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Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9 PDF Download

Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation.

Logical Reasoning Section

Q1: Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.
Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 3 
(d) 1

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Ans: (a)
In one step, the figure gets laterally inverted and one line segment is lost from the upper end of the RHS portion of the figure. In the next step, the figure gets laterally inverted and one line segment is lost from the upper end of the LHS portion of the figure.

Q2: Read the given information carefully and answer the question that follows. 'A + B' means A is less than B. 'A – B' means A is more than B. 'A ÷ B' means A is either less than or equal to B. 'A × B' means A is equal to B. Assuming the above statements to be true, identify which of the two conclusions regarding the statements given below are true? 
Statements: D – E, E ÷ F, F × G 
Conclusions: I. E ÷ G II. D ÷ G
(a) Both I and II
(b) Only I
(c) Only II
(d) Neither I nor II

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Ans: (b)

  • From the statements, we know that D is greater than E (D – E), E is less than or equal to F (E ÷ F), and F is equal to G (F × G).
  • From E ÷ F, we can conclude that E is either less than or equal to F, and since F is equal to G, E must also be less than or equal to G (E ÷ G).
  • However, we cannot definitively conclude that D is less than or equal to G because D is greater than E, and we don't have a direct comparison between D and G.
  • Thus, only conclusion I (E ÷ G) is true, while conclusion II (D ÷ G) is not necessarily true.

Q3: Choose the figure which is different from the rest.
Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2

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Ans: (c)
Only in fig. (3), the two shaded portions lies on the same side of the main line.

Q4: A word arrangement machine, when provided with a set of words, organizes them in a specific manner as illustrated below. Input: happiness comes from your own actions 
Step I: your happiness comes from own actions 
Step II: your own happiness comes from actions 
Step III: your own happiness from comes actions And Step III is the final step for the above input. 
According to the pattern followed in the previous steps, what is the last step for the following input? Input: slow and steady wins the race
(a) Step I
(b) Step II
(c) Step III
(d) Step IV

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Ans: (d)

  • Step I: The machine will rearrange the words to form "steady slow and wins the race".
  • Step II: Next, it will change the order to "steady wins slow and the race".
  • Step III: Then, it will adjust to "steady wins the slow and race".
  • Step IV: Finally, it will produce "steady wins the race slow and". This is the last step.

Q5: Pointing to a girl in the picture, Salman said, her mother’s brother is the only son of my mother’s father. How is the girl’s mother related to Salman if the girl is not the real sister of Salman?
(a) Sister
(b) Aunt
(c) Cousin
(d) Grandmother

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Ans: (b)
Only son of Salman’s mother’s father - Salman’s maternal uncle.
So, the girl’s maternal uncle is Salman's maternal uncle.
Thus, the girl’s mother is Salman’s aunt.

Q6: M is the son of N and the husband of P. S and P are sisters. S is married to H. What is H's relationship to M?
(a) Brother
(b) Cousin
(c) Brother-in-law
(d) Son-in-law

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Ans: (c)

  • M is the son of N and is married to P.
  • S is P's sister, making M and S brothers-in-law.
  • H is married to S, which means H is also M's brother-in-law.
  • Thus, the correct answer is that H is M's brother-in-law.

Q7: Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark (?).
Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9

(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 1

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Ans: (c)
The number of sides of the central figure increases by one and the number of line segments attached to the central figure decreases by one.

Q8: What time did the train leave today?
Statement I: The train normally leaves on time.
Statement II: The scheduled departure is at 14 : 30.

(a) I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
(b) Both I and II are sufficient
(c) II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
(d) Neither I nor II is sufficient

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Ans: (d)
Clearly, even both I and II together do not reveal the exact time of departure of the train today.

Q9: If Star is called Sun, Sun is called Moon, Moon is called Earth and Earth is called Comet, then man lives on
(a) Moon
(b) Earth
(c) Star
(d) Comet

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Ans: (d)
Man lives on Earth and earth called a comet. So, the correct answer is a comet.

Q10: Study the following information carefully and answer the question that follows:
(i) Five persons P, Q, R, S, and T are traveling in a train to different cities. These persons have different professions, i.e., doctor, professor, accountant, officer, and manager but not in the same order.
(ii) P is going to Chandigarh and is not an officer.
(iii) S is going to Mumbai and is a doctor.
(iv) R is going to Dehradun but is not a professor.
(v) An accountant is going to Delhi.
(vi) T is going to Amritsar and is a manager.
Which of the following persons is going to Delhi?

(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (b)

  • From the information, we know that P is going to Chandigarh and is not an officer.
  • S is going to Mumbai and is a doctor.
  • R is going to Dehradun but is not a professor.
  • T is going to Amritsar and is a manager.
  • This leaves Q as the only person who can be the accountant going to Delhi.

Science Section

Q11: A force of magnitude F1 accelerates a body of mass 2 kg from rest to a speed v. Another force F2 accelerates another body of mass 6 kg from rest to a speed 2v. Determine the ratio of work done by force F2 to that by force F1.
(a) 1:12
(b) 1:8
(c) 12:1
(d) 8:1

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • To find the work done by each force, we use the formula: Work = Change in Kinetic Energy.
  • For the first body (mass = 2 kg, speed = v): Kinetic Energy = 0.5 * 2 * v^2 = v^2.
  • For the second body (mass = 6 kg, speed = 2v): Kinetic Energy = 0.5 * 6 * (2v)^2 = 12v^2.
  • The ratio of work done by F2 to F1 is: 12v^2 / v^2 = 12:1.

Q12: A particle moving along a straight line covers the first one-third distance with a speed of 3 m/s. The remaining distance is traversed in two equal time intervals at speeds of 4.5 m/s and 7.5 m/s. What is the average speed of the particle?
(a) 5.0 m/s
(b) 5.5 m/s
(c) 4.5 m/s
(d) 4.0 m/s

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Ans: (c)

  • The total distance is divided into three parts, with the first part covered at a speed of 3 m/s.
  • The remaining two-thirds of the distance is covered in two equal time intervals at speeds of 4.5 m/s and 7.5 m/s.
  • To find the average speed, we need to calculate the total distance and total time taken.
  • After calculating, the average speed comes out to be 4.5 m/s, which is the correct answer.

Q13: A stone is thrown straight up. At a specific height h above the ground, the ratio of its potential energy to kinetic energy is 3:4. At what height will the ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy be 3:4? (All heights are measured from the ground.)
(a) 2/5h
(b) 9/8h
(c) 4/3h
(d) 4/7h

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • The potential energy (PE) of an object increases with height, while the kinetic energy (KE) decreases as it rises.
  • At height h, the ratio of PE to KE is given as 3:4, meaning for every 3 units of potential energy, there are 4 units of kinetic energy.
  • To find the height where the ratio of KE to PE is 3:4, we can use the relationship between these energies.
  • By analyzing the ratios, we find that this condition is satisfied at the height of 4/3h.

Q14: An object moves in a circular path of radius 6 cm with a constant speed. If it takes 2 minutes to move from a point on the path to the diametrically opposite point, find the average velocity:
(a) 12 cm/min
(b) 24 cm/min
(c) 31.4 cm/min
(d) 6 cm/min

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Ans: (a)
Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9

Q15: Which among the following cell organelle provides the surface for various biochemical activities of the cell?
(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Endoplasmic Reticulum
(c) Myosin
(d) Plasma membrane

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Ans: (b)
The endoplasmic reticulum forms a vast network inside the cytoplasm and provides the surface for various biochemical activities.

Q16: A player kicks a ball of mass 200 g placed at the center of a field. The ball leaves his foot with a speed of 8 m/s. Find the work done by the player on the ball:
(a) 1.6 J
(b) 6.4 J
(c) 1.3 J
(d) 5.8 J

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Ans: (b)
The work done on the ball is equal to its kinetic energy when kicked: Work = (1/2) * m * v²
Where:
m = mass (200 g = 0.2 kg)
v = velocity (8 m/s)
Work = (1/2) * (0.2 kg) * (8 m/s)² = 0.1 * 64 = 6.4 J
Therefore, the correct answer is (b) 6.4 J.

Q17: When a glass rod is rubbed with fur, what type of charge does the fur acquire?
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Can be positive or negative
(d) No charge at all

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Ans: (a)

  • The process of rubbing a glass rod with fur transfers electrons.
  • Fur loses electrons, resulting in a positive charge on the fur.
  • Glass, on the other hand, gains those electrons, becoming negatively charged.
  • This is a classic example of static electricity and how materials can exchange charges through friction.

Q18: There are two walls P and W which are 240 m apart from each other. A person standing 80 m away from wall P (in between the walls) claps his hands once. If the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s, then the time interval between the first and second echoes that he hears is:
(a) 0.05 s
(b) 2.00 s
(c) 0.47 s
(d) 0.12 s

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Ans: (c)

  • To find the time interval between the echoes, we first calculate the distance the sound travels to the walls and back.
  • The distance to wall P is 80 m, and the distance to wall W is 240 m - 80 m = 160 m.
  • The sound travels to wall P and back (80 m * 2 = 160 m) and to wall W and back (160 m * 2 = 320 m).
  • The total distance is 160 m + 320 m = 480 m.
  • Using the speed of sound (340 m/s), the time taken is distance/speed = 480 m / 340 m/s = 1.41 s.
  • The time interval between the first echo (from wall P) and the second echo (from wall W) is the difference in time taken for each echo, which is approximately 0.47 s.

Q19: Read the given statements and mark the correct option. 
Statement 1: The orbital motion of Uranus appears to roll on its side. 
Statement 2: The rotational axis of Uranus is highly tilted.
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(b) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • Both statements are true: Uranus does indeed have a unique orbital motion that makes it appear to roll on its side.
  • High tilt of the rotational axis: The significant tilt of Uranus's axis is what causes this rolling motion.
  • Correct explanation: Statement 2 explains why statement 1 is true, as the tilt directly affects the orbital motion.
  • Conclusion: Therefore, both statements are true, and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1.

Q20: The gravitational force between two masses kept at a certain distance is f N. The same two masses are now kept at a distance of 5 km under seawater, and the distance between them remains the same. The gravitational force between them in water is:
(a) f N
(b) (f + 5) N
(c) (f + 0.005) N
(d) f/5 N

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Ans: (a)

  • The gravitational force between two masses depends on their mass and the distance between them.

Q21: A body of mass M strikes a rigid wall perpendicularly with a velocity u and rebounds with the same velocity. What is the change in momentum?
(a) 2Mu
(b) Mu
(c) Zero
(d) Mu/3

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Ans: (a)

  • The initial momentum of the body before hitting the wall is Mu (mass times velocity).
  • After bouncing back, the final momentum is -Mu (the direction is reversed).
  • The change in momentum is calculated as final momentum minus initial momentum: (-Mu) - (Mu) = -2Mu.
  • Thus, the magnitude of the change in momentum is 2Mu.

Q22: The pitch of the sound depends on the:
(a) Frequency
(b) Velocity
(c) Intensity
(d) Amplitude

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Ans: (a)

  • The pitch of a sound is determined by its frequency. Higher frequencies result in higher pitches, while lower frequencies produce lower pitches.
  • Velocity refers to the speed of sound in a medium, but it does not affect the pitch.
  • Intensity relates to the loudness of the sound, not its pitch.
  • Amplitude affects the volume of the sound, but again, not the pitch.

Q23: Which of the following substances will not allow light to pass through them and illuminate the path of light when it is passed through?
(I) Blood, 
(II) Brine, 
(III) Milk, 
(IV) Soda water
 (a) I and II only
(b) I and III only
(c) II and IV only
(d) I, II, and III only

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Ans: (c)

  • The question asks which substances do not allow light to pass through them. This means we are looking for opaque or cloudy substances.
  • Blood and milk are both opaque, meaning they do not let light through, while brine (saltwater) and soda water are generally transparent.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (c) because it includes brine and soda water, which do allow light to pass through.
  • So, the substances that do not illuminate the path of light are I (Blood) and III (Milk).

Q24: Arrange the following atoms in the order of decreasing number of moles: I. 28 g of He II. 46 g of Na III. 60 g of Ca
(a) I > II > III
(b) III > II > I
(c) I > III > II
(d) III > I > II

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Ans: (a)

  • To find the number of moles, we use the formula: moles = mass (g) / molar mass (g/mol).
  • For Helium (He): 28 g / 4 g/mol = 7 moles.
  • For Sodium (Na): 46 g / 23 g/mol = 2 moles.
  • For Calcium (Ca): 60 g / 40 g/mol = 1.5 moles.
  • Thus, the order of moles is I > II > III, which means Helium has the most moles, followed by Sodium, and then Calcium.

Q25: A gun of mass 1 kg fires 5 bullets per sec each of mass 30 g with a velocity 250 ms-1. The force requires to hold the gun is:
(a) 37.5 N
(b) 12.8 N
(c) 15.6 N
(d) 23.6 N

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Ans: (a)
Force = Rate of change of momentum
= (mass/time) x velocity
= (0.03 x 5) x 250 = 37.5 N

Q26: A ball of mass 2 kg thrown upwards reaches a maximum height of 5 m. Calculate the work done by the force of gravity during this vertical displacement:
(a) 98 J
(b) 196 J
(c) 49 J
(d) 78 J

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Ans: (a)
W = F x s = (mg) x s = 2 x 9.8 x 5 = 98 J

Q27: The frequency of a source is 25 kHz. The frequencies of the sound wave produced by it in water and air will:
(a) be the same as that of the source
(b) depend on the velocity of the waves in these media
(c) depend on the wavelength of the waves in these media
(d) depend on the density of the media

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Ans: (a)
The frequency of sound waves remains the same regardless of the medium through which they travel. Therefore, the answer is: (a)

Q28: Which of the following has the highest number of atoms?
(a) 0.3 mol of nitrogen gas
(b) 0.5 mol of oxygen gas
(c) 0.4 mol of ozone gas
(d) 0.2 mol of carbon dioxide gas

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Ans: (c)

  • Ozone (O3) consists of three oxygen atoms per molecule.
  • Calculating the total number of atoms involves multiplying the number of moles by the number of atoms in each molecule.
  • For 0.4 mol of ozone: 0.4 mol x 3 atoms = 1.2 mol of atoms.
  • In comparison, the other options yield fewer total atoms: 0.3 mol of nitrogen (0.6 mol), 0.5 mol of oxygen (1 mol), and 0.2 mol of carbon dioxide (0.4 mol).
  • Thus, 0.4 mol of ozone gas contains the greatest number of atoms.

Q29: Find the correct pair.
(a) Virus – Common cold
(b) Bacteria – Kala-azar
(c) Fungi – Anthrax
(d) Protozoa – Elephantiasis

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Ans: (a)
The common cold is caused by a virus. Kala-azar is caused by a protozoan, anthrax is caused by a bacterium and elephantiasis is caused by a nematode.

Q30: A block of mass 2 kg is at rest on a plane surface inclined at an angle 30° to the horizontal. Find the magnitude of force exerted by the plane on the block. (g = 9.8 m/s2)
(a) 19.6 N
(b) 9.8 N
(c) 2 N
(d) 24.6 N

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Ans: (a)
Force = Mg = 2 x 9.8 = 19.6 N

Q31: Element P has 5 electrons in its L shell while element Q has 5 electrons in its M shell. Which of the following statements is correct regarding elements P and Q?
(a) Both elements have valency equal to 5 only.
(b) Both elements have the same atomic weight.
(c) Atomic number of element P is 7 and that of element Q is 15.
(d) Both elements lose 5 electrons to attain noble gas configuration.

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Ans: (c)

  • Element P has its electrons in the L shell, which means it is in the second period of the periodic table, while element Q has its electrons in the M shell, placing it in the third period.
  • The atomic number of an element is determined by the number of protons, which corresponds to the number of electrons in a neutral atom.
  • For element P, having 5 electrons in the L shell indicates an atomic number of 7 (as it has 2 in the K shell and 5 in the L shell).
  • Element Q, with 5 electrons in the M shell, has an atomic number of 15, as it has 2 in the K shell, 8 in the L shell, and 5 in the M shell.

Q32: Which of the following does not represent a correct pairing?
(a) Burning of LPG in kitchen stove – Rapid combustion
(b) Burning of white phosphorus – Spontaneous combustion
(c) Burning of coal dust in coal mines – Spontaneous combustion
(d) Burning of magnesium – Slow combustion

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Ans: (d)

  • Burning of LPG in kitchen stove is an example of rapid combustion because it occurs quickly and produces heat and light.
  • Burning of white phosphorus is classified as spontaneous combustion since it ignites on its own at room temperature.
  • Burning of coal dust in coal mines can also lead to spontaneous combustion due to the heat generated from oxidation.
  • However, burning of magnesium is not slow combustion; it burns rapidly and produces a bright flame, making option (d) the incorrect match.

Q33: Select the option that correctly pairs one rabi crop with one kharif crop:
(a) Pea, Soybean
(b) Mustard, Linseed
(c) Cotton, Bajra
(d) Groundnut, Maize

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • Rabi crops 
  • Kharif crops 
  • In option (a), Pea is a rabi crop and Soybean is a kharif crop, making this pairing correct.
  • The other options do not correctly match one rabi and one kharif crop.

Q34: Which among the following are the negative effects of NPK fertiliser?
(a) Water pollution
(b) Loss of soil texture
(c) Loss of soil fertility
(d) All of the above

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Ans: (d)
NPK is chemical fertiliser. Chemical fertilisers tend to cause water pollution and reduces soil fertility and texture.

Q35: Read the given sentences and select the option that correctly fills the blanks in any two of them: 
(i) Zoological parks, botanical gardens, and seed banks are ______ method of conservation of biodiversity. 
(ii) ______ is the zone of a biosphere reserve where no human activity is permitted. 
(iii) _______ refers to planting of new trees where forests have been destroyed. 
(iv) Mudumalai Sanctuary that is famous for Indian elephants is present in ________ state of India. 
(a) (i) In situ, (ii) Manipulation zone 
(b) (iii) Reforestation, (iv) Kerala 
(c) (i) Ex situ, (iii) Reforestation 
(d) (ii) Core zone, (iv) Madhya Pradesh 

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • Ex situ conservation refers to methods like zoological parks and botanical gardens, which are outside the natural habitat.
  • The core zone is a protected area in a biosphere reserve where human activities are restricted to preserve biodiversity.
  • Reforestation is the process of planting trees in areas where forests have been cut down.
  • Mudumalai Sanctuary is located in the state of Tamil Nadu, which is known for its Indian elephants.

Q36: A man carrying a bag of mass 30 kg climbs up to a height of 15 m in 50 seconds. Calculate the power delivered by him to the bag:
(a) 78.4 W
(b) 88.2 W
(c) 98.9 W
(d) 19.6 W

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Ans: (b)
Power is calculated using the formula: Power = Work / Time
First, we need to calculate the work done against gravity: Work = m * g * h
Where:
m = mass (30 kg)
g = 9.8 m/s2
h = height (15 m)
Work = (30 kg) * (9.8 m/s²) * (15 m) = 4410 J
Now, using the time taken (50 seconds): Power = 4410 J / 50 s = 88.2 W
Thus, the correct answer is (b) 88.2 W.

Q37: A person is sitting 300 m away from a 40 Hz sound source. What is the time interval at which successive compression pulses from the source reach him?
(a) 0.05 s
(b) 0.025 s
(c) 0.25 s
(d) 0.5 s

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Ans: (b)
The time interval (T) can be calculated as T = 1 / Frequency = 1 / 40 Hz = 0.025 s.

Q38: Aradhya's teacher requested her to identify three fundamental characteristics that are present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells without exception. Which of the following options do you think could be Aradhya's accurate response?
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum, Nucleus, Cytoplasm
(b) Cytoplasm, Plasma membrane, Ribosome
(c) Cell wall, Mitochondria, Cytoplasm
(d) Plasma membrane, Mitochondria, Chloroplast

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (b)

  • The correct answer is (b) Cytoplasm, Plasma membrane, Ribosome. These are essential components found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
  • The cytoplasm is the jelly-like substance where cellular processes occur.
  • The plasma membrane surrounds the cell, providing structure and regulating what enters and exits.
  • Ribosomes are crucial for protein synthesis and are present in all cell types.

Q39: Health is a state of:
I. Physical well being
II. Mental well being
III. Social well being
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) Only I
(d) I, II and III

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Ans: (d)
Physical, mental and social well-being must be at an ideal level to consider a person as healthy.

Q40: Read the given statements and select the correct option:
Statement 1: Parenchyma and collenchyma tissues have thick walls and living cells.
Statement 2: Parenchyma forms hard grit of pear fruit and collenchyma forms hard walls of nuts.
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
(b) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • Statement 1 is incorrect because parenchyma tissues have thin walls and are not necessarily hard, while collenchyma has thickened cell walls but is still living.
  • Statement 2 is also incorrect as parenchyma does not form the hard grit of pears; it is the collenchyma that provides support in young stems and leaves, while the hard walls of nuts are due to sclerenchyma, not collenchyma.
  • Thus, both statements are incorrect, making option (d) the right choice.

Q41: Identify the incorrect statement:
(a) The nitrogen cycle involves the fixing of nitrogen gas by nitrogen-fixing bacteria and lightning.
(b) The nitrates and nitrites are used by plants to produce amino acids.
(c) The nitrates and nitrites are released into the atmosphere by denitrifying bacteria and combustion.
(d) Water cycles help to control the level of humidity, water availability etc.

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (c)
Combustion cannot release nitrogen into the atmosphere

Q42: A body of mass 200 g kept at rest breaks into two parts due to internal forces. One part of mass 150 g is found to move at a speed of 12 m/s towards east. What will be the velocity of the other part?
(a) 24 m/s
(b) 6 m/s
(c) 12 m/s
(d) 36 m/s

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (d)
According to conservation of linear momentum,
Initial momentum = Final momentum
200 x 0 = 150 x 12 – 50 x v
⇒ v = 36 m/s

Q43: Read the given statements and select the correct one:
(a) Acute diseases last for an extended period, leading to long-term health issues.
(b) Acquired diseases are physiological irregularities that are present from birth.
(c) Cleft palate results from environmental influences, while haemophilia is due to genetic mutations.
(d) AIDS and German measles cannot be transmitted to a baby from infected mothers.

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • Cleft palate is indeed influenced by environmental factors, such as maternal health and nutrition during pregnancy.
  • Haemophilia, on the other hand, is a genetic disorder caused by a mutation in genes responsible for blood clotting.
  • Options (a) and (b) are incorrect because acute diseases are typically short-term, and acquired diseases are not present at birth.
  • Option (d) is also incorrect as both AIDS and German measles can be transmitted from an infected mother to her baby.

Q44: Which among the following factors does not contribute to soil formation?
(a) Bryophytes
(b) Wind
(c) Water
(d) None of these

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (d)
Bryophytes establish over rocks just after lichens and their roots help to whether the rocks over time.
The wind picks up rocks and smashes them against each other and produces soil.
Water on the other hand may freeze during the night in the crevices and causes breakage of rocks.

Q45: Read the given paragraph. Soil L is well aerated but cannot hold much water, soil M is well aerated and has a very good water holding capacity. Soil N has excellent water holding capacity but is poorly aerated. Select the correct statement regarding soils L, M, and N.
(a) Soil M is commonly found in those regions where xerophytes are abundant.
(b) Soil N is best suited for growing garden plants.
(c) Soil L is best suited for making pots, statues, and toys.
(d) Soil L and N are not suitable for plant growth whereas soil M is best suited for plant growth.

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • Soil L has good aeration but lacks water retention, making it less ideal for plants.
  • Soil M is well aerated and retains water effectively, making it the best choice for plant growth.
  • Soil N holds a lot of water but is poorly aerated, which is not suitable for most plants.
  • Thus, the statement that Soil L and N are not suitable for plant growth while Soil M is best suited is correct.

Achievers Section 

Q46: Which among the following is a cell organelle seen in prokaryotes? 
(a) Lysosome 
(b) Ribosome 
(c) Peroxisome 
(d) Nucleolus

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (b)
Ribosomes are seen in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes. But they are structurally different. However, ribosomes that are similar to the ones in prokaryotes can be seen inside both mitochondria and plastids.

Q47: Look at the given options. Study them carefully and choose the option which is caused by the bacteria named Helicobacter.
(a) Peptic ulcer
(b) Gastric ulcer
(c) Duodenal ulcer
(d) Oesophageal ulcer

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (d)
Peptic ulcer is caused by the bacteria named Helicobacter and is mostly found in the upper gastrointestinal tract.  

Q48: Which of the following substances is not pure?
(a) Hydrochloric acid
(b) Iron
(c) Milk
(d) Calcium oxide

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (c)
A pure substance consists of a single type of particles having the same chemical nature.
Elements like iron, and compounds like hydrochloric acid and calcium oxide are all pure substances.
Milk, however, is a mixture of several substances, such as water, sugar, fat, protein etc. It is an impure substance because the constituent particles are chemically different.

Q49: Which force directs the passengers to fall sideways when a speeding car takes a sharp turn?
(a) Centrifugal force
(b) Centripetal force
(c) Gravitational force
(d) Frictional force

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (a)
When a speeding car takes a sharp turn, the centripetal force helps keep the car in its curved track. The part of passenger's body that is in contact with the car will be in its position due to frictional force.
The rest of the body of the passengers will experience a centrifugal force which is directed away from the center of the curved path.
So the passengers tend to fall sideways when a speeding car takes a sharp turn.

Q50: Which of the following is found at the highest part of the stem?
(a) Apical meristem
(b) Lateral meristem
(c) Intercalary meristem
(d) Parenchyma

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9  View Answer

Ans: (a)
Meristem is a region of plant tissue, found chiefly at the growing tips of roots and shoots and in the cambium, consisting of actively dividing cells forming new tissue. Apical meristem is found at the apices of the stem, root and their branches

The document Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 9 is a part of the Class 9 Course Science Olympiad Class 9.
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FAQs on Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 - Science Olympiad Class 9

1. What is the format of the Achievers Section Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 for Class 9?
Ans. The Achievers Section Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 for Class 9 typically includes multiple-choice questions, assertion-reasoning questions, and some application-based questions that test the understanding of scientific concepts taught in the curriculum.
2. How can I prepare effectively for the Achievers Section in the Science Olympiad?
Ans. To prepare effectively, students should review their class notes, practice previous years' Olympiad papers, focus on understanding concepts rather than rote learning, and participate in group studies to clarify doubts and enhance learning through discussion.
3. What topics are generally covered in the Science Olympiad Model Test Paper for Class 9?
Ans. The Science Olympiad Model Test Paper for Class 9 usually covers topics such as Matter, Force and Motion, Sound, Structure of Matter, Acids, Bases and Salts, and various other chapters from the Class 9 science syllabus as per the NCERT guidelines.
4. Are there any specific strategies to answer difficult questions in the Science Olympiad?
Ans. Yes, strategies include carefully reading the questions to understand what is being asked, eliminating obviously wrong options in multiple-choice questions, managing time effectively, and making educated guesses when unsure of the answers.
5. How important is the Achievers Section in determining overall performance in the Science Olympiad?
Ans. The Achievers Section is quite important as it reflects a student's higher-order thinking skills and conceptual understanding. Performing well in this section can significantly boost a student's overall score and ranking in the Science Olympiad.
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