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English Olympiad Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | English Olympiad for Class 6 PDF Download

Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation.

Word and Structure Knowledge

Choose the correct option to complete each sentence. (Question 1 to 24)

Q1: My aunt is employed as an ______ for a well-known magazine.
(a) editor
(b) editing
(c) edited
(d) editorial

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Ans: (a)

  • The correct answer is editor because it refers to a person who is responsible for overseeing the content of a publication.
  • Editing is a process, not a job title, while edited is a past tense verb and editorial refers to a type of article.
  • Thus, the only option that correctly fits the job description is editor.

Q2: My grandmother ______ the dogs before we left for the vacation.
(a) feeding
(b) fed
(c) feeds
(d) feed

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Ans: (b)

  • The correct answer is fed because it is the past tense of the verb feed.
  • This indicates that the action of feeding the dogs happened before the vacation.
  • Using feeding or feeds would not fit the context since they do not indicate a completed action in the past.
  • Thus, fed is the appropriate choice for this sentence.

Q3: After her accident, she recalls ______ of the events that followed.
(a) none
(b) someone
(c) anything
(d) nothing

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Ans: (d)

  • The correct answer is nothing because it indicates that she does not remember any details after the accident.
  • Choosing none would imply a similar meaning, but it is not the best fit in this context.
  • Someone and anything do not accurately reflect the lack of memory she has regarding the events.
  • Thus, nothing is the most appropriate choice as it clearly states that there are no memories of what happened afterward.

Q4: I would like to buy a ______ washing machine.
(a) brilliantly
(b) bogus
(c) soundless
(d) valuing

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Ans: (c)

  • The correct word to fill in the blank is soundless, which means that the washing machine operates quietly.
  • Brilliantly does not fit as it describes something done with great skill, not a feature of a washing machine.
  • Bogus means fake or not genuine, which is not a desirable quality for a washing machine.
  • Valuing is not relevant in this context, as it refers to the act of determining worth.

Q5: I think Jessica coped ______ with a very difficult situation.
(a) admirable on
(b) admirable
(c) admire
(d) admirably

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Ans: (d)

  • In this sentence, the correct word to fill in the blank is admirably, which is an adverb. It describes how Jessica coped with the situation.
  • The other options are incorrect because they are either adjectives or not used correctly in this context.
  • Using admirably indicates that she handled the difficult situation in a commendable way.
  • Thus, the sentence conveys that Jessica managed the challenge in a way that deserves admiration.

Q6: We don't have any ______ in our newly built house.
(a) furnitures
(b) furniture
(c) furniture's
(d) furnish

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Ans: (b)

  • The correct term is furniture, which is an uncountable noun. It refers to items like chairs, tables, and sofas.
  • Furnitures is incorrect because it suggests a plural form that doesn't exist in standard English.
  • Furniture's implies possession, which is not suitable in this context.
  • Furnish is a verb and does not fit the sentence structure.

Q7: You ______ get your routine checkup done every 5-6 months.
(a) need
(b) should
(c) have
(d) might

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Ans: (b)

  • The correct word to fill in the blank is should, which indicates a recommendation or advice.
  • Using need implies a necessity, while have and might do not convey the same level of recommendation.
  • Thus, should is the most appropriate choice for this context.

Q8: Though everyone is researching, little ______ been achieved so far.
(a) has
(b) have
(c) was
(d) were

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Ans: (a)

  • The correct word to fill in the blank is has. This is because "little" is a singular noun, and we use "has" with singular subjects.
  • Thus, the correct choice is (a) has, indicating that despite ongoing research, not much has been accomplished yet.

Q9: Her parents ______ in Delhi two weeks from now.
(a) were
(b) was being
(c) will be
(d) have been

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Ans: (c)

  • The correct answer is will be because it indicates a future action.
  • In this context, "two weeks from now" suggests that the action of being in Delhi is planned for the future.
  • Options (a) and (b) are incorrect as they refer to past actions, while (d) implies a continuous action that started in the past.
  • Thus, "will be" is the only option that fits the future timeframe given in the question.

Q10: There is not ______ milk in the jug.
(a) more
(b) much
(c) little
(d) few

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Ans: (b)

  • The phrase "not much" is used to indicate a small quantity of something, in this case, milk.
  • "Much" is appropriate here because it refers to uncountable nouns like milk.
  • Using "more" or "few" would not fit the context, as they imply different meanings.
  • Thus, the correct choice is "much," which accurately conveys the intended meaning.

Q11: The child concealed the pen ______ a stack of books.
(a) up
(b) before
(c) besides
(d) beneath

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Ans: (d)

  • The correct answer is beneath, which means under or below something.
  • In this context, it indicates that the pen is hidden under the pile of books.
  • The other options do not fit the meaning of being under something.
  • For example, "up" suggests a position above, while "before" and "besides" imply different locations that do not mean under.

Q12: Last weekend, we enjoyed ______ delicious meal.
(a) a
(b) an
(c) the
(d) no article

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Ans: (a)

  • The correct option is a because we use "a" before words that begin with a consonant sound. In this case, "sumptuous" starts with a consonant sound, so "a sumptuous meal" is correct.
  • Using "an" would be incorrect here since it is used before vowel sounds.

Q13: My friends are ______ away on the weekends.
(a) ever
(b) hard ever
(c) usually
(d) often

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Ans: (c)

  • The correct word to fill in the blank is usually. This means that my friends are often away on weekends.
  • Usually indicates a common occurrence, which fits well with the context of weekends.
  • Other options like ever and hard ever do not make sense in this context.
  • Often could be a possible alternative, but usually is the best fit here.

Q14: Either Robert ______ his friend has stolen the cellphone.
(a) or
(b) and
(c) neither
(d) nor

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Ans: (a)

  • The correct word to fill in the blank is "or". This is because the sentence presents two possibilities: either Robert or his friend is the one who has stolen the cellphone.
  • Using "and" would imply both are involved, which doesn't fit the context.
  • "Neither" and "nor" are used to indicate the absence of both options, which is not applicable here.
  • Thus, the correct choice is "or", indicating a choice between two alternatives.

Q15: It was extremely warm during the assembly that a little girl ______.
(a) passed of
(b) passed out
(c) passed up
(d) passed in

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Ans: (b)

  • The phrase "passed out" means to lose consciousness, often due to heat or exhaustion.
  • In this context, the little girl likely felt overwhelmed by the heat during the assembly.
  • The other options do not convey the same meaning; for example, "passed of" is not a correct phrase.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (b) "passed out," indicating she fainted due to the hot conditions.

Q16: David has responded to every question in the interview, ______ he?
(a) didn't
(b) hasn't
(c) wasn't
(d) weren't

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Ans: (b)

  • The sentence is a tag question, which is used to confirm information.
  • Since the main clause is in the present perfect tense ("has answered"), the correct tag should also be in the present perfect form.
  • Thus, "hasn't" is the appropriate choice to match the tense of the main clause.
  • The other options do not match the tense and therefore are incorrect.

Q17: The burglar broke ______ the house ______ the back door.
(a) into, through
(b) in, over
(c) inside, onto
(d) over, along

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Ans: (a)

  • The correct phrase is "broke into," which means to enter a place illegally.
  • "Through the back door" indicates the method of entry.
  • Other options do not correctly convey the action of breaking into a house.
  • Thus, the complete phrase is "The burglar broke into the house through the back door."

Q18: ______ I reached home, my friends were not there.
(a) If
(b) Because
(c) Although
(d) When

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Ans: (d)

  • The correct answer is When because it indicates the time something happened.
  • In this case, it shows that at the moment I arrived home, my friends were not present.
  • Using If or Because would not fit the context of timing.
  • Although suggests a contrast, which does not apply here.

Q19: All the cake had been ______ by them.
(a) eating
(b) eaten
(c) eats
(d) eat

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Ans: (b)

  • The correct word to fill in the blank is eaten, which is the past participle of the verb eat.
  • This sentence is in the passive voice, indicating that the action of eating was done to the cake.
  • Using eaten shows that the cake is no longer available because it has been consumed.
  • The other options do not fit grammatically in this context.

Q20: I ______ waiting for you for three hours.
(a) am
(b) have been
(c) will
(d) was

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Ans: (b)

  • The correct answer is have been because it indicates an action that started in the past and continues to the present.
  • Using have been shows that the waiting is ongoing and emphasizes the duration of three hours.
  • Other options like am and was do not convey the same sense of duration.
  • Will suggests a future action, which is not applicable here.

Q21: The prices of gas cylinders have ______ once again.
(a) gone through
(b) in
(c) gone up
(d) gone down

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Ans: (c)

  • The phrase "gone up" means that the prices have increased. This is the correct choice as it fits the context of the statement.
  • Option (a) "gone through" does not make sense in this context.
  • Option (b) "in" is incomplete and does not convey any meaning related to prices.
  • Option (d) "gone down" suggests a decrease, which contradicts the statement that prices have changed again.

Q22: Why are the guys not communicating with one another? Have you ______?
(a) clear the air
(b) miss the opportunity
(c) have second thoughts
(d) draw a blank

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Ans: (a)

  • The phrase "clear the air" means to resolve misunderstandings or tensions between people.
  • In this context, it suggests that the guys might need to talk things out to improve their relationship.
  • Other options like "miss the opportunity" or "draw a blank" do not fit the context of communication.
  • Thus, the correct choice is "clear the air" as it directly relates to the need for conversation.

Q23: Shreya and Riya said to me, "We play carrom board." Shreya and Riya ______.
(a) tells us that they played carrom board.
(b) told me that they were playing
(c) telling me that we played
(d) tell me that she plays

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Ans: (b)

  • In the original statement, Shreya and Riya are speaking in the present tense about playing carrom board.
  • The correct answer is (b) "told me that they were playing," which correctly changes the tense to past while maintaining the meaning.
  • Option (a) incorrectly uses "played" instead of "were playing," which changes the meaning.
  • Options (c) and (d) do not accurately reflect the original statement's meaning or tense.

Q24: German is seven years old, but he ______ speak French.
(a) speaks
(b) has speaking
(c) has spoken
(d) will be speaking

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Ans: (a)

  • The correct answer is "speaks" because it indicates a general ability or fact. In this case, it means that German does not have the ability to speak French.
  • Using "speaks" shows that at his age, he is not yet able to communicate in French.
  • The other options do not fit well in this context: "has speaking" is incorrect grammar, "has spoken" suggests he might have spoken French in the past, and "will be speaking" implies future ability, which is not relevant here.
  • Thus, the best choice is "speaks," as it clearly states his current inability to speak French.

Choose the option with correct spelling. (Question 25 to 26)

Q25: The ______ cleaner has various attachments.
(a) vaccum
(b) vacume
(c) vacuum
(d) vacumm

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Ans: (c)

  • The correct term is vacuum, which refers to a type of cleaner that uses suction to remove dirt and debris.
  • Options (a), (b), and (d) are incorrect spellings of the word vacuum.
  • Understanding the correct spelling is important for effective communication and comprehension.
  • In summary, the right answer is vacuum, as it is the standard term used for this cleaning device.

Q26: A ______ of cattle had strayed onto the road.
(a) heard
(b) herd
(c) hurd
(d) hurdle

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Ans: (b)

  • The correct term is herd, which refers to a group of animals, particularly cattle.
  • Heard is the past tense of hear, which does not fit in this context.
  • Hurd is not a recognized word in this context.
  • Hurdle refers to an obstacle, which is also not relevant here.

Q27: Choose the correct antonym of the word "Fatigue".
(a) Leave
(b) Lethargy
(c) Vigor
(d) Spirit

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Ans: (b)

  • Fatigue refers to a state of extreme tiredness or lack of energy.
  • The correct answer, Lethargy, means a lack of energy and enthusiasm, which is similar to fatigue.
  • In contrast, Vigor and Spirit imply energy and liveliness, which are opposite to fatigue.
  • Leave does not relate to fatigue at all, making it an incorrect option.

Q28: Choose the correct antonym of the word "Vicinity".
(a) Sight
(b) Distance
(c) Proximity
(d) Area

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Ans: (c)

  • The word vicinity means being close or near to something.
  • Among the options, proximity is the best synonym, as it also indicates closeness.
  • Sight and distance do not convey the idea of nearness.
  • Area is too broad and does not specifically imply closeness.

Q29: Choose the correct antonym of the word "Timorous".
(a) Faint
(b) Shy
(c) Brazen
(d) Afraid

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Ans: (c)

  • Timorous refers to someone who is easily frightened or lacking in confidence.
  • The correct answer is (c) Brazen, which means bold or shameless, contrasting with timorous.
  • Options (a) Faint and (b) Shy are related to fear but do not capture the essence of timorous.
  • Option (d) Afraid is similar but does not convey the same level of timidity as timorous.

Q30: Choose the correct antonym of the word "Aversion".
(a) Dislike
(b) Hostility
(c) Opposition
(d) Desire

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Ans: (d)

  • Aversion refers to a strong feeling of dislike or repulsion towards something.
  • In this context, the correct answer is Desire, which contrasts with aversion.
  • While options like Dislike, Hostility, and Opposition suggest negative feelings, Desire indicates a positive inclination.
  • Understanding these terms helps clarify the emotional responses we have towards various situations or objects.

Reading

Read the Passage and answer the question that follow (Question 31 to 35)

Scientists are observing changes in the Earth’s climate in every region and across the whole climate system, according to the latest Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) Report, released today. Many of the changes observed in the climate are unprecedented in thousands, if not hundreds of thousands of years, and some of the changes already set in motion—such as continued sea level rise—are irreversible over hundreds to thousands of years.

However, strong and sustained reductions in emissions of carbon dioxide (CO,) and other greenhouse gases would limit climate change. While benefits for air quality would come quickly, it could take 20-30 years to see global temperatures stabilize, according to the report.

The report shows that emissions of greenhouse gases from human activities are responsible for approximately 1.1 °C of warming since 1850-1900, and finds that averaged over the next 20 years, global temperature is expected to reach or exceed 1.5°C of warming.

The report projects that in the coming decades climate changes will increase in all regions. For 1.5°C of global warming, there will be increasing heat waves, longer warm seasons and shorter cold seasons. At 2°C of global warming, heat extremes would more often reach critical tolerance thresholds for agriculture and health, the report shows.

But it is not just about temperature. Climate change is bringing multiple different changes in different regions - which will all increase with further warming. These include changes to wetness and dryness, to winds, snow and ice, coastal areas and oceans.

Climate change is intensifying the water cycle. This brings more intense rainfall and associated flooding, as well as more intense drought in many regions.

Coastal areas will see continued sea level rise throughout the 21st century, contributing to more frequent and severe coastal flooding in low-lying areas and coastal erosion. Extreme sea level events that previously occurred once in 100 years could happen every year by the end of this century.

Changes to the ocean, including warming, more frequent marine heatwaves, ocean acidification, and reduced oxygen levels have been clearly linked to human influence. These changes affect both ocean ecosystems and the people that rely on them, and they will continue throughout at least the rest of this century.  

Q31: According to the report of IPCC, what would limit the climatic changes?
(a) Rising levels of the sea
(b) Rising use of plastic
(c) Avoiding the use of Earth's climate
(d) Keeping a check on CO2 and other greenhouse gases 

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Ans: (d)

  • Keeping a check on CO2 and other greenhouse gases is crucial because these gases trap heat in the atmosphere, leading to global warming.
  • By reducing emissions of these gases, we can help mitigate climate change and its impacts.
  • Other options like rising sea levels and plastic use do not directly address the root causes of climate change.
  • Thus, monitoring and controlling greenhouse gas emissions is the most effective way to limit climatic changes.

Q32: To what degree is global warming anticipated to rise in the next two decades?
(a) 1°C
(b) 1.1°C
(c) 1.5°C
(d) 2°C 

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Ans: (c)

  • The expected increase in global warming over the next 20 years is 1.5°C. This figure is significant as it reflects the potential impact of climate change on the planet.
  • Scientists predict that if current trends continue, we could see this level of warming, which can lead to severe environmental consequences.
  • Understanding this temperature rise is crucial for planning and implementing strategies to mitigate climate change effects.
  • Thus, the correct answer is 1.5°C, which is option (c).

Q33: If global temperatures rise by 2°C, it will have severe consequences for ______.
(a) rain and crops
(b) flora and fauna
(c) animals and insects
(d) agriculture and health 

English Olympiad Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | English Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • Global warming poses a significant threat to various aspects of life on Earth.
  • Reaching a temperature increase of 2°C can lead to disastrous effects on agriculture and health.
  • These sectors are crucial for sustaining human life and ensuring food security.
  • While other options mention important elements, the most direct impact is on agriculture and health.

Q34: According to the passage, climate change will ______.
(a) intensify rainfall
(b) not influence the water cycle
(c) reduce permafrost thawing
(d) alter fauna

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Ans: (a)

  • Climate change is expected to have significant effects on weather patterns.
  • One of the main impacts is that it will intensify rainfall, leading to more extreme weather events.
  • Other options suggest that climate change will not affect the water cycle or will reduce thawing, which contradicts the expected outcomes.
  • Thus, the correct answer is that climate change will indeed intensify rainfall.

Q35: According to the IPCC report, how many years will it take for global temperatures to stabilize?
(a) 40-50 years
(b) 20-30 years
(c) 10-20 years
(d) 30-40 years 

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Ans: (b)

  • According to the IPCC report, it is estimated that it will take 20-30 years for global temperatures to stabilize.
  • This timeframe is crucial for understanding how long it may take for the effects of climate change to be managed effectively.
  • Stabilization of temperatures is important for reducing the impacts of climate change on ecosystems and human societies.
  • Efforts to mitigate climate change must be implemented within this period to achieve the desired outcomes.

Read the Passage and answer the question that follow (Question 36 to 40)

An underwater archaeologist from The University of Texas at Arlington is part of a research team studying 9,000-years-old stone tool artifacts discovered in Lake Huron that originated from an obsidian quarry more than 2,000 miles away in central Oregon.

The obsidian flakes from the underwater archaeological site represent the oldest and farthest east confirmed specimens of western obsidian ever found in the continental United States.

“In this case, these tiny obsidian artifacts reveal social connections across North America 9,000 years ago,” said Ashley Lemke, assistant professor of sociology and anthropology at UT Arlington.” The artifacts found below the Great Lakes come from a geological source in Oregon, 4,000 kilometers away — making it one of the longest distances recorded for obsidian artifacts anywhere in the world.”

Because the site was underwater and undisturbed, researchers systematically and scientifically recovered the obsidian, a form of volcanic glass that was used and traded widely throughout much of human history as a prized material for making sharp tools.

“These are very small pieces that have very large stories to tell,” Lemke said. “Obsidian from the far western United States is rarely found in the east.”

The find in Lake Huron is part of a broader study to understand the social and economic organization of caribou hunters at the end of the last ice age. Water levels were much lower then; scientists have found, for example, ancient sites like stone walls and hunting blinds that are now 100 feet underwater.

“This particular find is really exciting because it shows how important underwater archaeology is,” Lemke said. “The preservation of ancient underwater sites is unparalleled on land, and these places have given us a great opportunity to learn more about past peoples.”

Q36: Archaeologists ______ stone tool artifacts dating from 9,000 years.
(a) 5000-years-old
(b) 6000-years-old
(c) 9000-years-old
(d) 3000-years-old

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Ans: (c)

  • Archaeologists have discovered stone tool artifacts that are specifically dated to be 9,000 years old.
  • This indicates that the tools were used by ancient peoples during that time period.
  • Understanding the age of these artifacts helps us learn about human history and technological development.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (c) 9000-years-old, as it matches the given date in the question.

Q37: Where was the stone tool artifact found by the research team?
(a) Lake Victoria
(b) Lake Erie
(c) Lake Huron
(d) Lake Orion

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Ans: (c)

  • The research team found the stone tool artifact in Lake Huron. This location is significant as it provides insights into early human activity in the region.
  • Lake Huron is one of the Great Lakes and is known for its rich history and archaeological findings.
  • Understanding where these artifacts are found helps researchers learn more about ancient cultures and their tool-making techniques.
  • This discovery adds to the knowledge of human history and the development of technology over time.

Q38: Choose the most appropriate title for the passage.
(a) Discovery of the Research
(b) Archaeology of Artifacts
(c) Underwater Archaeology
(d) Rivers of the World

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Ans: (c)

  • The passage focuses on underwater archaeology, which involves studying artifacts found beneath water bodies.
  • Option (c) is the best title as it directly relates to the main theme of the passage.
  • Other options like (a) and (b) do not capture the specific focus on underwater aspects.
  • Option (d) introduces a different topic, making it less relevant.

Q39: Choose the correct synonym of the given word: Unparalleled
(a) Unbelievable
(b) Superlative
(c) Typical
(d) Ordinary

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Ans: (b)

  • The word unparalleled means something that is unmatched or has no equal.
  • The correct synonym is superlative, which also indicates the highest quality or degree.
  • Options like unbelievable, typical, and ordinary do not convey the same meaning as unparalleled.
  • Thus, superlative is the best choice as it reflects the idea of being the best or without comparison.

Q40: The find in Lake Huron is part of a broader study on which of the following?
(a) On all the large lakes of the world
(b) On all the volcanoes of the world
(c) The caribou hunters at the end of the last ice age
(d) On ancient civilizations

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Ans: (c)

  • The discovery in Lake Huron relates to a wider investigation about caribou hunters who lived during the last ice age.
  • This study helps us understand the lifestyle and habitats of these ancient people.
  • It is significant because it provides insights into how humans adapted to their environment during climatic changes.
  • Overall, this research contributes to our knowledge of prehistoric human activity in North America.

Spoken and Written Expression

Choose the correct option to complete each  conversation. (Question 41 to 45)
Q41: Asif: What are your thoughts on living in Rajasthan? 
Amir: I am not enjoying it. Particularly the of Rajasthan. It’s extremely hot here.
(a) cactus
(b) Climate
(c) breeze
(d) noise

English Olympiad Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | English Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (b)

  • Amir expresses his dissatisfaction with living in Rajasthan, specifically mentioning the climate.
  • The climate in Rajasthan is known for being very hot, which is why Amir is not enjoying his stay.
  • While other options like cactus, breeze, and noise are mentioned, they do not directly relate to the discomfort caused by the heat.
  • Thus, the correct answer is climate, as it directly addresses the reason for Amir's feelings about the weather in Rajasthan.

Q42: Rajan: I have purchased a new ________ of drawers for my drawing room. So, what are your thoughts?
(a) cupboard
(b) almirah
(c) rack
(d) chest

English Olympiad Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | English Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • The correct answer is chest because it refers to a piece of furniture that typically has drawers.
  • A cupboard is usually a cabinet with shelves, not specifically for drawers.
  • An almirah is similar to a wardrobe, mainly for hanging clothes.
  • A rack is generally open and used for holding items, not enclosed like a chest.

Q43: Francis: While I was going to school, I saw a _________ of puppies playing with their mother.
(a) pack
(b) swarm
(c) litter
(d) herd

English Olympiad Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | English Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • The correct term for a group of puppies is a litter. This is commonly used to describe the young of animals born at the same time.
  • A pack usually refers to a group of dogs or wolves, while a swarm is used for insects, and a herd is for larger animals like cattle.
  • In this context, since we are talking about puppies, litter is the most appropriate choice.
  • Thus, the answer is (c) litter.

Q44: Samuel: They are wearing their jackets because the weather is getting cold.
(a) as the
(b) so the
(c) while a
(d) because a

English Olympiad Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | English Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • The correct answer is as the. This option indicates a reason for wearing jackets, which is that the weather is getting cold.
  • Using as shows a connection between the action of wearing jackets and the cold weather.
  • Other options do not fit well in this context, as they either change the meaning or do not logically connect the two parts of the sentence.
  • Thus, as the is the best choice to explain why they are wearing jackets.

Q45: Jiya: I ______ do the wedding shopping all by myself.
(a) would doing
(b) by myself to
(c) does like
(d) like to

English Olympiad Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | English Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • The correct phrase is "like to," which indicates a preference or desire.
  • In this context, Jiya is expressing her willingness to do the shopping alone.
  • Options (a), (b), and (c) do not form a grammatically correct or meaningful sentence.
  • Thus, "like to" is the only option that fits the sentence correctly.

Achievers Section

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank. (Question 46 to 47)

Q46: She resembles a doll when her hair falls ______ her shoulders.
(a) on curling
(b) as waves
(c) up curls
(d) in

English Olympiad Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | English Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (b)

  • The phrase "falls as waves" describes how her hair flows down her shoulders in a smooth, wavy manner.
  • This imagery suggests a soft and elegant appearance, similar to that of a doll.
  • Options like "on curling" and "up curls" do not convey the same visual effect.
  • Thus, "as waves" is the most fitting choice to illustrate her doll-like look.

Q47: There are many reasons ______ so many people feel exhausted by the end of the day.
(a) which
(b) when
(c) how
(d) why

English Olympiad Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | English Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • The correct word to fill in the blank is why. This is because the sentence is asking for the reason behind people's tiredness.
  • Using why indicates that we are looking for an explanation for the tiredness experienced by many.
  • Other options like which, when, and how do not fit the context of asking for a reason.
  • Thus, why is the most appropriate choice to complete the sentence logically.

Q48: Choose the correct synonym of the given word
Camouflage
(a) Conceal
(b) Reveal
(c) Expose
(d) Brighten

English Olympiad Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | English Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • The word camouflage refers to the act of hiding or concealing something to make it less visible.
  • Among the options, conceal means to hide or keep something out of sight, which is the same idea as camouflage.
  • On the other hand, reveal, expose, and brighten all suggest making something more visible or noticeable, which is the opposite of camouflage.
  • Thus, the correct synonym for camouflage is conceal.

Q49: Choose the correct antonym of the given word
Obscene
(a) Arid
(b) Fallow
(c) Crass
(d) Sophisticated

English Olympiad Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | English Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • The word obscene refers to something that is offensive or indecent.
  • The correct antonym is sophisticated, which implies refinement and good taste.
  • In contrast, crass (option c) means lacking sensitivity, which is similar to obscene.
  • Options arid and fallow do not relate to the concept of decency or taste.

Q50: Choose the most suitable option to complete the conversation
Rahul: New range of cell phones is pretty good but ______ to explosions.
(a) destiny
(b) prone
(c) probe
(d) posed

English Olympiad Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | English Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (b)

  • The phrase "prone to explosions" means that the cell phones are susceptible or likely to explode, which fits the context of the conversation.
  • Other options like "destiny," "probe," and "posed" do not make sense in this context.
  • Using "prone" correctly conveys a negative aspect of the cell phones, which Rahul is pointing out.
  • This choice highlights a concern about the safety of the new cell phones.
The document English Olympiad Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | English Olympiad for Class 6 is a part of the Class 6 Course English Olympiad for Class 6.
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FAQs on English Olympiad Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 - English Olympiad for Class 6

1. What is the English Olympiad and who can participate?
Ans. The English Olympiad is a competitive examination that tests students' proficiency in the English language. It is typically open to students from various classes, including Class 6. Participants can improve their language skills, vocabulary, and comprehension through this exam.
2. How can students prepare for the English Olympiad?
Ans. Students can prepare for the English Olympiad by practicing sample papers, reading English books, improving their vocabulary, and engaging in regular writing exercises. Joining coaching classes or online preparatory courses can also be beneficial.
3. What topics are typically covered in the English Olympiad for Class 6?
Ans. The English Olympiad for Class 6 usually covers topics such as grammar, vocabulary, reading comprehension, sentence formation, and verbal reasoning. It may also include sections on spoken and written expression.
4. What is the format of the English Olympiad exam?
Ans. The format of the English Olympiad exam generally consists of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) that assess various language skills. The exam may be divided into sections focusing on different aspects such as grammar, comprehension, and vocabulary.
5. How is the English Olympiad beneficial for students?
Ans. The English Olympiad helps students enhance their language skills, boost their confidence, and prepare for future academic challenges. It also provides a platform to compete with peers and gain recognition for their proficiency in English.
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