
(i) _______ epithelium is present in oviducts and helps in movement of egg from ovary to the uterus. 
(ii) _______ muscles cause peristalsis in the alimentary canal. 
(iii) _______ tissue joins skin to muscles and fastens peritoneum to the body wall and viscera. 
(iv) Blood enters the ___________ through Haversian canals.
(a) (i)-Cuboidal, (ii)-Striated
(b) (iii)-Areolar, (iv)-Cartilage
(c) (ii)-Smooth, (iii)-Areolar
(d) (i)-Ciliated, (iv)-Ligament

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Ans: (c)

  • In the first statement, Ciliated epithelium is found in the oviducts, aiding in the movement of the egg.
  • Smooth muscles are responsible for peristalsis, which is the wave-like movement in the alimentary canal.
  • Areolar tissue connects the skin to muscles and supports the peritoneum.
  • The last statement about blood entering through Haversian canals is not directly relevant to the correct answers.

Q36: Refer to the provided list of diseases: Aspergillosis, Bird flu, Ranikhet, Tuberculosis, Cholera, Rinderpest, Anthrax. How many of these diseases are caused by viruses in fowls?
(a) 5
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

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Ans: (b)

  • The diseases listed include Aspergillosis, Bird flu, Ranikhet, Tuberculosis, Cholera, Rinderpest, and Anthrax.
  • Among these, Bird flu and Ranikhet are the only diseases caused by viruses in fowls.
  • Thus, the total number of viral diseases affecting fowls from the list is 2.
  • Other diseases like Tuberculosis, Cholera, Rinderpest, and Anthrax are caused by bacteria or fungi.

Q37: Which among the following cell organelles are found in both plants and animals that are different in structure but not in composition?
(a) Vacuoles 
(b) Plastids 
(c) Mitochondria 
(d) Plasma membrane 

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Ans: (a)
Vacuoles are the cell organelle that differs in size and number in animal and plant cells. In animal cells, they are small and numerous and in plant cells, they are few but very large. In plants cells, often the nucleus gets displaced because of the size of the vacuole.

Q38: If bromine atom is available in the form of, say, two isotopes 35Br79 (51.3%) and 35Br81 (48.7%), calculate the average atomic mass of bromine atom:
(a) 79.97 
(b) 89.98 
(c) 87.8 
(d) 80.78 

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Ans: (a)
Average atomic mass = (79 x 51.3 + 81 x 48.7)/100 = 79.97

Q39: Refer to the given analogy and select the option that correctly identifies X. Rhizobium: Nitrogen fixation :: X: Nitrification
(a) Pseudomonas
(b) Nitrosomonas
(c) Nitrobacter
(d) Both B and C

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Ans: (d)

  • Rhizobium is a type of bacteria that plays a crucial role in nitrogen fixation, converting atmospheric nitrogen into a form that plants can use.
  • In the analogy, we need to find a counterpart for nitrification, which is the process of converting ammonia into nitrates.
  • Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are both involved in this process: Nitrosomonas converts ammonia to nitrites, and Nitrobacter converts nitrites to nitrates.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Both B and C, as both bacteria are essential for the nitrification process.

Q40: Which of the following options is correct?
I. 1 kg of water at 100°C
II. 1 kg of steam at 100°C
(a) I contain more heat than II 
(b) I contain less heat than II 
(c) Both I and II contain the same amount of heat 
(d) Cannot be determined 

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Ans: (b)
1 kg of steam at 100ºC contains more heat because water required latent heat to form steam.

Q41: Which of the following statements is/are accurate? (i) Penicillin is derived from a multicellular fungus. (ii) Yeast is utilized in the production of vitamin B-complex tablets. (iii) The DPT vaccine protects against the bacteria that cause typhoid. (iv) Salmonella is involved in cheese production.
(a) (i) and (iv) only
(b) (iii) only
(c) (i) and (ii) only
(d) (iii) and (iv) only

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Ans: (c)

  • Penicillin is indeed obtained from a type of multicellular fungus, specifically the mold Penicillium.
  • Yeast is commonly used in making vitamin B-complex tablets due to its rich nutrient content.
  • The DPT vaccine does not protect against typhoid; it is for diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus.
  • Salmonella is not used in cheese production; it is a bacterium that can cause food poisoning.

Q42: Select the one that does not fit based on biodiversity conservation methods.
(a) Zoological park
(b) National park
(c) Botanical garden
(d) Gene bank

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Ans: (b)

  • The National park is primarily focused on protecting natural habitats and wildlife, while the others are more specialized in conservation methods.
  • A Zoological park focuses on animal conservation, a Botanical garden on plant species, and a Gene bank preserves genetic material.
  • Thus, the National park stands out as it serves a broader purpose of habitat protection rather than specific species conservation.

Q43: Calculate the mass of 0.66 g molecule of carbon dioxide:
(a) 29.04 g 
(b) 31.5 g 
(c) 34.6 g 
(d) 23.7 g 

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Ans: (a)
0.66 gram molecule of carbon dioxide
Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9

Q44: Which of the following hormones is responsible for reducing calcium levels in the bloodstream?
(a) Calcitonin
(b) Thyroxine
(c) Adrenaline
(d) Insulin 

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Ans: (a)

  • Calcitonin is the hormone that plays a key role in lowering blood calcium levels.
  • It is produced by the thyroid gland and helps to regulate calcium in the body.
  • When calcium levels are high, calcitonin is released to help decrease them by promoting calcium deposition in bones.
  • Other hormones like thyroxine, adrenaline, and insulin do not primarily function to lower calcium levels.

Q45: Which of the following statements is false about meristematic tissues?
(i) They are differentiated cells which do not possess the power of division.
(ii) They are compactly arranged without intercellular spaces.
(iii) They are multinucleated with dense cytoplasm.
(iv) They contain few vacuoles or vacuoles are absent. 

(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (i) and (iii) only
(c) (ii) and (iv) only
(d) None of these 

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Ans: (b)

  • Meristematic tissues are undifferentiated cells that have the ability to divide, so statement (i) is incorrect.
  • They are closely packed with little to no intercellular spaces, making statement (ii) correct.
  • These tissues are typically not multinucleated; they usually have a single nucleus, which makes statement (iii) incorrect.
  • Meristematic cells usually have few vacuoles or none at all, so statement (iv) is correct.

Achiever Section

Q46: If the Earth suddenly shrinks by one-fourth of its present radius, find the value of the acceleration due to gravity:
(a) 9/16
(b) 16/9
(c) 3/4
(d) 4/3

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (b)
Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9

Q47: If you are travelling in an overcrowded and poorly ventilated bus, the chances of getting which of the following diseases are high?
(a) COVID-19
(b) Polio
(c) Elephantiasis
(d) Syphilis

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (a)
Polio, elephantiasis and syphilis cannot spread through the aerosols. But COVID-19 can and the person travelling in poorly ventilated, overcrowded buses will be exposed to the virus.

Q48: Heterocysts are specialised nitrogen-fixing cells that are found in
(a) cyanobacteria
(b) fungi
(c) gymnosperms
(d) lichens

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (a)
Heterocysts are specialised nitrogen-fixing cells formed during nitrogen starvation by some filamentous cyanobacteria, such as Nostoc punctiforme, Cylindrospermum stagnale, and Anabaena sphaerica. 

Q49: Which of the following definitions best describes canal rays?
(a) The positively charged radiation produced in the discharge tube that move towards the cathode
(b) The collection of negatively charged particles emitted from cathode in the discharge tube experiment.
(c) Produced by atoms of all elements except Hydrogen.
(d) The collection of negatively charged particles emitted from cathode as well as from the atoms of the gas in the discharge tube experiment.

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (a)
Canal rays are the positively charged radiation produced in the discharge tube that seem to emerge from the anode and move towards the cathode. When a perforated cathode is used, they produce scintillations behind the cathode. Goldstein called these positive rays Kanalstrahlen, "channel rays" or "canal rays", because they could be detected only when a perforated cathode was used.

Q50: In a species, the number of electrons is 2 less than the number of neutrons and the number of protons is one less than the number of neutrons. If the mass number is 23, the actual number of electrons, protons and neutrons respectively are
(a) 12, 13, 14
(b) 10, 11, 12
(c) 11, 12, 13
(d) 9, 10, 11

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (b)
Let the number of neutrons be x.
Number of electrons = x - 2
Number of protons = x - 1
x + x - 1 = 23
x = 12
Therefore, the number of neutrons = 12
The number of protons = x - 1 = 12 - 1 = 11
Number of electrons = 12 - 2 = 10
The species is Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9

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FAQs on Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 2 - Science Olympiad Class 9

1. What topics are commonly covered in the Class 9 Science Olympiad exams?
Ans. The Class 9 Science Olympiad typically covers topics such as matter, force and motion, work and energy, sound, light, and more. It emphasizes understanding principles of physical and life sciences as per the Class 9 curriculum.
2. How can students prepare effectively for the Science Olympiad?
Ans. Students can prepare effectively by reviewing their Class 9 science textbooks, practicing previous year question papers, participating in mock tests, and utilizing online resources and study guides that focus on the Olympiad syllabus.
3. Are there any specific types of questions that are frequently asked in the Science Olympiad?
Ans. Yes, the Science Olympiad often includes multiple-choice questions, assertion and reasoning questions, and practical application questions that assess students' understanding of scientific concepts and their ability to apply them in real-world scenarios.
4. What is the significance of participating in the Science Olympiad for Class 9 students?
Ans. Participating in the Science Olympiad helps students enhance their understanding of scientific concepts, develop critical thinking skills, and gain confidence in problem-solving. It also provides a competitive platform that can motivate them to excel academically.
5. How is the scoring system structured in the Science Olympiad exams?
Ans. In the Science Olympiad exams, each question usually carries a specific number of marks, and there may be negative marking for incorrect answers. The total score is calculated based on the number of correct answers, encouraging students to answer questions they are confident about.
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