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English Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 8 PDF Download

Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation.

Word and Structure Knowledge

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank. (Question 1 to 24)

Q1: At the age of 40, she still performed very __________ in the Olympics.
(a) hard
(b) badly
(c) well
(d) poorly

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Ans: (c)

  • The correct answer is well because it indicates that she performed in a positive manner.
  • Using badly or poorly would suggest she did not do well, which contradicts the context of her still competing at an advanced age.
  • Hard does not fit as it describes effort rather than performance quality.
  • Thus, well is the only option that accurately reflects her successful performance in the Olympics.

Q2: They never __________, grumbled the man on the pavement.
(a) working their way
(b) leave you alone
(c) getting up
(d) speaks up

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Ans: (b) 

  • The phrase "They never leave you alone" indicates that someone is always bothering or disturbing you.
  • The other options do not fit grammatically or contextually in the sentence.
  • Option (a) "working their way" and (c) "getting up" do not complete the sentence meaningfully.
  • Option (d) "speaks up" is also incorrect as it does not match the subject and context.

Q3: His house is just a/an __________ from the bus stop.
(a) miles to go
(b) far away
(c) on the edge
(d) stone’s throw away

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Ans: (d) 

  • The phrase stone’s throw away means that something is very close or nearby.
  • In this context, it indicates that his house is located very near to the bus stop.
  • Options like miles to go and far away suggest a long distance, which is incorrect.
  • Thus, the correct answer is stone’s throw away, emphasizing the short distance.

Q4: Meena __________ at work on time in spite of the traffic.
(a) arrived
(b) depart
(c) arrival
(d) departure

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Ans: (a)

  • In this sentence, the correct word to fill in the blank is arrived. It indicates that Meena reached her workplace.
  • The other options do not fit grammatically: depart is a verb that means to leave, while arrival and departure are nouns.
  • Using arrived shows that she successfully got to work on time despite the traffic challenges.
  • This highlights her punctuality and ability to manage time effectively.

Q5: It __________ all morning and so the roads are blocked.
(a) will snows
(b) snows
(c) snowed
(d) has snowed

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Ans: (c)

  • The correct answer is snowed because it indicates that the action of snowing happened in the past and is now complete.
  • The phrase "all morning" suggests that the snowing occurred during that time frame, leading to the current situation of blocked roads.
  • Options like "will snows" and "snows" are incorrect because they do not fit the past context of the sentence.
  • Thus, "snowed" is the right choice as it accurately reflects the timing of the event.

Q6: The songbirds will come __________ and drop a sonnet for you.
(a) for
(b) by
(c) while
(d) off

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Ans: (b)

  • The correct word to fill in the blank is by. This indicates the manner in which the songbirds will come.
  • Using by suggests that the songbirds will arrive in a way that allows them to drop a sonnet for you.
  • Other options like for, while, and off do not fit the context of the sentence.
  • Thus, by is the most appropriate choice to convey the intended meaning.

Q7: We played cards and had dinner beneath the trees and discovered ferns and balsams.
(a) because
(b) still
(c) yet
(d) and 

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Ans: (d)

  • The word and is used to connect two related actions: playing cards and eating dinner.
  • This conjunction shows that both activities happened together, emphasizing a continuity in the experience.
  • Using and makes the sentence flow smoothly, indicating that both actions are part of the same enjoyable moment.
  • The other options do not fit well in this context, as they imply different relationships between the actions.

Q8: My cat, Pixie __________ all day because of allergies.
(a) has been sneezing
(b) sneeze
(c) been sneezes
(d) are sneezing

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Ans: (a)

  • The correct phrase is "has been sneezing," which indicates an action that started in the past and continues to the present.
  • Option (b) "sneeze" is incorrect because it does not match the subject and tense.
  • Option (c) "been sneezes" is grammatically incorrect and does not make sense.
  • Option (d) "are sneezing" is also incorrect as it does not fit the context of the sentence.

Q9: He was feeling a bit unwell _________, so he had to see the doctor.
(a) and
(b) yet
(c) but
(d) nor

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Ans: (a)

  • The phrase "a little under the weather" means he was not feeling well.
  • The word "and" connects two related ideas, indicating that he was unwell and needed to visit the doctor.
  • Using "yet" or "but" would imply a contrast, which does not fit the context.
  • "Nor" is used for negative statements, which is not applicable here.

Q10: After decorating the cake, she placed the candles __________ it for celebrating Rozario’s birthday.
(a) off
(b) on
(c) under
(d) beside

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Ans: (b)

  • The correct answer is on because it indicates that the candles were placed directly on top of the cake.
  • Using off or under would not make sense in this context, as candles are typically placed on the surface of a cake.
  • Placing candles beside the cake is also incorrect since the question specifies placing them in relation to the cake itself.
  • Thus, the most logical choice is on, which clearly describes the action of placing candles for a birthday celebration.

Q11: He was attempting to concentrate on his tasks __________ the disorder created by the celebrations.
(a) amidst
(b) across
(c) between
(d) within

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Ans: (a)

  • The correct word here is amidst, which means in the middle of or surrounded by.
  • This indicates that he was trying to work in the middle of the chaos from the festivities.
  • Using across, between, or within would not convey the same meaning of being surrounded by chaos.
  • Thus, amidst is the best choice to describe his situation accurately.

Q12: She spread the frosting evenly __________ both the layers of the cake.
(a) for
(b) by
(c) between
(d) with

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Ans: (c)

  • The correct word to use here is between, as it indicates the position of the frosting in relation to the two layers of the cake.
  • Using between shows that the frosting is placed in the space that separates the two layers.
  • Other options like for, by, and with do not convey the same meaning of separation or positioning.
  • Thus, between is the most appropriate choice for this context.

Q13: __________ the winter has arrived, shouted the snowman.
(a) As
(b) Finally
(c) Whereas
(d) However

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Ans: (b)

  • The correct word to fill in the blank is finally, which indicates that the arrival of winter is a significant event.
  • Using finally suggests a sense of relief or anticipation that winter has come.
  • Other options like as, whereas, and however do not fit the context of expressing the arrival of winter.
  • Thus, the sentence conveys excitement about the arrival of winter with the word finally.

Q14: I don’t care for the visit to the mall, __________ I enjoy a good rest on my couch.
(a) but
(b) before
(c) in order
(d) forever

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Ans: (a)

  • The sentence expresses a contrast between two ideas: not liking the mall visit and enjoying resting on the couch.
  • The word "but" is used to connect these contrasting ideas effectively.
  • Options like "before," "in order," and "forever" do not fit the context of contrasting preferences.
  • Thus, "but" is the correct choice as it highlights the difference in feelings.

Q15: The weather was cold __________ it was enjoyable.
(a) because
(b) nevertheless
(c) or
(d) in order to

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Ans: (b)

  • The word nevertheless indicates a contrast between the cold weather and the enjoyment experienced.
  • Using because would imply a reason, which does not fit the context here.
  • Or suggests an alternative, which is not relevant in this case.
  • In order to implies a purpose, which is also not suitable for this sentence.

Q16: __________ he was chosen the leader of the team.
(a) Every possible place
(b) In these times
(c) Without any doubt
(d) Of various shades

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Ans: (c)

  • The phrase "Without any doubt" indicates certainty about the choice of the leader.
  • It emphasizes that there was no hesitation or uncertainty in selecting him.
  • The other options do not convey the same level of confidence regarding the decision.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (c) as it clearly expresses the assuredness of his selection.

Q17: His mother cautioned him against remaining outside __________.
(a) of grace
(b) in a graciously manner
(c) in those days
(d) after dark

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Ans: (d)

  • His mother gave him a warning about the dangers of being outside.
  • She specifically advised him not to stay outdoors after dark, which means when it is nighttime.
  • This is important for safety reasons, as it can be risky to be outside when visibility is low.
  • The other options do not relate to a time of day, making them incorrect.

Q18: The early bird catches the __________.
(a) lie
(b) girl
(c) worm
(d) wisdom

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Ans: (c)

  • The phrase "The early bird catches the worm" means that those who wake up early or take action promptly are more likely to succeed.
  • In this context, the correct answer is "worm," which symbolizes the reward for being proactive.
  • The other options do not fit the meaning of the saying, as they do not represent a benefit of being early or prompt.
  • Thus, the saying emphasizes the importance of timeliness in achieving success.

Q19: The __________ was anticipated to reach today for the meeting.
(a) walkers
(b) guests
(c) applicants
(d) girl

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Ans: (b)

  • The term guests refers to people who are invited to an event, which fits the context of a meeting.
  • Walkers and girl do not relate to the context of a meeting, as they do not imply invitation or attendance.
  • Applicants could refer to people applying for something, but they are not typically associated with a meeting in the same way as guests.
  • Thus, the most appropriate choice is guests, as they are expected attendees for the meeting.

Q20: Sumita acted as if she was crying, but everyone was aware it was __________.
(a) chicken feed
(b) pat out of lawn
(c) crocodile tears
(d) birds of a feather

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Ans: (c)

  • In this context, crocodile tears refers to a situation where someone pretends to be sad or upset, but is actually not feeling that way. It's a way of showing false emotions.
  • Sumita's act of crying was not genuine, and everyone around her recognized that she was just pretending.
  • This phrase comes from the idea that crocodiles shed tears while eating their prey, which is a metaphor for insincerity.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (c) crocodile tears, as it perfectly describes her false display of emotion.

Q21: He borrowed __________ item from the passenger sitting beside him.
(a) a
(b) an
(c) the
(d) no article

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Ans: (b)

  • The correct answer is an because it is used before words that begin with a vowel sound.
  • In this case, the word item starts with a vowel sound, so we use an instead of a.
  • Using the would imply a specific item, which is not the case here.
  • No article is incorrect because we need an article to indicate the noun.

Q22: The hungry man ate his food __________.
(a) fastly
(b) beautiful
(c) graceful
(d) greedily

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Ans: (d)

  • The correct answer is greedily, which means he ate his food in a way that shows he was very hungry and wanted to eat a lot quickly.
  • Fastly is not a proper word; the correct term is quickly.
  • Beautiful and graceful do not describe how someone eats, but rather how something looks or is done elegantly.
  • In this context, greedily perfectly captures the idea of someone who is very eager to eat, often because they are very hungry.

Q23: The police searched for the thief in __________.
(a) with all my heart
(b) of the chairs
(c) above the clouds
(d) every possible place

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Ans: (d)

  • The police were trying to find the thief.
  • They searched in every possible place to ensure they didn't miss anything.
  • Options like "with all my heart" and "of the chairs" do not make sense in this context.
  • Searching "above the clouds" is also not practical for finding a thief.

Q24: They travelled __________ the hillside.
(a) up
(b) alongside
(c) their
(d) here

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Ans: (a) 

  • The correct word to fill in the blank is up, which indicates movement towards a higher place.
  • Alongside is incorrect as it suggests being next to something rather than moving upwards.
  • Their does not fit the context as it is a possessive pronoun.
  • Here indicates a location but does not imply movement.

Q25: Choose the correct synonym of the given word.
Aromatic
(a) Ferocious
(b) Fragile
(c) Fragrant
(d) Freckles

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Ans: (c)

  • The word fragrant means having a pleasant smell, which is what we are looking for.
  • Ferocious refers to something fierce or violent, which is unrelated to smell.
  • Fragile means delicate or easily broken, not related to scent.
  • Freckles are small spots on the skin, again not connected to aroma.

Q26: Choose the correct synonym of the given word.
Cease
(a) Finish
(b) Fairness
(c) False
(d) Start

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Ans: (a) 

  • Cease means to stop doing something or to bring something to an end.
  • In this context, the correct answer is Finish, as it aligns with the meaning of stopping or concluding an action.
  • The other options do not relate to the meaning of cease; for example, Fairness refers to justice, False means not true, and Start means to begin.
  • Thus, the best synonym for cease is Finish.

Q27: Choose the correct antonym of the given word. 
Distinct
(a) Various
(b) Strange
(c) Uniform
(d) Different

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Ans: (c)

  • The word distinct refers to something that is clearly different or set apart from others.
  • Among the options, uniform means having a consistent or identical form, which aligns with the idea of being distinct in a specific context.
  • On the other hand, various and different imply diversity, while strange suggests something unusual, which does not match the meaning of distinct.
  • Thus, uniform is the best choice as it conveys a sense of clarity and consistency in distinction.

Q28: Choose the correct antonym of the given word. 
Harmful
(a) Upright
(b) Adverse
(c) Hateful
(d) Unsafe

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Ans: (a)

  • The term harmful refers to something that causes damage or injury.
  • Among the options, upright does not convey a negative impact, while adverse and unsafe imply harm.
  • However, upright can be interpreted as a positive state, which is why it is the correct answer in this context.
  • Understanding the nuances of these words helps clarify their meanings in different contexts.

Q29: What is the correct spelling of the word that signifies ‘delicious’?
(a) Dalectble
(b) Delectable
(c) Dilectabl
(d) Dilictable

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Ans: (b)

  • The word delectable refers to something that is very tasty or delicious.
  • Among the options, only (b) Delectable is spelled correctly.
  • The other options contain spelling errors that make them incorrect.
  • Using the correct spelling is important for clear communication.

Q30: What is the correct spelling of the term that signifies ‘authentic’?
(a) Palepeble
(b) Pulpabel
(c) Pupable
(d) Palpable 

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Ans: (d)

  • The word that means ‘genuine’ is palpable.
  • Palpable refers to something that is easily perceived or recognized, often used to describe something that is clear and obvious.
  • Other options like Palepeble, Pulpabel, and Pupable are incorrect spellings and do not convey the same meaning.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (d) palpable.

Reading

Read the Passage and answer the question that follow. (Question 31 to 35)

Baital Pachisi (“Twenty-five (tales) of Baital"), is a collection of tales and legends within a frame story, from India. It is also known internationally as Vikram-Baital.

It was originally written in Sanskrit. The Vetala stories are popular in India and have been translated into many Indian vernaculars. Several English translations exist, based on Sanskrit recensions and on Hindi, Tamil, Bengali and Marathi versions.

Probably the best-known English version is that of Sir Richard Francis Burton which is, however, not a translation but a very free adaptation. Baital Pachisi is believed to be one of the oldest vampire stories from India.

King Vikram once promised a tantric sorcerer that he’d capture a Baital (a spirit with vampire like qualities) and bring it to him. But every time Vikram caught the Baital, the spirit would escape by posing a riddle. The deal between the two was that if at the end of every puzzle, Vikram was unable to answer the question correctly, the spirit would willingly be taken prisoner. If Vikram knew the answer but still stayed silent, his head would explode into a thousand pieces, and if the king answered correctly, the Baital was free to get away.

This cycle continued 24 times as Vikram, being a wise man, could solve every riddle, which mostly concerned philosophical questions about life. Finally, Vikram was unable to answer the 25th question and the Baital kept his promise of being taken captive.

On the way to the tantric’s, the spirit revealed that he was actually a prince. He also said that it was the sorcerer’s plan all along to sacrifice the Baital’s soul so that he could attain immortality, and that Vikram too would be killed in the process. The spirit advised the king on how to outwit the tantric and save both their lives. After Vikram assassinated the evil sorcerer, the Baital cleansed him of all his sins, and he also vowed to come to his aid whenever needed.

Q31: Choose the most appropriate title for the passage.
(a) Baital Pachisi - Indian Folktale
(b) The Oldest Ghost Story of India
(c) The Evil Spirit
(d) Indian History

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Ans: (a)

  • The passage is about a specific story, which is best captured by the title Baital Pachisi - Indian Folktale.
  • While options like The Oldest Ghost Story of India and The Evil Spirit hint at supernatural elements, they do not encompass the full essence of the tale.
  • Indian History is too broad and does not relate directly to the specific narrative.
  • Thus, option (a) is the most fitting title for the passage.

Q32: In which of the following languages has this story been translated according to the passage?
(a) Sanskrit, Hindi, Persian, Japanese and Odiya
(b) Russian, Bengali, German, Sanskrit and Marathi
(c) Hindi, Marathi, Bengali, Tamil and English
(d) Korean, Chinese, Japanese, Tamil and Urdu

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Ans: (c)

  • The passage mentions that the story has been translated into Hindi, Marathi, Bengali, Tamil, and English.
  • These languages are significant as they represent a diverse range of cultures and regions.
  • Other options include languages that are not mentioned in the passage, making them incorrect.
  • Thus, option (c) is the only one that accurately reflects the translations listed in the passage.

Q33: Baital was free to escape when/if __________.
(a) King Vikram answered the 24th puzzle
(b) King Vikram answered the puzzle correctly
(c) King Vikram could not solve the puzzle
(d) Sorcerer could be made immortal

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Ans: (b)

  • Key point: Baital's freedom is linked to King Vikram's ability to answer the puzzle.
  • In this context, Baital would only be free if King Vikram answered the puzzle correctly.
  • Options (a) and (d) do not directly relate to the condition for Baital's escape.
  • Thus, the correct answer is that Baital is free when King Vikram provides the correct answer.

Q34: What is the internationally recognized title of the story?
(a) Vetala stories
(b) Baital Pachisi
(c) Vikram-Baital
(d) Twenty Five Tales 

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Ans: (c)

  • The story is internationally known as Vikram-Baital. This title refers to the collection of tales featuring the legendary king Vikramaditya and the ghostly being Baital.
  • It is a popular Indian folklore that has been adapted in various forms over the years.
  • The tales often involve moral lessons and clever problem-solving, making them engaging for readers of all ages.
  • Vikram-Baital has become a significant part of cultural storytelling, showcasing the rich tradition of Indian narratives.

Q35: What is the name of the king in the provided tale?
(a) Pachisi
(b) Vikram
(c) Baital
(d) Wizard

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Ans: (b) 

  • The question asks for the name of the king in the story.
  • The correct answer is Vikram, who is a central character.
  • Other options include Pachisi, which is a game, Baital, a spirit, and Wizard, which is a general term.
  • Thus, Vikram is the only correct choice as the king in the narrative.

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow. (Question 36 to 40)

Two billion people in the world currently suffer from malnutrition and according to some estimates, we need 60% more food to feed the global population by 2050. Yet the agricultural sector is ill-equipped to meet this demand: 700 million of its workers currently live in poverty, and it is already responsible for 70% of the world’s water consumption and 30% of global greenhouse gas emissions.

The World Economic Forum’s Innovation with a Purpose Platform is working with over 50 partner institutions and 1,000 leaders around the world to leverage emerging technologies to make our food systems more sustainable, inclusive and efficient.

With research, increasing investments in new agriculture technologies and the integration of local and regional initiatives aimed at enhancing food security, the platform is already making substantial progress in improving access to nutritious and healthy food. To date, it has supported multiple regional and global initiatives that have engaged more than 200 stakeholders. New technologies could help our food systems become more sustainable and efficient, but unfortunately the agricultural sector has fallen behind other sectors in terms of technology adoption. Technological investment in agriculture remains a mere fraction (less than 10%) of that invested in healthcare technology, for example.

But what if we could harness technology and innovation to nourish the world without harming the planet? Making this happen requires global collaboration involving partners from both the public and private sectors, and the Forum is leading a worldwide effort to drive innovation to transform our food systems.
Launched in 2018, the Forum’s Innovation with a Purpose Platform is a large-scale partnership that facilitates the adoption of new technologies and other innovations to transform the way we produce, distribute and consume our food.

The platform does this in three ways:
i. Facilitating an improved innovation ecosystem by connecting technologists with key players in the agriculture and food sector
ii. Advancing new and existing initiatives to develop and scale up technological innovations
iii. Developing insights, supporting capacity building and measuring impact

The platform has released several insight reports, including one that identifies twelve technologies that have the potential to transform our food systems and a second paper examining how emerging technologies can provide better information about the origin, safety and sustainability of food and food supplies. In 2020 it released another flagship report looking at the role of financial and non-financial incentives in transforming food systems.

Q36: Choose the most appropriate title for the passage.
(a) World Economic Forum
(b) Innovation with a Purpose Platform
(c) Using Technology to Ensure the World Won’t Starve by 2050
(d) Recent Advances in Technology

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Ans: (c)

  • The passage discusses the importance of technology in addressing global food security.
  • Option (c) clearly reflects the goal of using technology to prevent hunger by the year 2050.
  • Other options do not specifically focus on the issue of starvation or the role of technology in solving it.
  • Thus, (c) is the most relevant and descriptive title for the content of the passage.

Q37: __________ people in the world currently suffer from malnutrition.
(a) 2 billion
(b) 3 million
(c) 2 million
(d) 3 billion 

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Ans: (a)

  • The correct answer is 2 billion people suffering from malnutrition globally.
  • This figure highlights a significant global health issue affecting many individuals.
  • Malnutrition can lead to serious health problems, including stunted growth and weakened immune systems.
  • Efforts are ongoing to address this issue through nutrition programs and awareness campaigns.

Q38: How many stakeholders have been involved with the Innovation with a Purpose Platform?
(a) 1000
(b) 200
(c) 50
(d) 700

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Ans: (b) 

  • The Innovation with a Purpose Platform has successfully engaged 200 stakeholders.
  • This number indicates a significant level of collaboration and involvement in the initiative.
  • Engaging a large number of stakeholders is crucial for gathering diverse perspectives and ideas.
  • This engagement helps in driving innovation and ensuring that the platform meets the needs of its users.

Q39: The Innovation with a Purpose Platform is associated with _________.
(a) World Health Organisation
(b) World Bank
(c) Food and Agriculture Organisation
(d) World Economic Forum

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Ans: (d)

  • The Innovation with a Purpose Platform is a project that focuses on addressing global challenges.
  • It is specifically linked to the World Economic Forum, which is known for its initiatives aimed at improving the state of the world.
  • The other options, such as the World Health Organisation, World Bank, and Food and Agriculture Organisation, are important organizations but do not manage this particular platform.
  • Thus, the correct answer is the World Economic Forum.

Q40: In 2018, the World Economic Forum's Innovation with a Purpose Platform was introduced.
(a) 2020
(b) 2019
(c) 2018
(d) 2017

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Ans: (c)

  • The World Economic Forum launched the Innovation with a Purpose Platform in 2018.
  • This platform focuses on promoting innovative solutions for global challenges.
  • Understanding the timeline is crucial, as it highlights the importance of innovation in addressing issues.
  • Options like 2019 and 2020 are incorrect as they do not reflect the actual launch year.

Spoken and Written Expression

Choose the correct option to complete each conversation. (Question 41 to 45)

Q41: Swati: The tenant upstairs creates a lot of noise every evening, ____________ the piano.
(a) plays
(b) playing
(c) played
(d) play

English Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (b)

  • The correct answer is playing because it fits the sentence structure. The phrase "makes a lot of noise" requires a gerund (verb ending in -ing) to describe the action happening simultaneously.
  • Using playing indicates that the noise is ongoing while the tenant is performing the action.
  • Other options like plays or played do not fit grammatically in this context.
  • Thus, the sentence correctly reads: "The tenant upstairs makes a lot of noise every evening, playing the piano."

Q42: Reena: What are you doing _________?
(a) off to
(b) here and there
(c) at this hour
(d) upto

English Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • The question asks about the time of the action.
  • Option (c) "at this hour" is the most appropriate as it refers to what Sindu is doing right now.
  • Other options do not fit the context of asking about the current activity.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (c) because it directly relates to the timing of the action being performed.

Q43: Ashwin: It’s been a while since we last met. What are you _________?
(a) of to
(b) up to
(c) get off
(d) up and about

English Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (b)

  • The phrase "What are you up to?" is a common way to ask someone what they are currently doing or what their plans are.
  • Option (a) "of to" is incorrect as it does not form a meaningful phrase.
  • Option (c) "get off" does not fit the context of asking about someone's activities.
  • Option (d) "up and about" implies being active but does not directly ask about current activities.

Q44: Sanjana: After the rains, the wall paint has been _________. I need to get these walls plastered.
(a) coming off
(b) coming on
(c) put up
(d) taken down

English Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • The phrase "coming off" indicates that the paint is peeling or falling away from the wall, which is a common issue after rain.
  • Option "coming on" suggests the paint is being applied, which does not fit the context.
  • "Put up" means to install, and "taken down" implies removal, neither of which relate to the paint's condition after rain.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (a) "coming off," as it accurately describes the situation of the paint deteriorating.

Q45: Raju: Please remind me to _________ the grocery store once I get back from the office.
(a) skip
(b) jump
(c) hit
(d) dance

English Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • The phrase "remind me to hit the grocery store" means to go to the grocery store.
  • In this context, "hit" is a casual way of saying to visit or go to a place.
  • Options like "skip" and "jump" do not fit well with the idea of visiting a store.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (c) hit, as it conveys the intended action of going to the grocery store.

Achievers Section

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank. (Question 46 to 47)

Q46: He __________ and rearranged the flowers in the vase meant for display.
(a) were arranging
(b) arranging
(c) arranged
(d) had arrange

English Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • The correct answer is arranged because it is the past tense of the verb, indicating that the action was completed in the past.
  • Option (a) "were arranging" is incorrect as it suggests an ongoing action in the past, which doesn't fit with "rearranged".
  • Option (b) "arranging" is a present participle and does not match the past context of the sentence.
  • Option (d) "had arrange" is grammatically incorrect; it should be "had arranged" to be correct.

Q47: All matter is _________ tiny particles.
(a) become of
(b) off to
(c) get off
(d) made up of

English Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • In this statement, the correct phrase is made up of, which indicates that all matter consists of tiny particles.
  • The other options do not correctly convey this meaning.
  • Understanding that matter is composed of tiny particles is fundamental in science.
  • This concept is essential in fields like chemistry and physics, where the structure of matter is studied.

Q48: Choose the correct synonym of the given word
Monotonous
(a) Amazing
(b) Silly
(c) Boring
(d) Immature

English Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • The word monotonous refers to something that is dull and repetitive, lacking in variety.
  • Among the options, boring is the best synonym as it conveys a similar meaning of being uninteresting.
  • Amazing and silly do not relate to the idea of dullness, while immature refers to a lack of development, which is also unrelated.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (c) Boring.

Q49: Choose the correct antonym of the given word
Jubilant
(a) Exultant
(b) Morose
(c) Ecstatic
(d) Proud

English Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (b)

  • The word jubilant means feeling or expressing great happiness and triumph.
  • The correct antonym is morose, which means being sullen or gloomy.
  • Options like exultant and ecstatic both convey a sense of joy, while proud relates to self-satisfaction.
  • Thus, morose is the opposite of jubilant, as it reflects a lack of joy.

Q50: Choose the correct option to complete the conversation
Dorothy: Can you come __________ me to the library? I need your help __________ locating __________ book.
(a) off, at, an
(b) by, up, a
(c) apart, in, the
(d) with, in, a 

English Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • The correct phrase is "come with me," which means to accompany someone.
  • In the second part, "help in locating" is the right way to ask for assistance.
  • Finally, "a book" is the correct article to use when referring to a non-specific book.
  • Thus, the complete sentence makes sense and is grammatically correct with option (d).
The document English Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 | English Olympiad for Class 8 is a part of the Class 8 Course English Olympiad for Class 8.
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FAQs on English Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 - English Olympiad for Class 8

1. What are the main topics covered in the English Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 for Class 8?
Ans. The main topics covered in the English Olympiad Model Test Paper - 3 for Class 8 include Word and Structure Knowledge, Reading Comprehension, and Spoken and Written Expression. Each section aims to assess different language skills and understanding of English.
2. How can students prepare effectively for the English Olympiad?
Ans. Students can prepare effectively for the English Olympiad by practicing previous years' question papers, reading a variety of English texts to improve comprehension, and enhancing their vocabulary through word games and flashcards. Joining study groups and participating in mock tests can also be beneficial.
3. What is the importance of Word and Structure Knowledge in the English Olympiad?
Ans. Word and Structure Knowledge is important in the English Olympiad as it helps students understand the formation of words, their meanings, and how they fit into sentences. Mastery of this area enables students to comprehend texts better and enhances their overall language proficiency.
4. How is the Spoken and Written Expression section evaluated in the English Olympiad?
Ans. The Spoken and Written Expression section is evaluated based on clarity of communication, grammar, vocabulary usage, and the ability to articulate thoughts effectively. Students may have to engage in activities like writing essays or participating in dialogue to demonstrate their skills.
5. What strategies can students use to improve their reading comprehension skills for the exam?
Ans. Students can improve their reading comprehension skills by practicing summarizing texts, identifying main ideas and supporting details, and asking questions about the content. Regular reading of diverse materials and discussing them with peers can further enhance comprehension abilities.
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