UGC NET Paper 2: Commerce 7th Dec 2023 Shift 1 | UGC NET Past Year Papers PDF Download

Q1: In a certain population, 22% of people are smokers, 57% of people are males and 12% of the population are both males and smokers. If a person is chosen at random from the population, what is that probability that selected person is either a male or a smoker? 

(a) 0.79

(b) 0.22

(c) 0.45

(d) 0.67

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is 0.67

• The probability that a selected person is either a male or a smoker can be found using the formula P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A and B), where A and B are two events. Here, A represents the event of being a male, and B the event of being a smoker.
• The probability of a person in the population being a male, P(A), is given as 57% or 0.57, and the probability of a person being a smoker, P(B), is given as 22% or 0.22. The probability of a person being both a male and a smoker, P(A and B), is given as 12% or 0.12.
• Substituting these probabilities into the formula gives P(A or B) = 0.57 + 0.22 - 0.12 = 0.67.
• Therefore, the probability that a randomly selected person is either a male or a smoker is 0.67 or 67%.

Other Related Points

• Probability is a fundamental concept in mathematics and statistics that quantifies the likelihood or chance of an event occurring. It is a measure of uncertainty associated with a particular outcome in a given situation.
• Probability provides a numerical measure of uncertainty or randomness associated with different outcomes of a particular event or experiment. It helps us understand how likely or unlikely an event is to occur.

Q2: Laxmi industries issued shares of Rs 1000 at a premium of Rs 10 per share, payable Rs 20 on application, Rs. 35 on allotment (including premium) and the balance on the first and final call. Mr. X who held 200 shares has paid only the application money and these shares were subsequently forfeited by the company. In this regard, by which amount share forfeiture account will be credited? 

(a) Rs. 4000

(b) Rs. 2000

(c) Rs. 3000

(d) Rs. 200

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is Rs. 4000

• When shares are forfeited, the shareholder loses the right to the shares and any amount already paid on those shares. The company then forfeits the shares and may later reissue them.
• Let's calculate the amount credited to the share forfeiture account when Mr. X's 200 shares are forfeited:
• Amount paid on application per share = Rs. 20
• Total amount paid on application for 200 shares = Rs. 20 *200 = Rs. 4000.
• Since Mr. X paid only the application money and no further amounts, when his shares are forfeited, the company will credit the share forfeiture account with the amount received on application.

Other Related Points

• Forfeited shares refer to shares that were originally issued to a shareholder but are subsequently taken back or forfeited by the company due to non-payment of required amounts or failure to fulfill certain obligations by the shareholder.
• This typically occurs when a shareholder fails to pay calls (installments) on the shares as required by the terms of the share issuance.

Q3: Which of the following will be clubbed into the income of Mr. Q whose Income from Profession is Rs. 85,000? 

A. Income from Mrs. Q's profession, Rs. 45,000

B. Mrs. Q's salary as a clerk, Rs. 66,000

C. Minor son's earned interest on deposits of money gifted to him by his uncle, Rs. 15,000

D. Minor daughter's earnings from sports, Rs 85,000

E. Minor son's winnings from lottery, Rs 1,05,000

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, C, D and E Only

(b) C, D and E Only

(c) C and D Only

(d) C and E Only

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is C and E Only

• As a general rule as per Income Tax Act in India, only income earned by or on behalf of the minor child is to be clubbed in the income of the parent whose income (excluding the minor's income) is greater. 
• According to income tax laws in many jurisdictions, income earned by minor children from assets gifted to them by relatives (like the uncle in this case) is clubbed with the income of the parent whose total income is greater. Therefore, this income (Minor son's earned interest on deposits of money gifted to him by his uncle, Rs. 15,000) is likely to be clubbed with Mr. Q's income.
• Similar to option C, income earned by minor children, including winnings from lotteries, is generally clubbed with the income of the parent whose total income is greater. Therefore, this income is likely to be clubbed with Mr. Q's income. 

Other Related Points

• The exceptions to this rule are when the minor child earns income through manual work or any activity involving his/her skill, talent, or specialized knowledge and experience. This exception applies to option D (minor daughter's earnings from sports) so it will not be clubbed with Mr. Q's income. 
• Income from a spouse (A and B) is not clubbed with the income of the other spouse unless it falls under specific conditions like spouse's income generated from assets transferred without adequate consideration which is not the case in Options A and B. 

Q4: In which ratio, will the remaining partners compensate the retiring partner for a share of goodwill? 

(a) Profit-sharing ratio

(b) Sacrificing ratio

(c) Gaining ratio

(d) Capital ratio

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is Gaining ratio 

 Key Points

• When a partner retires from a partnership, the remaining partners usually compensate the retiring partner for their share of goodwill.
• Goodwill represents the value of the reputation, customer base, brand recognition, and other intangible assets of the partnership.
• The ratio in which the remaining partners compensate the retiring partner for their share of goodwill is the gaining ratio.
• This ratio essentially represents the extent to which each remaining partner gains from the retirement of the outgoing partner, in terms of acquiring a share of future profits that had previously been attributable to the retiring partner.

Other Related Points

• The profit-sharing ratio determines how profits and losses are distributed among the partners. It does not necessarily reflect the value of goodwill or the compensation paid to a retiring partner.
• The sacrificing ratio is used to determine how the existing partners' profit-sharing ratios change when a new partner is admitted to the partnership. It does not directly relate to compensating a retiring partner for goodwill.
• The capital ratio represents the proportion of capital contributed by each partner to the partnership. While the capital ratio may influence the distribution of profits and losses, it is not directly used to compensate a retiring partner for their share of goodwill.

Q5: Which one of the following consists of physical working conditions, work schedule, incentives and the number of people with whom the employee would normally interact? 

(a) Job profile

(b) Job content

(c) Job context

(d) Job specification

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is Job context

 Key Points 

• Job context refers to the broader environment and conditions in which a job is performed. It encompasses various factors that influence the work experience and conditions for an employee.
• This includes aspects such as the physical environment where the work takes place (e.g., office, factory floor, outdoor site), the safety measures in place, the equipment and tools used, and any specific requirements related to ergonomics or health and safety.
• The work schedule outlines when the employee is expected to work, including details about regular hours, shifts (if applicable), any flexibility in scheduling (such as telecommuting or flexible hours), and any requirements for overtime or weekend work.
• Incentives refer to the various motivators or rewards offered to employees to encourage performance, productivity, and retention. This may include bonuses, commissions, profit-sharing, performance-based rewards, recognition programs, benefits such as health insurance or retirement plans, and opportunities for career advancement or skill development.
• Number of people with whom the employee would normally interact relates to the social and interpersonal aspects of the job. It includes information about the size and composition of teams or workgroups, the hierarchy and structure of the organization, the frequency and nature of interactions with colleagues, supervisors, clients, customers, or other stakeholders, and any collaborative or teamwork requirements.

Other Related Points

• A job profile typically outlines the duties, responsibilities, skills, qualifications, and experience required for a particular job role.
• Job content refers to the specific tasks, duties, and responsibilities involved in performing a job. 
• Job specification typically outlines the qualifications, skills, experience, and other specific requirements necessary to perform a job effectively.

Q6: Which of the following can become the member of an LLP? 

A. Resident Indians

B. Limited Liability Partnership

C. Corporation Sole

D. Co-operative society

E. Companies (including foreign companies)

Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

(a) A, B and C Only

(b) A, C and D Only

(c) A, B and D Only

(d) A, E and B Only

Ans: D

Sol: Correct answer is A, E and B only

LLP = LLP is Limited Liability Partnership is a partnership where each partner's liability is limited to the extent of the amount they put in the business. Limited liability means if the partnership fails the creditors cannot go after the partner's personal assets.

Features of LLP

• LLP is a body corporate = LLP is a body corporate formed and incorporated under the Limited Liability Partnership Act 2008. It is a legal entity separate from its owners.
• Perpetual succession = Unlike in partnership firm the LLP can continue its business operations even after the death, retirement, insanity or insolvency of one or more partners. It can enter into contracts and hold property in its name.
• Separate legal entity = LLP is a separate legal entity means the owners and the business are separate from each other. The liability of the partner has certain limitations in their contribution to the LLP.
• Mutual agency = All the partners in the LLP are agents of the LLP and not of the partners. It means that the partners are not bound by any acts done by the other partner. Every partner is independent and unauthorized by the actions done by the other partner.
• LLP agreement = Agreement between all the partners governs the rights and duties of all the partners. If there is no agreement then the act governs the mutual rights and duties of the partners.
• Limited liability = This is the most important feature of the LLP that it has limited liability. Limited liability means the liability to the extent of the amount that they put in the business. The partners are not liable to pay for the liabilities to the creditors from there personal assets.
• Minimum and maximum number of partners = The minimum number of partners that an LLP should have is at least 2 partners and at least two designated partners out of which one should be resident of India. There is no maximum limit on the number of partners in the entity.
• Who can be members of an LLP
  • Resident Indians = Any resident of India who is competent to enter into the contract can become a member of an LLP. To form an LLP at least two designated partners are to be appointment one of whom shall be resident of India.
  • Limited Liability Partnership = An LLP can also become a member of an LLP in India.
  • Companies including foreign companies = Foreign companies can also become a member of an LLP in India. However they must comply with the specific rules such as obtaining digital signatures and a director identification number. In addition to this it needs to take necessary approvals from RBI.

Q7: Which of the following are deemed to be dividend for the purpose of computing income chargeable under the head, Income from other sources, as per the Income Tax Act, 1961? 

A. Payment on buy-back of shares

B. Payment to shareholders on reduction of capital

C. Distribution of debentures to shareholders

D. Loan granted to shareholders in the ordinary course of business

E. Loan granted to shareholders by a closely held company

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) B and C Only

(b) B, C and E Only

(c) A, B and C Only

(d) A and C Only

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answers are B, C, and E.

 Deemed Dividends under the Income Tax Act, 1961:

• Payment to shareholders on reduction of capital (B): Can be considered as deemed dividend to the extent of accumulated profits which are not utilized for the benefit of the business, akin to distribution of surplus.
• Distribution of debentures to shareholders (C): May be treated as a deemed dividend as per the Income Tax Act, 1961, when distribution to shareholders represents distribution out of accumulated profits.
• Loan granted to shareholders by a closely held company (E): Is considered as deemed dividend under Section 2(22)(e) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, specifically for loans or advances given by a closely held company to its shareholders.

 Other Related Points

• Payment on buy-back of shares (A): Not classified as deemed dividend for the purpose of "Income from other sources" under the Income Tax Act, 1961, as Specific provisions like Section 115QA handle buy-back of share scenarios.
• Loan granted to shareholders in the ordinary course of business (D): Generally not deemed as a dividend under the Income Tax Act, 1961, as it falls outside the purview of dividends and is considered as a regular business transaction.

Hence, the options B. Payment to shareholders on reduction of capital, C. Distribution of debentures to shareholders, and E. Loan granted to shareholders by a closely held company, are deemed to be dividends for the purpose of computing income chargeable under the head, "Income from other sources", as per the Income Tax Act, 1961.

Q8: _______ takes into account a host of inputs, such as buyer’s image of the product performance, the channel deliverables, the warranty quality, customer support and softer attributes such as the supplier’s reputation, trustworthiness and esteem. 

(a) Target rate-of-return pricing

(b) Auction-type pricing

(c) Economic-value-to-customer pricing

(d) Competitive pricing

Ans: C

Sol: Correct answer is Economic-value-to-customer pricing.

• Economic-value-to-customer pricing focuses on assessing and setting the product's price based on the total value it delivers to the customer. This method integrates various inputs, including the buyer's perception of the product’s performance, the effectiveness and efficiency of the distribution channels, the quality of the product's warranty, the level of customer support, and softer attributes like the supplier's reputation, trustworthiness, and esteem. These factors together contribute to the overall perceived value the product offers to the customer, which this pricing strategy aims to quantify and capitalize on.

Other Related Points

• Target rate-of-return pricing is a pricing strategy that sets the product’s price based on a predetermined return on investment (ROI) or specific profit targets. While it takes production costs into account, it is more internally focused on achieving financial objectives rather than directly on the customer's perceived value of the product.

• Auction-type pricing is a method where the final price of the product is determined through a bidding process. The selling price varies depending on how much buyers are willing to pay at that moment. It does not explicitly consider the composite aspects of value (like product image, channel deliverables, or supplier reputation) in setting the price. Instead, it relies on the competitive dynamics of the auction setting.

• Competitive pricing involves setting the price of a product or service based on what competitors are charging for similar products or services. While understanding the market landscape is crucial, this strategy primarily focuses on positioning against competitors' pricing rather than on the comprehensive value offered to the customer, as considered in economic-value-to-customer pricing.

Q9: For Foreign Direct Investment, it is argued that a location in question attracts FDI because it combines the unique advantage of which of the following conditions? 

A. Internalisation Advantage

B. First Mover Advantage

C. Knowledge Advantage

D. Ownership Advantage

E. Location Advantage

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) E, A and C Only

(b) E, A and D Only

(c) C, B and D Only

(d) C, E and D Only

Ans: B

Sol: Correct answer is E, A and D Only

FDI = FDI stands for foreign direct investment. It refers to the investment made by the individual, organization or the government from one country into business that are located in another country. FDI involves acquiring interest in an enterprise abroad through the purchase of stocks, ownership stakes or the establishment of new ventures. FDI contribute to the economic growth, technology transfer and job creation. Different countries have different rules and regulations governing the FDI.

• The decision to invest by FDI is determined by the OLI paradigm which was formulated by an economist John Dunning. He states that OLI stands for Ownership, Location and Internalization.
  • Ownership advantage = The first consideration is the ownership advantage including proprietary information and ownership rights of the company. This may include branding, copyrights, trademark and the patents. It provides specific advantages to the parent company. Ownership advantages are considered to be intangible as it gives a relative competitive advantage such as reputation.
  • Location advantage = Location advantage is the second necessary decision while investing in the FDI. Companies must assess whether there is advantage or not for performing specific functions within a particular nation. This depends on the availability and cost of resources. Locational advantage refers to natural or created advantage which are generally immobile such as coal mines, gold mines, petroleum etc.
  • Internalization advantage = Internalization refers to the idea that a firm whether choose to internalize its activities rather than relying on external markets or a third party. Sometimes it is more beneficial or cost effective for an organization to operate from a different market or a third party while the business keep doing the work in house. So the business must think of outsourcing its production as it will benefit the business more in terms of cost.
• The OLI paradigm that is ownership advantage, location advantage and internalization advantage provides a comprehensive framework for understanding the factors that can influence the firm's decision to engage in Foreign Direct Investment or not.

Q10: Companies use ________ when they lack financial resources to carry out direct marketing and when they can earn more by doing so. 

(a) Intermediaries

(b) Internationalisation

(c) Influencers

(d) Innovation

Ans: A

Sol: Correct answer is Intermediaries

Intermediaries = Intermediaries also known as marketing channels are set of interdependent organizations involved in the process of marketing a product or a service available for use or consumption. Marketing channels helps to convert the potential buyers into profitable orders. The intermediaries can be of various types like wholesalers and retailers which buy the goods, take title and resell them others are agents which which search for the customer and negotiate on the producer's behalf for price and quality but do not take title of the goods and the last are facilitators they facilitate the sale and purchase but do not take title nor negotiate they include warehouses, banks, advertising agencies, transportation services.

Roles of marketing channels

• Many producers lack the financial resources to carry out the direct marketing so they opt for the marketing channels and the intermediaries for the purchase and sell of the product as it will be less costly and the product can reach the target market easily.
• Producers can earn a greater return by increasing the investment in their own business and giving out the marketing task to the intermediaries. This makes the goods widely available and accessible to the target market. The intermediaries often provides the producers more than it can achieve on its own as now they can focus only on their business.
• In some cases the direct marketing is not at all feasible because the then the producer will not be able to reach all the segments of the market because they do not have the contacts, experience, specializations which intermediaries have. This involves smooth flow of goods services in the market and reaching all the target segments.

Other Related Points

• Channel levels = Channel level shows the number of intermediaries that are working in a particular channel. There are mainly four types of channel levels 0 Level = Manufacturer ⇒ consumer ( direct marketing) 1Level = Manufacturer ⇒ wholesaler ⇒ consumer 2Level = Manufacturer ⇒ wholesaler ⇒ retailer ⇒ consumer 3 Level= Manufacturer ⇒ wholesaler ⇒ jobber ⇒ retailer ⇒ consumer

Number of intermediaries = Producer has to decide the number of intermediaries to use at each channel level. Three strategies are available for the producers that are

• Exclusive distribution = It means when the producer limits the number of intermediaries and wants to have control over the service and the output like in case of auto mobiles and major appliances.
• Selective distribution = It involves the use of more than few but less than of all the intermediaries who are willing to carry the product.
• Intensive distribution = It involves placing the goods and service by the producer in as many outlets as possible. This strategy is used by the products like soap, snack foods, tobacco.

Q11: Match List - I with List - II.

​
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

(a) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

(b) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

(c) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

(d) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

Ans: A

Sol: Correct answer is A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

Breach of promise to marry = Breach of promise to marry means the to the legal concept in which one party fails to fulfill an agreement to marry the other, despite of making the promises to marry. In many jurisdictions this allows the aggrieved party seek the damages in terms of financial losses, emotional distress or harm suffered as a result of broken promise.

• Remedy for breach of promise to marry is vindictive damage = Vindictive damage are awarded when one party in a contract breaches the contract and the other party is affected mentally such as emotional distress. It is to compensate the mental distress or injury cased to an aggrieved party.

Part performance(as much as earned) = Part performance refers to the legal doctrine in contract law where one party has fulfilled some obligations but not all of the contractual obligations. This recognition often arises to prevent unjust and unfairness to the performing party. For example if some party has partly performed the contractual obligations under the contract, a court may enforce the to grant the equitable remedies.

• Remedy for past performance is suit for quantum merit = A claim for the quantum merit is a quasi contract means there is no legal written contract between the two parties. It is made when one of the party has not performed all the contractual obligations under the contract then the aggrieved party may file a suit upon the quantum merit for the unfairness of the performing party.

Absolvation from all obligations = It means a complete release or discharge from the duties, responsibilities, commitments and contractual obligations. This contract ensures that all the parties involved should agree to the clauses of the contract willingly for them to be legally binding. 

• Remedy for absolvation from all obligation is recession of contract = Recession of contract means the to rescind the contract or to cancel the contract at the option of the aggrieved or the affected party.

Mode of securing the specific performance of negative terms of the contract = It includes any specific performance which will have a negative effect on the contract. It can be related to any mischief that is being played by a third party. If the defendant does something that he or she should not perform then the affected party can go to the court for the remedy.

• Suit for Injunction = An order from the court to restrain a person from doing anything is known as injunction. It is a legal action in which a party seeks a court order to prohibit another party from engaging in any act or certain actions.

Q12: Channel power is the ability to alter channel members' behaviour so that they take actions they would not have taken otherwise. From the following channel powers, list the ones which are subjective in nature: 

A. Legal Power

B. Coercive Power

C. Expert Power

D. Referent Power

E. Reward Power

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) D, A and C Only

(b) C and D Only

(c) A, B and E Only

(d) A, C and E Only

Ans: A

Sol: Correct answer is C and D Only

Subjective powers are Expert (C) and Referent (D), based on trust and relationships. Legal (A), Coercive (B), and Reward (E) are objective, relying on contracts or tangible incentives/punishments.

Definitions of Each Power:

• A. Legal Power – Objective
  Based on contractual or legal authority. Formal and enforceable.

• B. Coercive Power – Objective
  Based on the threat of punishment. Tangible and externally imposed.

• C. Expert Power – Subjective
  Based on the perception that someone has superior knowledge or skills.

• D. Referent Power – Subjective
  Based on admiration, identification, or respect.

• E. Reward Power – Objective
  Based on the ability to provide tangible benefits or incentives.

Subjective Powers:

• C. Expert Power

• D. Referent Power

These depend on perception and emotional connection rather than enforceable control.

Correct Answer: (b) C and D Only

These are the only subjective powers among the options.

Q13: Arrange the following in a sequence with regard to price leadership sustainability: 

A. Small firms in the industry are allowed to sell all they want at that price

B. Dominant firm acts as the residual supplier of the commodity

C. The dominant firm sets the price for the commodity that maximizes its profits

D. Small firms in the industry behave as price takers

E. Dominant firm then comes into fill the market

Chose the correct answer from the option given below:

(a) A, B, C, D, E

(b) E, D, C, B, A

(c) A, C, B, D, E

(d) C, A, E, B, D

Ans: D

Sol: Correct answer is C, A, E, B, D

Price leadership = Price leadership occur when a dominant form sets the price for its product and services and other competitors follow by matching their prices accordingly. Price leadership is often followed in oligopolistic market where small number of large firm dominate the industry . Price leadership can help to stabilize prices in an industry and reduce uncertainty. It is a signal to customers and competitor that the dominant firm has a strong market position however it can lead to anticompetitive behavior and collusion

There are two main types of price leadership 

• Dominant price leadership = In this the market leader or the dominant firm takes the initiative to set the price of industry and other firms followed its lead .
• Barometric price leadership = In this price leadership no single firm is recognized as dominant or market leader. Instead of this a group of firm observed and react to each other's pricing decision .In this the prices keeps on changing as firms adjust the prices according to changes in the market environment or cost.

Following is the sequences with regards to price leadership sustainability

• The first step to sustainability is that the dominant firm set the price for the commodity in the industry and the other firms in the industry follow that price. This allows the dominant firm to maximize its profit and achieve the objective of its firm.
• The smaller firm in the industry are allowed to sell at the price that they want as they do not take any risk by selling the product at a lower price than the prevailing market price as it can lead to the price war which smaller firms will not be able to sustain.
• Then the dominant firm comes to fill the market that smaller firm can not do. The smaller firms are not able to satisfy the customers in terms of the price as they are selling at a higher prices to overcome the price war so the dominant firm comes into the market to satisfy the customers need.
• Dominant firm acts as a residual supplier of the commodity to fill the market and balancing the demand and supply of the market so that their is no price war.
• At last the dominant firm sets the price of the commodity and he is considered as the price leader, the smaller firm in the industry behave as price takers because they have to accept the price set by the dominant firm as they do not have any power to influence the prices of the market . This brings the stability in the price leadership by the dominant firm.

Q14: Place the following service differentiators in a logical sequence: 

A. Speed and timing of delivery

B. Maintenance and repair

C. Returns

D. Installation, training and consulting

E. Ease of ordering

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(a) E, D, B, C, A

(b) E, A, D, B, C

(c) E, D, A, C, B

(d) E, C, A, B, D

Ans: B

Sol: Correct answer is E, A, D, B, C 

• Service differentiation = When the physical product cannot be easily differentiated the key to success in the competition lies in the valued services and improving them over time. The service differentiators process starts with ease of ordering, installation training and consultation, maintenance and repairs, returns and finally speed and timing of delivery.
• Ease of ordering = The first process in service differentiators is ease of ordering. It refers to how easy it is for a customer to place an order with the company. The more it will be easy for the customers the more will be the sales and profits for the company. For example the consumers are now able to order the groceries without going to the super market. One thing that should be care about is that the ordering process should be easy enough.
• Speed and timing of delivery = The next step in the process of service differentiators is the speed and delivery of the product. Delivery refers to how well the order of the product or service is delivered. Delivery should be fast and accurate and proper care should be taken in delivering the product. As fast as the delivery will be provided to the customers including the installation, training and consultations, maintenance and repairs the more satisfied the customers will be.
• Installation, training and consultation = The second step in service differentiators is installation, training and consultation. It should be done as soon as possible after the order. Installation refers to the work done to make the product operational. Ease of installation becomes the important selling point. Here the customer training refers to the training of the customer's training to use the equipment properly and efficiently. Consultation refers to the data and information that is provided by the sellers to the buyers for the use of the equipment. This stage deals with the education part of the customer.
• Maintenance and repairs = In this stage the service program for helping the customers to keep the product in the good working conditions. After the installation of the product there might be a problem in the product then the maintenance and the repairs services is used. The company which provides the best maintenance and repair services will have a good reputation in the market and that product will be purchased more.
• Returns = The next step in the service differentiators is returns. If the product does not meet the specification which is required by the customers there should a policy of returning the product. The request for the return to the company by the customer should not be delayed otherwise it will be the negative effect on the company and the products.

Q15: Which of following are pre-experimental designs? 

A. One-group pre test-post test

B. Pre-test post-test control group

C. Quasi-experiments

D. Static group comparison

E. After-only study

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) D, B, C Only

(b) A, D, E Only

(c) A, C, E Only

(d) E, B, D Only

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is A, D, E Only 

• Pre-experimental designs are the simplest form of research design and do not involve any kind of control or comparison group. 
• Pre-experimental designs like the ones mentioned lack crucial elements such as random assignment, control groups, or pre-intervention measurements, which are essential for establishing causality and ruling out alternative s for observed effects.

 Important Points

• One-group pre test-post test: This design involves measuring a single group of participants before and after they have been exposed to some intervention or treatment. The main limitation of this design is the lack of a control group. Without a comparison group, it's challenging to attribute any observed changes solely to the intervention, as there could be other factors influencing the results.
• Static group comparison: In this design, two separate groups are compared, but participants are not randomly assigned to groups. One group receives the treatment (experimental group), and the other does not (control group). The major limitation of this design is the lack of random assignment, which means that the groups may differ systematically before the treatment, making it difficult to determine whether any differences observed after the treatment are due to the treatment itself or pre-existing differences between the groups.
• After-only study: This design involves measuring the outcome of interest only after the treatment has been administered, without any pre-intervention measurements or control group. The key limitation of this design is the absence of baseline data or a control group, making it challenging to establish causality or determine whether any observed outcomes are truly attributable to the treatment.

Q16: The concept of product life cycle is based on which of the following key assumptions? 

A. Profits remain stable at different stages of product life cycle

B. Products have an unlimited life

C. Product sales pass through distinct stages, each posing different challenges, opportunites and problems to the seller

D. Products require different marketing, financial, manufacturing, purchasing and human resource strategies in each of the life cycle stages

E. Products have a limited life

Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

(a) B, C and D Only

(b) A, B and C Only

(c) A, C and D Only

(d) C, D and E Only

Ans: D

Sol: Correct answer is C, D and E Only

A company's positioning and differentiation strategies must be changed as the product, market and the competitors change over the product life cycle. The product life cycle has to purport four main things which are

• Product have a limited life cycle.
• Product sales pass through various stages which has different challenges, opportunities and problems to the seller.
• Profits may rise or fall at different stages of product life cycle.
• Products require different manufacturing, financial, marketing and purchasing and human resource strategies at each level of the product life cycle.
• Product life cycle has four stages which are introduction, growth, maturity and decline.
  • Introduction stage = As the product is introduced in the market the sales growth will be slow and profits will be nonexistent because of the heavy expenses of product introduction. The strategies that are followed in the introduction stages are are intensive advertisement campaign should be run for the product to inform the potential customers and induce the product trial, the basis of selection of middlemen should be selective because the expenses are high, and the pricing of the product should be based on the normal profit policy.
  • Growth stage = In this stage the customer starts accepting the product and the sales starts to increase. The promotion of the good becomes more focused, distribution points also increases rapidly. At this stage the company will maintain the higher price to earn the maximum amount of profits. As the production increases the cost per unit of product will decrease. The strategies that are followed in this stage are improvement in the product quality and adding new product features and improved styling, it adds new models of the product and increases the distribution channels.
  • Market maturity stage = In this stage the sales become stagnant and starts to decrease slowly. Competition is very fast at this stage as many new competitors enter the market. Due to competition the company increases the promotion and this increase the pressure on the profits. The strategies adopted in this stage are to reduce the price of the product to attract the price sensitive customers and new uses of the products should be discovered and efforts should be made to bring novelty in the products by changing the color, shape and size etc.
  • Market decline stage = This is the stage when the market starts to decline and it is the final stage of the product life cycle. Also known as market death stage. At this stage the product either becomes obsolete or in place of this product and improved product enters into the market. The strategies that are followed in death stage are to advertise the product to increase the demand of the product and to properly plan and implement the policies to survive against the competition and in case of losses sell the loss making products of the company.

Q17: When a target company makes a counter bid for the stock of the bidder, the defensive strategy in reference is called? 

(a) Greenmail

(b) Poison pill

(c) Pacman defense

(d) Golden parachute

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is Pacman defense 

Key Points 

• When a target company makes a counter bid for the stock of the bidder, the defensive strategy in reference is called Pacman defense 
• The Pacman defense is a strategic maneuver employed by a target company to lend off a hostile takeover bid by turning the tables on the would-be acquirer.
• The term is derived from the popular arcade game Pac-Man, where the titular character turns the tables on its pursuers by consuming them instead. Similarly, in the context of corporate takeovers, the target company attempts to "devour" or acquire the entity that initially sought to acquire it.
• Initially, a company (the bidder) launches a hostile takeover bid to acquire the target company.
• In response to the hostile takeover attempt, the target company adopts the Pacman defense strategy. 
• By making a counter bid, the target company gains several strategic advantages
• Implementing a Pacman defense requires careful consideration of legal and regulatory implications. 
• The Pacman defense can lead to negotiation and dialogue between the target company and the bidder. 
• Both parties may seek to reach a mutually beneficial agreement, such as a merger or acquisition on favorable terms, to resolve the standoff.

Additional Information 

• Greenmail is a defensive strategy where a target company repurchases its own stock from a potential acquirer at a premium, thus making the takeover attempt less financially attractive for the acquirer.
• A poison pill is a strategy used by a target company to defend itself against an unwanted takeover bid. It involves the issuance of new shares or rights to existing shareholders, which dilutes the ownership stake of the acquirer, making the acquisition more expensive and less attractive.
• Golden parachute refers to a compensation package offered to top executives of a company in the event of a change in ownership or control, typically following a merger or acquisition. This package provides lucrative benefits to key executives if they are terminated or if there is a change in control of the company. 

Q18: As per the sub-section (8A) of Section 139 of the Income Tax Act, a person may furnish an updated return of his income for the previous year relevant to such assessment year, within _______ from the end of assessment year? 

(a) 6 months

(b) 12 months

(c) 24 months

(d) 36 months

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is 24 months

Key Points 

• Subsection (8A) of Section 139 of the Income Tax Act pertains to the provision for filing a revised return of income, commonly known as an updated return.
• This provision allows individuals to correct any errors or omissions in the original return filed for a particular assessment year.
• A revised return is a modified version of the original return filed by a taxpayer for a specific assessment year. It is filed when the taxpayer realizes that there are mistakes or important information that was not included in the original return.
• The purpose of allowing revised returns is to provide taxpayers with the opportunity to rectify any errors or omissions in their original return. This ensures that the taxpayer's income is accurately reported, which in turn helps in computing the correct tax liability.

Additional Information 

• Taxpayers can file a revised return only if they have already filed the original return within the due date specified under Section 139(1) of the Income Tax Act.
• Additionally, the revised return can be filed multiple times before the end of the relevant assessment year or before completion of the assessment, whichever is earlier.
• To file a revised return, taxpayers need to use the same form that was used for filing the original return.
• They must mention that it is a revised return and provide details of the original acknowledgment number and date of filing.
• The revised return should include all corrections and amendments to the original return.

Q19: Which of the following theories of capital structure articulates that a firm borrows up to the point where the tax benefit from extra debt is exactly equal to the cost that comes from the increased probability of financial distress? 

(a) The static theory

(b) Net income approach

(c) Modigliani-Miller theory

(d) Net operating income approach

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is The Static Theory

Key Points 

• The theory of capital structure that articulates that a firm borrows up to the point where the tax benefit from extra debt is exactly equal to the cost that comes from the increased probability of financial distress is known as the "static theory."
• The static theory, also known as the trade-off theory, suggests that there is an optimal capital structure for a firm where the tax advantage of debt is balanced against the costs of financial distress.
• In other words, a firm will continue to add debt until the marginal tax benefit of debt equals the marginal cost of financial distress.
• Debt provides tax shields in the form of interest expense deductions, which reduce the taxable income of the firm, resulting in lower tax payments.
• As the firm increases its debt level, the tax benefit from interest payments also increases.

Other Related Points

• However, as the firm takes on more debt, it also faces increased financial distress costs, such as bankruptcy costs, agency costs, and the potential for loss of reputation and business opportunities.
• These costs rise with higher levels of debt due to increased risk of default.
• According to the static theory, the firm's optimal capital structure is achieved when the tax benefit of debt is precisely offset by the costs associated with financial distress.
• At this point, further increases in debt would not provide any net benefit to the firm.

Q20: Which are the states where every supplier of goods and/or services is required to obtain registration if his aggregate turnover exceeds the threshold limit of Rs. 20 lakh for supply of goods and/or services? 

A. Arunachal Pradesh

B. Meghalaya

C. Manipur

D. Mizoram

E. Sikkim

Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

(a) B, C and A Only

(b) C, D and E Only

(c) E, B and A Only

(d) All of the above

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is - (c)

• General (Normal) States: GST registration is mandatory if the aggregate turnover exceeds ₹20 lakh for services or mixed supplies, and ₹40 lakh for goods-only suppliers .
• Special Category States: These states have lower thresholds—generally ₹10 lakh for services and ₹20 lakh for goods/mixed supplies. However, some special category states may opt for higher thresholds as permissible by GST Council decisions
• Manipur and Mizoram fall under states where service/mixed supply threshold is ₹10 lakh, making the requirement stricter and thus not ₹20 lakh across all categories.
• Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, and Sikkim maintain the ₹20 lakh threshold across both goods and services/mixed supplies

From the options provided:

• (a) B, C and A Only → Incorrect (includes Manipur → ₹10 lakh threshold for services)
• (b) C, D and E Only → Incorrect (includes Manipur & Mizoram → ₹10 lakh threshold for services)
• (c) E, B and A Only → Correct — Sikkim (E), Meghalaya (B), Arunachal Pradesh (A)
• (d) All of the above → Incorrect (not all states fit ₹20 lakh threshold for both supply types)

Final Answer: (c) E, B and A Only

That is, Sikkim, Meghalaya, and Arunachal Pradesh are the states where every supplier of goods and/or services must register if their aggregate turnover exceeds ₹20 lakh.

Q21: Which one of the following accounting concepts and conventions consider it reasonable to use the historical cost to record long-lived assets? 

(a) The entity concept

(b) Going concern convention

(c) Materiality convention

(d) The periodicity convention

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is Going concern convention 

• The going concern convention assumes that a company will continue its operations indefinitely.
• This allows the business to spread the cost of an asset over its expected lifespan.
• As a result, it is considered reasonable under the going concern convention to use the historical cost (the original cost at which the asset was acquired) to record long-lived assets.
• This is because under this convention, assets are not generally intended to be liquidated immediately, but are used over a period of time to generate revenues.

Other Related Points

• The entity concept, also known as the entity assumption or separate entity concept, is a fundamental accounting principal that separates the finances of the business from those of its owners or other entities. It treats the business as a distinct economic entity, independent of its owners.
• The materiality convention states that only items that significantly affect financial decisions or the economic condition of the business need to be reported. This convention guides accountants in determining which transactions or events should be recorded in the financial statements.
• The periodicity convention, also known as the time period assumption, assumes that the economic activities of a business can be divided into discrete time periods for financial reporting purposes.

Q22: Match List - I with List - II.

 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

(a) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

(b) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

(c) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

(d) A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III 

Q23: Arrange the following rounds for multilateral trade negotiations under GATT/WTO in a chronological order. 

A. Kennedy

B. Doha

C. Annecy

D. Torquay

E. Tokyo
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(a) C, D, A, E, B

(b) D, C, E, A, B

(c) B, A, E, C, D

(d) B, E, A, D, C

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is C, D, A, E, B

Key Points 

• The chronological order of some key rounds of multilateral trade negotiations under the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), which later led to the establishment of the World Trade Organization (WTO). 
• Annecy Round (1950): The second round of GATT negotiations took place in Annecy, France, in 1949, not in 1950. This round primarily focused on further tariff reductions on industrial goods.
• Torquay Round (1950-1951): The third round of GATT negotiations occurred in Torquay, England, from 1950 to 1951. This round aimed to further reduce tariffs and trade barriers, particularly focusing on agricultural products.
• Kennedy Round (1964-1967): The sixth round of GATT negotiations, known as the Kennedy Round, was held in Geneva, Switzerland, from 1964 to 1967. The Kennedy Round focused on further tariff reductions, particularly in sectors such as chemicals, textiles, and agricultural products. 
• The Tokyo Round was the seventh round of GATT negotiations, spanning from 1973 to 1979. It involved 102 nations and aimed to address non-tariff barriers to trade, such as quotas, subsidies, and technical barriers.
• Doha: Under the banner of WTO, the Doha Development Round of World Trade Organization negotiations aimed to lower trade barriers around the world and launched in 2001.

Other Related Points

• Both GATT and the WTO have played significant roles in promoting international trade, fostering economic growth, and ensuring a rules-based trading system.
• While GATT focused primarily on tariff reduction, the WTO covers a broader range of trade issues and has a more robust institutional structure for trade governance.

Q24: Given below are two statements: 

Statement I: The ordinary treasury bills that are marketable and have a secondary market are issued to the public and financial institutions.

Statement II: Ad hoc treasury bills are issued only in favour of the Reserve Bank of India which is authorized to issue currency notes against them.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are true

• Both statements accurately describe the characteristics and issuance of ordinary treasury bills and ad hoc treasury bills
• Ordinary treasury bills (T-bills) are indeed marketable securities issued by the government to raise short-term funds.
• They are typically sold through auctions to a wide range of investors, including the public and financial institutions such as banks, mutual funds, and insurance companies.
• Moreover, T-bills are traded in the secondary market, allowing investors to buy and sell them before their maturity date.
• Ad hoc treasury bills are special short-term securities issued by the government, usually to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), to meet temporary mismatches in its receipts and expenditures. 
• These bills are not typically issued to the public or other financial institutions but are instead used as a mechanism for the government to borrow directly from the RBI. 
• The RBI may issue currency notes against these ad hoc treasury bills, effectively monetizing the government's debt.

Other Related Points

• Treasury bills (T-bills) are short-term debt securities issued by the government to raise funds.
• They are typically sold at a discount from their face value and mature in a relatively short period, ranging from a few days to a year. T-bills are considered one of the safest investments because they are backed by the full faith and credit of the government.

Q25: Which of the following are objectives of Immediate Payment Service (IMPS)? 

A. To enable bank clients to use mobile instruments as a channel for accessing their bank accounts and remit funds

B. To build the foundation for a full range of mobile based banking services.

C. To sub-serve the goal of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in digital payments.

D. To make payments simpler with the mobile number of the beneficiary

E. To restrain a nation-wide payment system facilitating one-to-one funds transfer

Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

(a) A, C, D and E Only

(b) A, B, C and D Only

(c) B, C, D and E Only

(d) B, A, E and D Only

Ans: B

Sol: 

• The objective of IMPS is to enable bank clients to use mobile instruments as a channel for accessing their bank accounts and remit funds. It is a easy, quick and secure way to transfer funds via the mobile phones. Users can transfer money through internet banking, m- banking or through pre-paid payments instrument.
• It builds the foundation of full range of mobile based banking services. IMPS can be used to conduct multiple transactions at any time of the day, enabling the users to make use of IMPS without any time constraints. The versatility of IMPS allows individuals to use it for several purposes other than just sending and receiving money. It offers multiple services such as making payments to merchants, shopping online, insurance premium payment, utility bill payments and travel and ticketing.
• IMPS serves the goal of RBI to increase the usage of digital payments. Being a digital mode of transferring funds, IMPS strengthens the goal of rbi by providing a robust and real time fund transfer service across the nation. It has deepened the digital payments penetration across the country by facilitating easier transfer of funds.
• IMPS has made the process of making payments simpler and hassle free by just using the beneficiary's mobile number and MMID ( Mobile money Identifier). It streamlines the process of fund transfer by just using the mobile number where bank account details are not required.
• IMPS enables nation wide payment system by facilitating one-to one funds transfer. It allows the remitter to instantly transfer the funds to the beneficiary's bank account, irrespective of time and location. It enables the extension of banking services across the nation and enhances financial inclusion by providing access to banking services to even the most remote areas.

Other Related Points

• IMPS is managed by National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), which is the umbrella organization for operating retail payments and settlement system in India.
• IMPS can be initiated using a mobile banking app, internet banking or a bank's ATM.
• Funds can be transferred in various modes using mobile number or MMID, using Account number and IFS Code or using Aadhaar number of the beneficiary.
• The maximum transfer limit of funds through IMPS is Rs. 5 lakh.

Q26: Which of the following frameworks is considered as the Open International Standard for Digital Business Reporting? 

(a) CSR reporting

(b) TBL reporting

(c) XBRL reporting

(d) PPP reporting

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is XBRL reporting.

• XBRL( extensible Business Reporting Language) is an open international standard for digital business reporting.
• It enables the companies to report their financial statements in a structured and machine readable format which makes it easier to analyse complex business information, thus improving transparency, accuracy, efficiency of financial reports.
• XBRL has been widely adopted across the world as an open standard for financial reporting purposes.
• It offers multiple benefits to all the producers and Consumers of financial data in terms of cost saving, accuracy, reliability, flexibility and efficiency in handling business and financial information.

• CSR reporting (Corporate social responsibility reporting ) is used to report the firm's CSR policy, composition of CSR committee and the allocation of CSR expenditure to various social projects and programmes.
• TBL ( Triple bottom Line) reporting is used to measure the financial, social and environment performance of a company over a period of time.
• PPP ( Public private partnership reporting) refers to reporting the information about the public private partnership projects so that the stakeholders can assess the performance of the PPP projects.

Q27: Which of the following are relevant in technological innovations? 

A. Most innovations are incremental

B. Most innovations involve the commercial utilization of ideas

C. Innovations cannot be explained with isoquants

D. Introduction of innovations is not stimulated by strong domestic rivalry and geographic concentrations

E. The risk in introducing innovations is usually high

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) B, D and E only

(b) A, C and E only

(c) A, B and E only

(d) A, B and C only

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is A, B and E only. 

• Most innovational are incremental. This because most of the technological innovations make small scale, gradual and continuous improvements on the existing products and services. Products are modified and improved to make them more efficient and user friendly. For example, TV has seen considerable incremental innovation in terms of improvement in design, functions, resolution and picture quality.
• Most innovations involve commercial utilisation of ideas. Innovations create products that have a commercial value. Innovations develop products which are commercially successful. This is done by marketing and distributing the product to the market and exploiting it for profit maximisation. For example, smart phones have created a substantial commercial and economic value to the manufacturers.
• The risk in introducing innovations is high as new technologies require huge investment in terms of financial investment, time and expertise. The innovations encounter various challenges due to the uncertainties in the market which involve risks of market positioning, technical barriers, changing customer needs and preferences and economic and political fluctuations.

• Innovations are stimulated by domestic rivalry and geographic concentrations. Rivalry in a competitive market stimulates the firms to differentiate, improve and innovate their products in order to gain a larger market share. Geographic clusters facilitate exchange of knowledge and creative ideas which results in innovative methods of saving costs, transfer of technology and fosters technological advancements.
• Isoquants are curves that show various combinations of inputs that result in a certain level of output. Isoquants can depict technological advancements by showing different combinations of inputs that result in same level of output using different technological conditions.

Q28: The trademarks can be broadly classified into which of the following categories? 

A. Descriptive

B. Normative

C. Generic

D. Explanatory

E. Invented

Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

(a) A, B and D Only

(b) D, E and C Only

(c) B, C and E Only

(d) C, A and E Only

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is C, A and E Only

• The trademarks can be broadly classified into Generic, Descriptive and Invented categories.
• The three categories of trademarks Generic, Descriptive, and Invented represent different levels of distinctiveness and eligibility for trademark protection.
• Understanding these categories is essential for businesses and individuals seeking to develop and protect their brand identity.

Additional Information 

• Descriptive trademarks are those that directly describe the product or service being offered. These trademarks are often not distinctive and may not be eligible for trademark protection unless they acquire secondary meaning. For example, "The Shoe Store" for a shoe store would be considered descriptive.
• Generic terms are common names for products or services and cannot function as trademarks because they do not distinguish the goods or services of one provider from another. Using a generic term as a trademark would give one company exclusive rights to use that term, which would be unfair to competitors and against the purpose of trademark law. For example, "Computer" used as a trademark for computers would be considered generic.
• Invented trademarks are those that are coined or created solely for the purpose of functioning as a trademark. These trademarks are typically the strongest and most protectable because they are inherently distinctive and have no other meaning apart from identifying the source of the goods or services. For example, "Kodak" for cameras and film is an invented trademark.

Q29: SAFTA (South Asian Free Trade Agreement) categorises member nations as Non-Least Developed Contracting States (NLDCS) and Least Developed Contracting States (LDCS). Identify the NLDSC states from the following 

A. Bangladesh

B. Pakistan

C. Bhutan

D. India

E. Sri Lanka

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B and D Only

(b) A, C and E Only

(c) E, A and B Only

(d) E, D and B Only

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is E, D And B only. 

• South Asian Free Trade Agreement categorises India, Pakistan and Sri Lanka as Non- least Developed Contracting States. These are relatively more economically developed within the region. These states have higher levels of income, infrastructure and industrialisation.
• Bangladesh and Bhutan are categorised as Least Developed Contracting states. These states are designated as Least Developed Country by the United Nations. These are low income countries who confront various economic challenges and are more vulnerable to external shocks.
• All contracting states provide special and more favourable treatment exclusively to the Least Developed contracting states with regards to enhancing exports from LDCs, providing technical assistance and assisting them in expansion of trade.
• The agreement contains rules where safeguard measures are not applied against products originating in Least Developed contracting states.

• SAFTA is a free trade agreement of the South Asian Association of Regional Cooperation (SSARC), which came into effect on 1 January, 2006.
• SAFT signatory countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka , Maldives and Nepal.
• The primary objective of the SAFTA agreement is to promote mutual trade and economic cooperation among the member countries by eliminating barriers to trade and promoting conditions of fair competition in the free trade area.

Q30: Which one of the following is an exception to the doctrine of Constructive Notice. 

(a) Doctrine of Subrogation

(b) Doctrine of Ultra Vires

(c) Corporate Veil

(d) Turquand Rule

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is 'Turquand Rule'

Turquand Rule:

• The Turquand Rule, also known as the "Indoor Management Rule," states that outsiders dealing with a company are entitled to assume that internal company rules are observed.
• This rule exempts outsiders from investigating whether the company's internal procedures have been properly followed, thus protecting them from the doctrine of constructive notice which implies that everyone is presumed to know the contents of a company's public documents.
• The Turquand Rule provides a safeguard against the complexities that outsiders might face if they were required to verify that every internal procedure of the company was correctly followed.

Other Related Points

Doctrine of Subrogation:

• This doctrine pertains to insurance and indemnity law, allowing one party (usually an insurance company) to "step into the shoes" of another by assuming their legal rights and claims.
• It is unrelated to corporate internal management or the doctrine of constructive notice.

Doctrine of Ultra Vires:

• This doctrine states that actions taken by a company outside the scope of its charter or articles of association are void and cannot be ratified, even if approved by all shareholders.
• While it concerns the limits of corporate power, it does not provide an exception to the doctrine of constructive notice.

Corporate Veil:

• The corporate veil separates the personality of a corporation from its shareholders, protecting them from being personally liable for the company’s debts and obligations.
• This concept deals with liability and does not address the exceptions to the doctrine of constructive notice.

Q31: When a country's currency is accepted as a reserve currency, the potential conflict may arise between which of following policy objectives? 

A. Domestic monetary policy

B. Domestic fiscal policy

C. External currency policy

D. Foreign trade policy

E. Inland trade policy

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B, and C Only

(b) A, C and D Only

(c) B, D and E Only

(d) C, D and E Only

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is A, C and D only. 

• Domestic monetary policy: When a country's currency is accepted as a reserve currency, the country's ability to conduct independent domestic monetary policy comes into conflict because any changes in the domestic money supply or interest rates can have international consequences.
• External currency policy: The policies which are aimed at maintaining the exchange rate stability can come in conflict with the domestic objectives as such policies can hamper the policies like price stability or devaluation of currency.
• Foreign Trade policy: When a country's currency is used as a reserve currency it strengthens the currency's exchange rate. A strong currency cam affect a country's export an import market, making the exports costlier and imports cheaper, thus disrupting the balance of payments. Conflict may arise when the country wants to promote exports and protect its domestic industries.

• Reserve currency is a globally recognised foreign currency that is held by other countries as a part of their foreign exchange reserves.
• A reserve currency is easily convertible and has a stable value. The US dollar is the dominant reserve currency, with a share of 61% of global reserves.
• A reserve currency reduces the exchange rate risks there is no risk of exchanging the currency while making payments.

Q32: The sequential stages of moral development in business organization are characterised by: 

(a) Conceptualised disposition, consistency and harmony, principald oriented

(b) Consistency and harmony, conceptualised disposition, principald oriented

(c) principald oriented, conventional and preconventional

(d) Preconventional, conventional, principald oriented

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is Preconventional, conventional, principald oriented.

•  Preconventional: At this stage of moral development, an individual makes moral decisions to adhere to the rules of the organization in order to avoid punishment or seek any personal benefit. The behaviour of the individuals is determined by the consequences.
• Conventional : In the conventional stage, individuals make moral decisions in conformity to the social rules or norms. The individuals support rules that are set by the society to maintain harmony and uphold social order.
• Principal oriented : At the principal oriented level, they make decisions on the basis of moral principals and values. They prioritise ethical principals such as justice, fairness, human rights over personal or societal norms. Impartiality, dignity, equality and a just society are values that are considered universal.

Q33: Match List - I with List - II. 

 Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

(a) A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II

(b) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV

(c) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I

(d) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV

Ans: A

Sol: Correct answer is A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II

Q34: Which of the following are the reasons for substitution between domestic and MNC goods? 

A. Increased knowledge of foreign products due to international information revolution

B. No need to conduct advertising campaigns

C. Transportation costs having fallen to very low levels for most products

D. Restricted international travel

E. Tastes are consistent at the global level

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A and C Only

(b) D and E Only

(c) C and D Only

(d) A and B Only

Ans: A

Sol: Correct answer is A and C Only

• MNC = MNC means Multinational Company. Multinational company means a company which has its business operations in many countries other than the home country and has a huge capital base and technological know how. In MNC the production process is scattered across more than one country and the investments are also made in several countries. So the goods sold by an MNC are known as MNC goods.
• Domestic goods = These are the goods which are manufactured by the domestic or the national company. Domestic company means those companies which do not have huge financial resources and are generally confined to a narrower place. In domestic company the production process are confined to domestic country and there is no investment other than the home country.

Reasons for substitution between domestic and MNC goods

• Increased knowledge = Due to increased knowledge of the customer they can understand and compare the benefits and the advantages of the MNC goods versus domestic goods and then make an informed decision to purchase the goods. If the MNC good will be superior than the domestic customer will drift away from buying the local goods and will move on to MNC goods.
• Low transportation cost = As the transportation cost reduces the overall cost of importing the goods also reduces into the domestic market. This decreased cost will make the cost of the product less. This reduction in price would lead a shift to MNC goods from the domestic goods.
• Technological advancements = As MNC have more technological advancements they can offer a good quality product at less price. This can lead to substitution of domestic goods with MNC goods.
• Access to resources = As MNC have access to resources related to specialized labor, advance technologies and specific natural resources there production cost decreases and as result per unit cost of the product also decreases. This decreased cost can make the MNC goods price competitive with domestic goods and leads to substitute of domestic goods.

Q35: Which one of the following statements is the most relevant to the substitution effect? 

(a) In the real world, substitution effect is much larger than the income effect

(b) Most of the goods are not reasonable substitutes

(c) In reality, the income effect represents its predominance over the substitution effect

(d) Substitution and income effects cannot be separated easily

Ans: A

Sol: Correct answer is In the real world, substitution effect is much larger than the income effect.

Substitution Effect refers to the change in consumption patterns due to a change in the relative prices of goods, holding the consumer's utility (satisfaction) constant. When the price of a good decreases (or increases), consumers are more likely to substitute it for other goods that have become relatively more expensive (or cheaper).

The statement "In the real world, substitution effect is much larger than the income effect" highlights a commonly observed phenomenon in consumer behavior economics. This can be explained through a few key considerations:

1. Price Sensitivity: Consumers are often highly sensitive to changes in prices. A slight decrease in the price of a good makes it more attractive compared to other goods whose prices have not changed. This sensitivity induces consumers to substitute towards the cheaper good, often in significant amounts.

2. Availability of Alternatives: The modern marketplace offers a vast array of alternatives for most goods and services. This abundance makes it easier for consumers to find substitutes when the price dynamics change, amplifying the substitution effect.

3. Limited Income Changes: When the price of a product changes, the real income (purchasing power) of consumers changes as well. However, this income effect (the change in consumption patterns due to a change in consumer's real income) is often smaller in comparison to the substitution effect because consumer incomes do not usually change as quickly or significantly as prices do.

4. Real-World Observations: Empirical evidence in various markets often shows that consumers tend to adjust their buying habits more significantly in response to price changes (substitution effect) than to changes in their real income (income effect). This is partly because real income changes are generally more gradual, while price changes can be sudden and noticeable.

Other Related Points

• Most of the goods are not reasonable substitutes: This statement, although it can be true in certain contexts, does not directly address the nature or impact of the substitution effect.

• In reality, the income effect represents its predominance over the substitution effect: This statement contradicts the commonly observed economic behavior where the substitution effect usually plays a larger role than the income effect in consumer choices.

• Substitution and income effects cannot be separated easily: While academically challenging, this statement does not specifically highlight the significance or magnitude of the substitution effect compared to the income effect.

Q36: Arrange the following steps of a well planned experiment in the sequential order. 

A. Specify the treatment levels

B. Assign subject to groups and conduct pilot test

C. Choose an experimental design suited to the hypotheses

D. Control the environmental and extraneous factors

E. Select relevant variables for testing

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(a) C, D, E, A, B

(b) A, C, D, E, B

(c) E, A, D, C, B

(d) D, C, B, A, E

Ans: C

Sol: Correct answer is E, A, D, C, B

Process of a well planned experiment

Select relevant variables for testing= Anything which is capable of assuming the different values is known as variables. The first step in the process of an experiment is to identify the variables which are required for testing. There are mainly two types of variables dependent and independent variables.

• Dependent variables = It is also called the outcome or response variables. This variable changes as a result of changes in the independent variables.
• Independent variables = It is also known as manipulated, experimental or treatment variable. They become the cause of change in another variable.
• In addition to these there are intervening and extraneous variables also. Intervening variables are those variables through which one variable affects another. Extraneous variable are those variable which affect the dependent variable and it needs to be controlled while conducting an experiment.
• Specify the treatment levels = The next step is specifying the treatment levels means how the independent variable should be manipulated in the experiment and also controlling the extraneous variable so that the experimenter can determine weather the dependent variable changes in relation to a variation in an independent variable.
• Chose the environmental and extraneous factors = Environmental and extraneous factors are those factors which can affect the dependent variable. Therefore the environmental and extraneous factors or the variable must be controlled so that the experimenter can determine weather the dependent variable changes in relation to a variation in an independent variable.
• Choosing an experimental design = In this step an experimenter will choose an experimental design suited to the hypothesis. There are many experimental design which he can choose like cross sectional study( data is collected only once in the research process), longitudinal study(data is collected at various points of time in the research study), experimental study( in this the independent variable is manipulated to see the changes in the dependent variable), Action research( to solve the problem immediately).
• Assign subject to group and conduct pilot study = The next step in the experiment is to assign the subjects or split the participants into groups like control and experimental group and then conduct a pilot study. Pilot study means to conduct an experiment on a small scale before conducting the main research to test the various aspects of the research design.

Q37: Which of the following are considered while avoiding conflict? 

A. Conflict based on interpersonal relationships

B. All conflicts are not bad and can be taken positively

C. Conflict over content and goals of the work

D. Conflicts do not support a group's goal and improve its performance

E. Conflict over how work gets done

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B and C Only

(b) A, B and E Only

(c) A, C and E Only

(d) B, C and D Only

Ans: C

Sol: Correct answer is A, C and E Only

• Conflict management= Everyone can get benefit from learning to use conflict management skills in the workplace, regardless of their role, position, responsibilities. People con avoid conflict in the workplace but sometimes it can creep up on the employees and the customer. Learning about the conflict management can help to handle the various situations. There are mainly 5 Conflict Management styles.
• Accommodating = Accommodating style means forsaking your own desires in exchange for those of others. This style takes place when you are give in or are persuaded to give in. This style is more appropriate when others care about the issue more than you do.
• Compromising = A compromising style attempts to find a solution that will please all the parties not fully but partially. This style could be appropriate when a solution is more important and a deadline is reaching. At these time by compromising we can reduce the conflicts arising in the organizations.
• Collaborating = In collaborating style the management attempts to find out a solution by which needs of all the parties are fulfilled and the parties are satisfied and pleased. This style is appropriate when multiple perspectives are to be addressed and there is important relation between the parties and final solution is too important.
• Competing = In competing style the firm refuses to see the perspectives of the other parties and prioritize personal goal over the relationship often involving a desire to win. This style is appropriate when the person have stand up for his rights and morals and needs to make a quick decision.
• Avoiding= The avoiding style completely evades the conflict. People neither pursue their own beliefs nor those of the other people. This style is appropriate to use when the conflict seems to be trivial and we don not have time to think but we need more time to think. While avoiding conflicts following things should be taken care of
  • Conflicts based on interpersonal relationships = These types of conflicts can lead to negativity and team cohesion, tension rises and resentments becomes faster and much big argument can result and they can become angry and might hurt the person.
  • Conflicts over content and goals of the work = By making a conflict over how work should be done it can lead to decrease the productivity and halt progress towards achieving the objectives and goals of the organization.
  • Conflict over how work gets done = If there is a conflict of hoe work gets to be done then it can cause a disruption in the productivity of the organizations and the objectives might not be achieved effectively.

Q38: Identify the source of oligopoly which is also applicable to monopoly firms: 

(a) Economies of scale may operate over a small range of outputs

(b) Huge capital investments and specialized inputs are required to enter the market

(c) Large firms may own a patent for the exclusive right to produce a commodity

(d) New firms have chances to win customer loyalty

Ans: B

Sol: Correct answer is Huge capital investments and specialized inputs are required to enter the market.

Oligopoly = Oligopoly is a market situation in which a few firms produce and compete for their homogenous and differentiated products. There is interdependence of firms with regard to price, output and advertisement. There are two types of oligopoly

• Perfect and imperfect oligopoly = If in the oligopoly market the firms produces the homogenous product it is called a perfect oligopoly. If the firms produces the differentiated products then it is called imperfect oligopoly.
• Collusive and Non- collusive oligopoly = If the firms cooperate with each other in relation to price determination and output both then it is called collusive oligopoly and if firms compete with each other it is called non collusive oligopoly.
• Monopoly = Monopoly refers to the market situation in which there is only single seller or the producer of a commodity which has no close substitutes. He has full control over the price of the product and nobody can influence the prices of the product. He is the leader of the market.

Similarities between the oligopoly and the monopoly 

• Large number of consumers = Both oligopoly and monopoly have large number of consumers and thus no buyer can influence the price of the commodity.
• Restriction or barriers to the entry of the firm = Both oligopoly and monopoly have restrictions to the entry of the firm because of large investment, patents, control over raw materials. Only those firms which are able to cross these barriers are able to enter. Due to the restrictive entry these firms earns the abnormal or super normal profits in the long run.
• Power of influencing the price = Both the oligopoly and monopoly firms are price makers and only they can change the prices and no buyer or consumer can influence the price because they are in large number.

Difference between the monopoly and the oligopoly

Q39: Given below are two statements: 

Statement I: For a given sample size and level of significance (a), the critical value of Student's t always exceeds that of z

Statement II: For a given level of significance (a), the critical value of Student's t increases as n increases.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is Statement I is true but Statement II is false. 

• Statement I : For a given sample size and level of significance (a), the critical value of student's t always exceeds that of z. This is because the critical value of student's t distribution is greater than the critical value of of the standard normal distribution (z) when the degrees of freedom are relatively small.
• Statement II : For a given level of significance (a), the critical value of student's t decreases as the sample size increases, approaching the critical value of the standard normal distribution (z) as n becomes very large.

• The level of significance is the fixed probability of wrong elimination of null hypothesis when it is true. It defines whether the null hypothesis assumed is to be accepted or rejected.
• Critical value is defined as a value that is compared to a test statistic in hypothesis testing to determine whether the null hypothesis is to be rejected or not. The critical value for a one tailed or two tailed test can be calculated using the confidence interval.
• A t- test is used when the population standard deviation is not known and the sample size is less than 30.
• A z-test is used when the population standard deviation is known and the sample size is greater than or equal to 30.

Q40: ‘Which one of the following is the allowable deduction as per the Income Tax Act, 1961 in respect of entertainment allowance paid to a government employee? 

(a) Lower of one-fourth of basic salary or Rs. 5000 or entertainment allowance received.

(b) Lower of one-fifth of basic salary or Rs. 5000 or entertainment allowance received

(c) Lower of one-fifth of salary or Rs. 5000 or entertainment allowance received.

(d) Lower of one-fourth of salary or Rs. 5000 or entertainment allowance received.

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is Lower of one-fifth of basic salary or Rs. 5000 or entertainment allowance received. 

• Entertainment allowance is taxable for both government and private sector employees. However, only the government employees are eligible for entertainment allowance deduction.
• Under Section 16(ii) of the Income Tax Act,1961, the amount of deduction allowed to the government employee for the entertainment allowance shall be lower of the following:

Deduction is only allowed to Central or State government employees. Non government employees, employees of local authorities or statutory corporation are not eligible for deduction.

Illustration for calculation of deduction allowed for entertainment allowance :

Important Points

• Entertainment allowance refers to the allowance provided by employers to employees for hosting entertainment events, meals, drinks or other similar activities related to business arrangements.
• The entertainment allowance is a taxable allowance. It is added to the gross salary of the taxpayer.
• The amount actually spent towards entertainment allowance is irrelevant for claiming deduction.

Q41: Match List - I with List - II.

​
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

(a) A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV

(b) A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III

(c) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

(d) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is A- I, B - IV, C- II, D- III. 

• Under Section 54 B, Capital gain exemptions are available to those individuals who reinvest their sale proceeds from their agricultural land into a new agricultural land. The capital gain exemption is limited to the amount of capital gain or the investment made, whichever is lower. Only individuals/ HUF who are Indian residents who sell agricultural land situated in an urban area can avail the benefits.
• Section 54 of the Income Tax Act, 1961 allows exemptions to those individuals who have earned Long term Capital Gain from the sale of a residential property and such proceeds must be invested in purchasing or constructing a residential house. The amount of exemption is lower of the amount of capital gain earned or the amount invested in the new residential property.
• Under Section 54 EC of the Income Tax Act exemptions are allowed to those individuals who have earned long term capital gain from the sale of an immovable asset ( land or building). The maximum amount of exemption allowed under this section is limited to Rs. 50 lakh per year and in subsequent financial years altogether.
• Section 54 D allows exemptions to those individuals who have earned capital gain on compulsory acquisition made by the government of Land and building forming part of an industrial undertaking. The sale proceeds should be utilised to purchase or construct any other land or building within 3 years from the date of transfer. The amount of exemption is limited to the capital gain on compulsory acquisition of land or building, or the amount of investment in purchasing new land or building.

Q42: Honeywell Inc's move from a hierarchical management structure to a much flatter and team-based structure is a good description of which one of the following? 

(a) Centralisation

(b) Decentralisation

(c) Span of control

(d) Work specialization

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is Decentralisation.

• Honeywell Inc's move from a hierarchical management structure to a much flatter and team based structure reflects a decentralised strategy.
• In a hierarchical management structural, decision making authority flows from top level to lower level employees. However, in a decentralised structure decision making is transferred and distributed away from centralised authority to middle and lower levels of management.
• In a Hierarchical management structure, responsibility belongs to a small group of higher level executives whereas in a decentralised form of organization, managers and employees share responsibility.
• Centralised organizations who follow hierarchical structure have less flexibility and limited employee engagement whereas there is more flexibility and agility in decentralised organizations due to better communication and collaboration among employees

Important Points 

• Decentralisation increases the participation of people at different levels of the organization.
• It creates confidence amongst subordinates and improves transparency and efficiency.
• It lessons the burden of top management and propagates competition among various departments , thus resulting in increased efficiency and productivity.

Q43: Which one of the following is invalid for the relationship among the agent, the sub-agent and the principal? 

(a) Sub-agent works under the control and on the directions of the agent

(b) Sub-agent is responsible to the agent only

(c) Privity of contract exists between the principal and the sub-agent

(d) Agent is responsible to the principal for the acts of the sub-agent

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is Privity of contract exists between the principal and the sub-agent  

Other Related Points

• The statement "Privity of contract exists between the principal and the sub-agent" is invalid because, typically, the sub-agent is appointed by the agent and works under the agent's direction.
• There is no direct contract between the principal and the sub-agent. The principal's contract is with the agent, and the agent's contract is with the sub-agent.
• This means the privity of contract exists between the principal and the agent, and separately, between the agent and the sub-agent. There is no direct legal contract between the principal and the sub-agent.

Q44: Arrange the following group member's behavior outcomes in a sequence as per the successive stages of group building process. 

A. Eager, Anxious, Gather data about similarities and differences among members and keep things simple

B. Upset and Depressed

C. Less dissatisfied and a feeling of belongings to the group

D. Confront the differences, feel angry or frustrated, lot of competition and hostilities.

E. Inter dependence in personal relations, tendency to get involved in and problem solving

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(a) A, D, C, E, B

(b) A, B, C, D, E

(c) E, C, D, B, A

(d) B, C, E, A, D

Ans: A

Sol: The correct solution is A, D, C, E, B. 

• As per the Tuckman's Team and group development model, The behaviour of members of the group can be explained through different stages, namely, forming, storming, norming, performing and adjourning.
• Forming: At this stage, group members are new to the group and unsure of the team's purpose. They are eager an anxious and try to gather data about the similarities and differences among the members. Individuals role and responsibilities are not clear.
• Storming : At this stage conflicts and disagreements arise between the group members as their opinions and preferred ways of working surface and clash with other member's opinions. The focus shifts from tasks at hand to feelings of anger and frustration at the team's progress.
• Norming : Dusking this stage, the members generate a feeling of belongingness to the group. Team members resolve the differences and feel an increasing acceptance of others on the team. The members focus on the team's goals.
• Performing: At this stage members are interdependent in personal relations and feel attached to the team. The team members are able to solve problems in the team's process. Moreover, commitment to the mission of the team is high.
• Adjourning : At this stage, members are disheartened and have feelings of sadness or depression because the group dissolves and the members separate after the conclusion of their work together.

Q45: Mr. X is holding equity shares of ABC Ltd with voting power of 26 per cent. Mrs. X is working in ABC Ltd at a salary of Rs. 20,000 p.m. The other income of Mr. X and Mrs. X are Rs. 6,00,000 and Rs. 3,00,000, respectively. The gross total income of Mr. X and Mrs. X are _______ respectively for the Assessment Year 2023-24.

(a) Rs. 6,00,000 and Rs. 5,40,000

(b) Rs. 7,90,000 and Rs. 3,00,000

(c) Rs. 6,00,000 and Rs. 4,90,000

(d) Rs. 8,40,000 and Rs. 3,00,000

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is Rs. 7,90,000 and Rs. 3,00,000.

• Section 64(1)(ii) of income tax act 1961 related to the clubbing of income explain:
• If your spouse receives any remuneration irrespective of its nomenclature, such as Salary, commission, fees or any other form and by any mode, i.e., cash or in kind from any concern in which you have substantial interest then income shall be clubbed in the hands of the taxpayer or spouse, whose income is greater (before clubbing). 
• An exception to clubbing: Clubbing is not allowable if spouse possesses technical or professional qualifications in relation to any income arising to the spouse, and such income is solely attributable to the application of his/her technical or professional knowledge and experience.

According to the given information the income of the Mr. X will be as:

Income from other sources = Rs. 6,00,000

Add income of Mrs. X from salary = Rs. 2,40,000

 Total  Rs. 8,40,000 

Less Standard Deduction of salary  Rs. 50,000

 Mr. X salary   Rs. 7,90,000

Now calculate Mrs. X income that will be:

Income from other sources  =  Rs. 3,00,000

 Other Related Points

Section 16 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 allows for deductions from your salary income, which reduces your taxable income and in turn lowers your tax burden.

Section 16 offers three types of deductions:

1. Standard Deduction (Section 16(ia)): Employees in India are eligible for a standard deduction. This deduction is either Rs. 50,000 or their total salary, whichever amount is lower. It is a flat deduction that you can deduct from your salary. It is Rs. 50,000 for a financial year, so it does not depend on the number of jobs the employee changes during the year.
2. Entertainment Allowance (Section 16(ii)): Entertainment allowance received by an employee is fully taxable and is initially included in the salary.
3. Professional Tax (Section 16(iii)): Professional tax, a levy by your state government, can be deducted from your taxable income. 

Q46: Which one of the following committees has suggested the establishment of NBFCs' regulatory framework? 

(a) Raj Study Group (1975)

(b) Chakkravarty Committee (1985)

(c) Vaghul Committee (1987)

(d) Shah Committee (1992)

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is Shah Committee (1992).

• The Shah Committee, established in 1992, was instrumental in suggesting the regulatory framework for Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India.

• Objective: The primary objective of the Shah Committee was to review the existing regulatory framework for NBFCs and recommend necessary changes to enhance the regulation of these financial entities.

• Background: Before the Shah Committee's recommendations, NBFCs operated with relatively less stringent regulatory oversight compared to banks. This led to concerns about the financial stability and integrity of the NBFC sector.

Recommendations:

• The Shah Committee recommended a more structured regulatory framework for NBFCs to ensure their operations are transparent and financially sound.
• It suggested that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) should have greater authority over NBFCs, including the power to audit, inspect, and impose penalties.
• The committee emphasized the need for NBFCs to maintain a certain level of capital adequacy and liquidity to mitigate risks.

Impact: Following the Shah Committee's recommendations, the RBI implemented a series of regulations that significantly shaped the NBFC sector. These included requirements for registration with the RBI, adherence to specific capital and liquidity norms, and regular reporting of financial activities.

Long-term Effects: The changes brought about by the Shah Committee have led to a more robust and resilient NBFC sector, contributing to the overall stability of India's financial system. It also paved the way for further refinements in NBFC regulations over the years.

Q47: Which one of the following concepts measures the amount of capital that the firm can give up by using one additional unit of labour and still remain on the same isoquant? 

(a) Diminishing Marginal Rate of Substitution

(b) Economic Trade-off Region

(c) Diminishing Marginal Rate of Technical Substitution

(d) Diminishing Marginal Utility

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is Diminishing Marginal Rate of Technical Substitution.

• The Marginal Rate of technical substitution measures the rate at which factors of production can be substituted without any change in the unit of output.
• The MRTS determines the amount of capital that can be giving up by using one additional unit of labour while remaining on the same isoquant ( maintaining the constant level of output).
• When the MRTS diminishes, the firm will have to give up more amounts of capital to acquire additional units of labour input.
• MRTS diminishes over time due to the scarcity of factor of production or due to the imperfect substitution of factors of production.
• MRTS can be represented by a ratio of the marginal products of the inputs in that basket.

Other Related Points

•  Marginal rate of substitution refers to the rate at which a consumer is wiling to forego one good in exchange for additional units of another good while maintaining the same level of utility.
• Diminishing marginal Utility: It refers to decrease in marginal utility of a good after consuming one more additional unit of that good. Each additional unit provides less satisfaction than the previous one.

Q48: Emotional appeal is one of the types of advertising appeals, based on three ideas, namely 

A. Rational appeals generally go unnoticed

B. Consumers watch all ads

C. It can capture attention and foster an attachment

D. Consumers ignore most ads

E. Rational appeal generally gets noticed

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(a) C, E, and D Only

(b) C, E and B Only

(c) C, A and D Only

(d) C, A and B Only

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is C, A and D Only.

•  Emotional appeal is based on the premise that it can capture the attention and foster an attachment by evoking strong emotional feelings. It focuses on sentiments such as love, happiness, joy, nostalgia or comfort. There develops a connection between the consumer and the product or service which in turn influences the buying decision of the consumer and builds loyalty towards the product brand.
• Rational appeals generally go unnoticed. The rational advertisements focus on logical arguments rather than eliciting emotional responses from the customers. It emphasises on features of a product, convenience, durability, efficiency and performance. Rational appeals fail to create a bond with the consumer on a deeper level and product and thus does not appeal to the consumer in a persuasive manner.
• Emotional appeals are based on the idea that consumers ignore most ads. Consumers come across a huge number of advertisements on a daily basis so, it is necessary to appeal to the consumers emotionally so that the advertisement can stand out and leave long lasting impressions on the consumers mind.
• The idea that consumers watch all ads does not fully define the consumer's behaviour. A consumer is more likely to watch an ad that resonates with them personally. Understanding the complexity and diversity of consumer's behaviour is necessary to develop effective emotional appeals.
• Emotional appeals are not based on the idea that rational ads generally get noticed. Rational ads do not capture the attention of the consumer and thus fail to create a connection with the customer which results in the rational ads going unnoticed later.

Q49: Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow: 

For most of its existence as a modern field of study since the 18th century, economics has fared reasonably well at explaining consumer and producer behavior. It explained why buyers choose the products they do, how firms produce them to maximize profit, and how markets discover the most efficient prices. This changed with the Great Depression, when aggregate variables came into play that needed a better understanding than an assumption that markets return to equilibrium after shocks. Thus came into existence macroeconomics, the most dismal aspect of the dismal science. Economics has since diversified into quite a few other branches, such as those employing statistics and psychology, but most of its disrepute originates from its failure to predict financial crises.

"Macro' by its very nature - dealing with GDP, employment, inflation and other important but soporific matters and parameters - is headline- grabbing stuff. Governments come into play here, as do international relations. Yet, macro eludes the scientific method of testing hypotheses with repeated experiments: one can't conceivably wreck an economy to establish the effects of a shock. Instead, macroeconomists can only back-test their models against data that may be of questionable provenance. This makes prediction of the next stock market crash forever embarrassingly less exact than the return of Halley's Comet

Microeconomics, the reputable part of the endeavor, suffers from fewer limitations to controlled parameter experiments and delivers less equivocal insights. The explosion of commerce in the modern world owes itself in no small measure to predicting actions by the smallest economic agents: humans. Here, too, heroic assumptions are made, the foremost being that human beings are rational and information is free. The crisis in economic modelling arises from aggregating billions of micro truths into one macro truth. Models are improving, so are quantitative capabilities, and the qualitative judgements that drive macro policy will become more refined.

Match List - I with List - II.

 Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

(a) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

(b) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV

(c) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

(d) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

Ans: D

Sol: 

• Economics has explained how markets discover most efficient prices. The markets discover most efficient prices by an interplay of demand and supply factors, competition, information and arbitrage. Economics also defines consumer's behaviour towards products and producer's behaviour towards profit maximisation.
• The learning of Great Depression was to understand the aggregate variables in a better way. Before the Great Depression, it was assumed that markets return to equilibrium after shocks. However, the Great Depression highlighted the limitations of this assumption. Aggregate variables include prices, employment and levels of output are influenced by a number of factors and need a better understanding. The assumption that markets return to equilibrium is based on the fact that markets are simple. However, markets are complex and diversified and a deeper study of the aggregate variables is necessary. Thus, the concept of Macroeconomics was introduced to understand the complex behaviour of the variables.
• The macro economic variables include GDP, Employment and Inflation. These variables represent the overall performance of an economy. GDP refers to the sum total of all the goods and services produced in an economy during a specific period. Inflation is the general increase in price of goods or services over a period of time. Employment represents the proportion of population that is employed.
• Micro economics assumes that human beings are rational and information is free. However, human beings are influenced by various factors such as emotions , incomplete information. It is assumed that information is freely available to humans but not all market participants have access to similar information. Information is often asymmetric which can lead to market inefficiencies or market failure.

Q50: Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow: 

For most of its existence as a modern field of study since the 18th century, economics has fared reasonably well at explaining consumer and producer behavior. It explained why buyers choose the products they do, how firms produce them to maximize profit, and how markets discover the most efficient prices. This changed with the Great Depression, when aggregate variables came into play that needed a better understanding than an assumption that markets return to equilibrium after shocks. Thus came into existence macroeconomics, the most dismal aspect of the dismal science. Economics has since diversified into quite a few other branches, such as those employing statistics and psychology, but most of its disrepute originates from its failure to predict financial crises.

"Macro' by its very nature - dealing with GDP, employment, inflation and other important but soporific matters and parameters - is headline- grabbing stuff. Governments come into play here, as do international relations. Yet, macro eludes the scientific method of testing hypotheses with repeated experiments: one can't conceivably wreck an economy to establish the effects of a shock. Instead, macroeconomists can only back-test their models against data that may be of questionable provenance. This makes prediction of the next stock market crash forever embarrassingly less exact than the return of Halley's Comet

Microeconomics, the reputable part of the endeavor, suffers from fewer limitations to controlled parameter experiments and delivers less equivocal insights. The explosion of commerce in the modern world owes itself in no small measure to predicting actions by the smallest economic agents: humans. Here, too, heroic assumptions are made, the foremost being that human beings are rational and information is free. The crisis in economic modelling arises from aggregating billions of micro truths into one macro truth. Models are improving, so are quantitative capabilities, and the qualitative judgements that drive macro policy will become more refined.

Which of the following is the reason, as per the passage, for driving more effective macro policies? 

(a) Assumption that markets return to equilibrium after shocks

(b) Improved economic models are capable to understand qualitative and quantitative factors

(c) Economics has fared reasonably well during financial crises

(d) Every small measure is not capable to predict economic outcomes

Ans: B

Sol: 

• Improved economic models which are capable to understand qualitative and quantitative factors drive effective macro policies that are more refined. The quantitative capabilities and the qualitative judgements have advanced which means that policy makers have access to better and improved tools for shaping macroeconomic policy.
• New and improved economic models used by policymakers help to analyse the behaviour of macroeconomic variables such as inflation, GDP and employment.
• Economic models have evolved to incorporate qualitative factors such as consumer sentiment, investor confidence which can drive better macro policies.
• The quantitative factors such as inflation rate, interest rate, balance of payments, unemployment rate are now analysed by economic models for better formulation of policies.

Q51: Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow: 

For most of its existence as a modern field of study since the 18th century, economics has fared reasonably well at explaining consumer and producer behavior. It explained why buyers choose the products they do, how firms produce them to maximize profit, and how markets discover the most efficient prices. This changed with the Great Depression, when aggregate variables came into play that needed a better understanding than an assumption that markets return to equilibrium after shocks. Thus came into existence macroeconomics, the most dismal aspect of the dismal science. Economics has since diversified into quite a few other branches, such as those employing statistics and psychology, but most of its disrepute originates from its failure to predict financial crises.

"Macro' by its very nature - dealing with GDP, employment, inflation and other important but soporific matters and parameters - is headline- grabbing stuff. Governments come into play here, as do international relations. Yet, macro eludes the scientific method of testing hypotheses with repeated experiments: one can't conceivably wreck an economy to establish the effects of a shock. Instead, macroeconomists can only back-test their models against data that may be of questionable provenance. This makes prediction of the next stock market crash forever embarrassingly less exact than the return of Halley's Comet

Microeconomics, the reputable part of the endeavor, suffers from fewer limitations to controlled parameter experiments and delivers less equivocal insights. The explosion of commerce in the modern world owes itself in no small measure to predicting actions by the smallest economic agents: humans. Here, too, heroic assumptions are made, the foremost being that human beings are rational and information is free. The crisis in economic modelling arises from aggregating billions of micro truths into one macro truth. Models are improving, so are quantitative capabilities, and the qualitative judgements that drive macro policy will become more refined.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Macroeconomists can only back-test their models against data that may be of questionable provenance.

Statement II: Macroeconomic variables elude the scientific method of testing hypotheses with repeated experiments.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is Both Statement I and II are true. 

• Statement I: Macroeconomists can only back test their models against data that may be of questionable provenance. When the economic data is not reliable, uncertain, inaccurate or incomplete, the macroeconomists can only apply their models to historical data to determine its accuracy.
• Statement II: Macroeconomic variables elude the scientific method of testing hypothesis with repeated experiments. Macroeconomics is influenced by a number of variables which makes it challenging to observe their effects through experiments. Macroeconomics is limited in its ability to use scientific method of testing hypothesis, instead macroeconomics uses historical data to understand past events and predict economic patterns.

• Macroeconomics is the branch of economics that focuses on behaviour, structure and performance of the entire economy. It deals with how an economy functions on a large scale.
• Macroeconomic variables consist of GDP, balance of payments, Inflation, economic growth and employment.
• Macroeconomic variables are indicators of the trends in the economy and play a vital role in the performance of an economy.

Q52: Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow: 

For most of its existence as a modern field of study since the 18th century, economics has fared reasonably well at explaining consumer and producer behavior. It explained why buyers choose the products they do, how firms produce them to maximize profit, and how markets discover the most efficient prices. This changed with the Great Depression, when aggregate variables came into play that needed a better understanding than an assumption that markets return to equilibrium after shocks. Thus came into existence macroeconomics, the most dismal aspect of the dismal science. Economics has since diversified into quite a few other branches, such as those employing statistics and psychology, but most of its disrepute originates from its failure to predict financial crises.

"Macro' by its very nature - dealing with GDP, employment, inflation and other important but soporific matters and parameters - is headline- grabbing stuff. Governments come into play here, as do international relations. Yet, macro eludes the scientific method of testing hypotheses with repeated experiments: one can't conceivably wreck an economy to establish the effects of a shock. Instead, macroeconomists can only back-test their models against data that may be of questionable provenance. This makes prediction of the next stock market crash forever embarrassingly less exact than the return of Halley's Comet

Microeconomics, the reputable part of the endeavor, suffers from fewer limitations to controlled parameter experiments and delivers less equivocal insights. The explosion of commerce in the modern world owes itself in no small measure to predicting actions by the smallest economic agents: humans. Here, too, heroic assumptions are made, the foremost being that human beings are rational and information is free. The crisis in economic modelling arises from aggregating billions of micro truths into one macro truth. Models are improving, so are quantitative capabilities, and the qualitative judgements that drive macro policy will become more refined.

Which of the following, as per the passage, are the major contribution of economics?

A. Buyers behavior towards the products

B. Firm's behaviors for maximising profit

C. Retailers behavior to maximize sale

D. Market behavior to the most efficient prices

E. Stakeholder's behaviors to maximise wealth

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B and D Only

(b) A, B and C Only

(c) B, D and E Only

(d) A, B and E Only

Ans: A

Sol: 

• Economics has made contribution in buyers behaviour towards the products. It has explained why buyers choose the products they do
• Economics has explained firm's behaviour for maximising profit. Economics has explained how firms produce the products choose by the buyers to maximise their profit.
• Economics has also explained market behaviour to the most efficient prices. The discovery of most efficient prices by the markets is explained by economics.
• The passage has not stated the contribution of economics in explaining retailers' behavior to maximise sale or stakeholder's behaviours to maximise wealth.

• The buyers or consumer's behaviour is affected by multiple factors including buyer's willingness or ability tp pay, his tastes and preferences, the price of the good and of the competing and complementary goods, advertising and other factors. Economics has explained which factors affect consumers buying behaviour and how do these factors affect the choice and buying decision of the consumer.
• The economic theory explores how firms interact with the market and how they make decisions that impact their profitability and sustainability. The objective of a firm is to maximise profit by maximising sales or cutting down costs. The firm's behaviour is influenced by various factors such as market conditions, competition, government policies, technological advancements and social & cultural changes.
• The markets discover most efficient prices by an interplay of various forces such as supply and demand, competition , information and arbitrage. Prices are determined by the equilibrium point where the demand for a product equals quantity supplied.

Q53: Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow: 

For most of its existence as a modern field of study since the 18th century, economics has fared reasonably well at explaining consumer and producer behavior. It explained why buyers choose the products they do, how firms produce them to maximize profit, and how markets discover the most efficient prices. This changed with the Great Depression, when aggregate variables came into play that needed a better understanding than an assumption that markets return to equilibrium after shocks. Thus came into existence macroeconomics, the most dismal aspect of the dismal science. Economics has since diversified into quite a few other branches, such as those employing statistics and psychology, but most of its disrepute originates from its failure to predict financial crises.

"Macro' by its very nature - dealing with GDP, employment, inflation and other important but soporific matters and parameters - is headline- grabbing stuff. Governments come into play here, as do international relations. Yet, macro eludes the scientific method of testing hypotheses with repeated experiments: one can't conceivably wreck an economy to establish the effects of a shock. Instead, macroeconomists can only back-test their models against data that may be of questionable provenance. This makes prediction of the next stock market crash forever embarrassingly less exact than the return of Halley's Comet

Microeconomics, the reputable part of the endeavor, suffers from fewer limitations to controlled parameter experiments and delivers less equivocal insights. The explosion of commerce in the modern world owes itself in no small measure to predicting actions by the smallest economic agents: humans. Here, too, heroic assumptions are made, the foremost being that human beings are rational and information is free. The crisis in economic modelling arises from aggregating billions of micro truths into one macro truth. Models are improving, so are quantitative capabilities, and the qualitative judgements that drive macro policy will become more refined.

Which one of the following is the reason, as per the given passage, for crises in economic modelling? 

(a) Aggregating billions of micro truths into one macro truth

(b) Only equalization factors are considered in economic models

(c) Economic activities are not sufficient to study the macro environment

(d) Human beings behave irrationally

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is Aggregating billions of micro truths into one macro truth. 

• Economics tries to predict economic outcomes by aggregating billions of micro truths, i.e.behaviour of the individual agents into one macro truth, i.e. overall behaviour of the economy as a whole.
• The crisis or challenges in economic modelling arises when these micro truth or the behaviour of individual agents is aggregated into a single macro truth. The challenges can occur due to the challenges in obtaining accurate data of the individual agents, relying on false assumptions about individual behaviour which can lead to uncertainties when aggregating data to the macro level.

Q54: Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow. 

Over $350 billion of private capital has been deployed over the last decade, which has propelled more than 5,000 enterprises. These new businesses are anchored in innovative business models combining the full potential of technology, facilitating every Indian to fulfil their aspirations.

The big shift in the last decade is the reimagination of India as an addressable market of 300 million households, a massive shift from only 20 million households in tier-1 cities earlier. This has been propelled by the strong partnership between entrepreneurs and the PE/VC ecosystem. The share of FDI funnelled into PE/VC has surged to 50-60%, up from 20-30% two decades back.

Besides the tremendous focus on value creation, the PE/VC industry has brought about multidimensional progress in the economy. The principals of responsible investing that this industry is committed to have enabled the building of a more equitable, inclusive economy, and one that has earned the trust of large global investors as an attractive investment destination.

The PE/VC ecosystem sparked a renaissance, empowering young minds to take a bold leap. This led to a change in mindset where entrepreneurship is now an accepted livelihood and, indeed, a proud way of life. Today, startups and new businesses are celebrated, and many are giving up established careers to follow their heart, with families standing as stalwart supporters of entrepreneurship. The proportionality of risk and reward has been embraced, forging a harmonious relationship between uncertainty and achievement.

Stories at home and those that went global are a testament to the power of partnerships between the capital provider and entrepreneurs, transforming a large democracy to be self-reliant, and elevating over a billion people to a new world of greater aspirations and confidence.

This revolution has been largely possible because of Gol's thrust towards attracting capital. The frameworks of alternative investment funds (AIFs), GIFT City IFSC, Startup India programme and budget allocations, coupled with progressive amendments such as GST and India Stack, have made India an attractive destination for investment.

Which of following, according to the passage, have made India an attractive destination for investments?

A. Startup India program

B. Make in India program

C. Goods and Services Tax facilitation

D. Alternative Investment funds

E. Standup India program

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B and C Only

(b) A, C and D Only

(c) A, D and E Only

(d) C, D and E Only

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is A, C and D only. 

• According to the passage, the frameworks of Startup India program, Goods and Service Tax facilitation and Alternative Investment funds have made India an attractive destination for investments.
• Startup India programme has enhanced India's attractiveness as an investment destination by reducing the bureaucratic hurdles, providing credit support, providing a host of tax benefits, creating a credit guarantee fund for startups.
• Goods and Service Tax framework has simplified the tax structure by eliminating differing tax rates and regulations, thereby fostering the ease of business and investment in the country. It has also promoted efficiency in supply chains and provide a conducive business environment.
• Alternative investment funds comprising of venture capital fund, angel funds, infrastructure funds , social venture funds and private equity funds offer investors a diversified range of investment opportunities with a potential to generate high returns.

Q55: Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow. 

Over $350 billion of private capital has been deployed over the last decade, which has propelled more than 5,000 enterprises. These new businesses are anchored in innovative business models combining the full potential of technology, facilitating every Indian to fulfil their aspirations.

The big shift in the last decade is the reimagination of India as an addressable market of 300 million households, a massive shift from only 20 million households in tier-1 cities earlier. This has been propelled by the strong partnership between entrepreneurs and the PE/VC ecosystem. The share of FDI funnelled into PE/VC has surged to 50-60%, up from 20-30% two decades back.

Besides the tremendous focus on value creation, the PE/VC industry has brought about multidimensional progress in the economy. The principals of responsible investing that this industry is committed to have enabled the building of a more equitable, inclusive economy, and one that has earned the trust of large global investors as an attractive investment destination.

The PE/VC ecosystem sparked a renaissance, empowering young minds to take a bold leap. This led to a change in mindset where entrepreneurship is now an accepted livelihood and, indeed, a proud way of life. Today, startups and new businesses are celebrated, and many are giving up established careers to follow their heart, with families standing as stalwart supporters of entrepreneurship. The proportionality of risk and reward has been embraced, forging a harmonious relationship between uncertainty and achievement.

Stories at home and those that went global are a testament to the power of partnerships between the capital provider and entrepreneurs, transforming a large democracy to be self-reliant, and elevating over a billion people to a new world of greater aspirations and confidence.

This revolution has been largely possible because of Gol's thrust towards attracting capital. The frameworks of alternative investment funds (AIFs), GIFT City IFSC, Startup India programme and budget allocations, coupled with progressive amendments such as GST and India Stack, have made India an attractive destination for investment.

In the recent years, the focus of private equity and venture capital in India, has been on 

(a) Self-reliance

(b) Job creation

(c) Inclusive growth

(d) Value creation

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is Value creation. 

• According to the passage , the private equity and venture capital has focussed on value creation in the recent years which has brought about multidimensional progress in the economy.
• There is a strong partnership between entrepreneurship and PE/VC ecosystem. PE and VC work with the companies in which they invest to improve processes, streamline operations and increase the profitability and financial performance of a company.
• PE and VC firms provide capital to support the expansion and growth of their portfolio companies which has enabled the firms to enter new markets and create long term value for all stakeholders.
• The venture capitalists in India have focused on scaling the operations of portfolio companies and has worked with the companies to help them penetrate international markets.

Q56: Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow. 

Over $350 billion of private capital has been deployed over the last decade, which has propelled more than 5,000 enterprises. These new businesses are anchored in innovative business models combining the full potential of technology, facilitating every Indian to fulfil their aspirations.

The big shift in the last decade is the reimagination of India as an addressable market of 300 million households, a massive shift from only 20 million households in tier-1 cities earlier. This has been propelled by the strong partnership between entrepreneurs and the PE/VC ecosystem. The share of FDI funnelled into PE/VC has surged to 50-60%, up from 20-30% two decades back.

Besides the tremendous focus on value creation, the PE/VC industry has brought about multidimensional progress in the economy. The principals of responsible investing that this industry is committed to have enabled the building of a more equitable, inclusive economy, and one that has earned the trust of large global investors as an attractive investment destination.

The PE/VC ecosystem sparked a renaissance, empowering young minds to take a bold leap. This led to a change in mindset where entrepreneurship is now an accepted livelihood and, indeed, a proud way of life. Today, startups and new businesses are celebrated, and many are giving up established careers to follow their heart, with families standing as stalwart supporters of entrepreneurship. The proportionality of risk and reward has been embraced, forging a harmonious relationship between uncertainty and achievement.

Stories at home and those that went global are a testament to the power of partnerships between the capital provider and entrepreneurs, transforming a large democracy to be self-reliant, and elevating over a billion people to a new world of greater aspirations and confidence.

This revolution has been largely possible because of Gol's thrust towards attracting capital. The frameworks of alternative investment funds (AIFs), GIFT City IFSC, Startup India programme and budget allocations, coupled with progressive amendments such as GST and India Stack, have made India an attractive destination for investment.

The principals of responsible investing to which private equity and venture capital industry is committed have resulted in which of the following outcomes for the Indian economy?

A. Democratic decentralization

B. Balanced regional growth

C. Inclusive and equitable economy

D. Larger export orientation

E. Earned the trust of global investors

Choose the correct answer form the options given below:

(a) B and C Only

(b) A and D Only

(c) C and E Only

(d) B, C and D Only

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is C and E only. 

• The passage highlights the commitment of private equity and venture capital industry towards principals of responsible investing which has resulted in building of a more inclusive and equitable economy. Moreover, it has also earned the trust of large global investors as an attractive investment destination.
• By integrating the principals of responsible investing into investment practices, the PE/VC industry aims to generate inclusive and equitable economy way by promoting diversity, upholding high standards of governance and operating ethically.
• The global investors prioritise responsible investing because it reduces long term risks and enhances their reputation. Therefore, the responsible investing by private equity and venture capitalists has created a positive, sustainable and trusted investment landscape.
• According to the passage, Democratic decentralisation, balanced regional growth and larger export orientation are not the outcomes of principals of responsible investing to which private equity and venture capitalists have been committed to.

Q57: Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow. 

Over $350 billion of private capital has been deployed over the last decade, which has propelled more than 5,000 enterprises. These new businesses are anchored in innovative business models combining the full potential of technology, facilitating every Indian to fulfil their aspirations.

The big shift in the last decade is the reimagination of India as an addressable market of 300 million households, a massive shift from only 20 million households in tier-1 cities earlier. This has been propelled by the strong partnership between entrepreneurs and the PE/VC ecosystem. The share of FDI funnelled into PE/VC has surged to 50-60%, up from 20-30% two decades back.

Besides the tremendous focus on value creation, the PE/VC industry has brought about multidimensional progress in the economy. The principals of responsible investing that this industry is committed to have enabled the building of a more equitable, inclusive economy, and one that has earned the trust of large global investors as an attractive investment destination.

The PE/VC ecosystem sparked a renaissance, empowering young minds to take a bold leap. This led to a change in mindset where entrepreneurship is now an accepted livelihood and, indeed, a proud way of life. Today, startups and new businesses are celebrated, and many are giving up established careers to follow their heart, with families standing as stalwart supporters of entrepreneurship. The proportionality of risk and reward has been embraced, forging a harmonious relationship between uncertainty and achievement.

Stories at home and those that went global are a testament to the power of partnerships between the capital provider and entrepreneurs, transforming a large democracy to be self-reliant, and elevating over a billion people to a new world of greater aspirations and confidence.

This revolution has been largely possible because of Gol's thrust towards attracting capital. The frameworks of alternative investment funds (AIFs), GIFT City IFSC, Startup India programme and budget allocations, coupled with progressive amendments such as GST and India Stack, have made India an attractive destination for investment.

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: The private equity and venture capital ecosystem has sparked a renaissance, empowering young minds to take a bold leap.

Reason R: Today, startups and new business are celebrated and many are giving up their established careers to follow their heart, with families standing as stalwart supporters.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct  of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct  of A

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is Both A and R are true and R is the correct  of A. 

• Assertion A: The private equity and venture capital ecosystem has sparked a renaissance, empowering young minds to take a bold leap. Private equity and venture capitalists has sparked an interest in the minds of young individuals and changed their mindset where entrepreneurship has become a way of life and livelihood. The PE/VC have provided the young individuals with capital, strategic guidance, thereby enabling them to develop innovative products and scale their business.
• Reason R: The startups and businesses are celebrated and many have giving up their established careers to follow their heart, with families standing as stalwart supporters. This reason is appropriate for the assertion A because the family support along with the funding and guidance of private equity and venture capitalists has empowered the entrepreneurs to follow their dreams.

• Venture capitalists are those investors who invest in start ups or small companies with long term growth potential . This type of investment entails high risk . Venture capital firms assist companies in the initial stages before making it public.
• Private equity is the capital investment made by investors in the private firms that are not part of the stock exchange. These firms invest in existing established companies and help them expand.

Q58: Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow. 

Over $350 billion of private capital has been deployed over the last decade, which has propelled more than 5,000 enterprises. These new businesses are anchored in innovative business models combining the full potential of technology, facilitating every Indian to fulfil their aspirations.

The big shift in the last decade is the reimagination of India as an addressable market of 300 million households, a massive shift from only 20 million households in tier-1 cities earlier. This has been propelled by the strong partnership between entrepreneurs and the PE/VC ecosystem. The share of FDI funnelled into PE/VC has surged to 50-60%, up from 20-30% two decades back.

Besides the tremendous focus on value creation, the PE/VC industry has brought about multidimensional progress in the economy. The principals of responsible investing that this industry is committed to have enabled the building of a more equitable, inclusive economy, and one that has earned the trust of large global investors as an attractive investment destination.

The PE/VC ecosystem sparked a renaissance, empowering young minds to take a bold leap. This led to a change in mindset where entrepreneurship is now an accepted livelihood and, indeed, a proud way of life. Today, startups and new businesses are celebrated, and many are giving up established careers to follow their heart, with families standing as stalwart supporters of entrepreneurship. The proportionality of risk and reward has been embraced, forging a harmonious relationship between uncertainty and achievement.

Stories at home and those that went global are a testament to the power of partnerships between the capital provider and entrepreneurs, transforming a large democracy to be self-reliant, and elevating over a billion people to a new world of greater aspirations and confidence.

This revolution has been largely possible because of Gol's thrust towards attracting capital. The frameworks of alternative investment funds (AIFs), GIFT City IFSC, Startup India programme and budget allocations, coupled with progressive amendments such as GST and India Stack, have made India an attractive destination for investment.

According to the passage, which of the following is now being accepted as a way of life and livelihood? 

(a) PE/VC ecosystem

(b) Risk and uncertainty

(c) Innovation and achievement

(d) Entrepreneurship

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is Entrepreneurship. 

• According to the passage, the PE/VC ecosystem sparked a renaissance, empowering young minds to take a bold leap. This led to a change in mindset where entrepreneurship is now being accepted as a way of life and livelihood. Startups and businesses are celebrated now and families actively support entrepreneurship now.
• Entrepreneurship is the ability to run a business enterprise and create value by growing the business and generating income out of it to support life and livelihood. It involves combining skills, innovation and vision to develop products or services that create demand and value for the target consumers.
• The PE/VC ecosystem has sparked interest in the minds of individuals to pursue their dreams and make a shift towards valuation and risk taking. Private equity and venture capitalists provide capital and expertise to the early stage startups which has pushed the entrepreneurs to be a part of the entrepreneurship sector.
• Startups and businesses are celebrated now as they become the pillars of communities, contributing to the growth of economy.
• Individuals are giving up their established careers to follow their heart and dreams of creating their own enterprise which not only fulfils their financial goals but also aligns its personal passion and goals.
• Families support the idea of entrepreneurship as a way of life by providing them emotional encouragement, financial backing and practical assistance.

Q59: Sequentially arrange the following impacts of the evolving global monetary system on the economies. 

A. Protectionism and nationalism

B. Capital flows driving economic development

C. Increased world trade with limited capital flows

D. Expanded open economies

E. Industrial economies increasingly open and emerging nations open slowly

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(a) B, D, A, C, E

(b) C, A, D, E, B

(c) C, E, D, A, B

(d) E, B, D, A, C

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is C, A, D, E, B.

C. Increased world trade with limited capital flows: This represents the preliminary phase of globalization, where nations began trading with each other more extensively, but restrictions on the movement of capital across borders still existed. This scenario sets up the initial conditions for economic integration on a global scale, focusing on trade rather than investment.

A. Protectionism and nationalism: Following an initial increase in trade, a phase of protectionism and nationalism often emerges. This can be a reaction to the rapid changes and perceived negative impacts of globalization, such as job losses in certain sectors or concerns over national sovereignty. In some historical contexts, after a period of increasing trade, countries have moved towards protecting their own industries and labor markets, which would fit this position in the sequence.

D. Expanded open economies: Overcoming the phase of protectionism, the argument here suggests a broad transition towards more open economies. This might be due to the realization that protectionism can lead to inefficiencies and missed opportunities for growth. As countries learn to manage the challenges of globalization, they shift towards embracing open economic policies, removing trade barriers, and encouraging foreign investment.

E. Industrial economies increasingly open and emerging nations open slowly: This step acknowledges a divergence in the pace at which different economies open up. Industrialized nations might lead the charge in embracing open economies due to their capacity to adapt and compete in a globalized market. Meanwhile, emerging nations might proceed more cautiously, opening their economies slowly due to concerns about economic vulnerability or the challenges of competing with established industrial economies.

B. Capital flows driving economic development: As a culmination of these trends, capital flows become a driving force behind economic development. This stage is marked by a globally integrated financial system where capital moves freely across borders, fueling growth, innovation, and development. It represents a mature phase of the global monetary system, where the economies are not only interconnected through trade but also through significant investment links.

Other Related Points

• Capital Flows: The movement of money for the purpose of investment, trade, or business production.

• Open Economies: An economy where there is international trade activity and the country interacts with other countries' economies.

• Protectionism: The practice of shielding a country's industries from foreign competition by taxing imports.

• Nationalism: The policy of asserting the interests of one's own nation separate from the interests of other nations or the common interests of all nations.

• Global Monetary System: The system and rules that govern the use of money around the world and between countries. It involves exchange rates and the movement of capital.

Q60: Arrange the following steps in the investigation process of combinations by the Competition Commission of India in the correct order. 

A. Call for a report from the Director General

B. Invite any person, affected parties to file written objections

C. Direct the parties of combination to publish details of the combination

D. Call for additional information from the parties of the combination

E. Issue a notice for show-cause to the parties of the combination

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(a) A, B, C, D, E

(b) E, A, C, B, D

(c) B, A, C, D, E

(d) C, A, D, E, B

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is E, A, C, B, D.

E. Issue a notice for show-cause to the parties of the combination: The process begins with the CCI issuing a show-cause notice to the parties involved in a proposed combination. This initial step suggests that the CCI has preliminary concerns or questions about the combination's potential impact on competition. The parties are asked to explain why their proposal should not be subject to a detailed investigation.

A. Call for a report from the Director General: After receiving the parties' response to the show-cause notice, the CCI may still have concerns and decide to investigate further. It calls for a detailed investigation report from the Director General (DG), the investigative arm of the CCI. This report helps the CCI understand the nuances of the combination and its potential effects on the market.

C. Direct the parties of the combination to publish details of the combination: Once the investigation is underway, the CCI may require the parties to publish details of the proposed combination. This step is designed to inform and involve the public and relevant stakeholders, allowing them to assess the combination's potential impacts themselves and possibly bring additional concerns to the CCI's attention.

B. Invite any person, affected parties to file written objections: Following the publication of details concerning the combination, the CCI invites objections or comments from the public, including any affected persons or parties. This inclusive approach allows the CCI to gather a wide array of perspectives and information that could influence its assessment of the combination's competitive impact.

D. Call for additional information from the parties of the combination: Based on the responses from the public and further investigation, the CCI might find it necessary to obtain additional information directly from the parties involved in the combination. This step enables the CCI to clarify any remaining concerns and ensure a thorough evaluation of the combination's implications for market competition.

Q61: In case of anti-competitive activities by a firm, the Competition Commission of India can impose a penalty which shall be not more than 

(a) Five percent of the average turnover/income of the firm of the three preceding financial years.

(b) Ten percent of the average turnover/income of firm of the three preceding financial years

(c) Fifteen percent of the average turnover/income of firm of the three preceding financial years

(d) Five percent of the average turnover/income of firm of the five preceding financial years

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is Ten percent of the average turnover/income of firm of the three preceding financial years.

• According to the Competition Act, 2002, of India, under Section 27, the Competition Commission of India (CCI) is empowered to penalize firms engaging in anti-competitive practices.
• As per the Act, should the CCI find a company to be in violation of the norms, it has the discretionary power to impose a penalty of up to 10% of the average of the firm’s turnover for the last three financial years.
• Therefore, the correct answer to your question would be: Ten percent of the average turnover/income of the firm of the three preceding financial years
• This provision was designed to punish and deter businesses who distort competition and harm consumers and other businesses through their actions.
• It's important to note that the outcome and the exact amount of any penalty will depend on a number of factors, including the nature, duration, and severity of the anti-competitive behavior, as well as the firm’s turnover.

Other Related Points

• The Competition Commission of India (CCI) was established under the Competition Act, 2002, with the primary goal of preventing activities that have an adverse effect on competition in India, ensuring fair and healthy competition in the economic landscape of the country.
• The Act replaced the older Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act (MRTP Act) to better align with the realities of a liberalized economy. It recognizes the role of competition in promoting efficiency, protecting consumer interest, and ensuring freedom of trade in markets in India.
• The Competition Act, 2002, empowers the CCI to:
  • Prohibit anti-competitive agreements, including cartels.
  • Prohibit abuse of dominant position in the market.
  • Regulate combinations (mergers and acquisitions) that cause or are likely to cause an appreciable adverse effect on competition.
• The governing body of the CCI consists of a chairperson and six members appointed by the Government of India. The CCI is also responsible for advocacy and education about competition laws and aims at raising awareness and understanding of the issues involved.
• The Competition Act, 2002, is thus an essential legislative framework in India that aims to promote healthy competition, prevent monopoly and anti-competitive practices, benefit consumers, and ensure freedom of trade.

Q62: Which one of the following instruments is often used to protect the value of a foreign currency denominated transaction? 

(a) Forward contract

(b) Forward swap

(c) Forward hedge

(d) Forward premium

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is Forward contract.

When dealing with foreign currency denominated transactions, businesses are exposed to exchange rate risk (i.e., the value of the currency may change between the time a transaction is agreed and when it is settled).

To protect (hedge) against this risk, one commonly used instrument is:

(a) Forward Contract

• A forward contract is an agreement to buy or sell a specific amount of foreign currency at a predetermined rate on a specified future date.

• It locks in the exchange rate, protecting against unfavorable currency movements.

• It is the most direct and commonly used tool for hedging foreign currency exposure.

Other Options:

• (b) Forward Swap
  Refers to simultaneous buying and selling of a currency at different future dates—not typically used alone to hedge one transaction.

• (c) Forward Hedge
  This is not an instrument—it's a strategy that uses instruments like forward contracts.

• (d) Forward Premium
  This is the difference between forward and spot rate, not an instrument—it just affects the pricing of a forward contract.

​Q63: Arrange the steps in the book building process for public issue of shares in India. 

A. Determine issue price, market clearing price and price discovery

B. Book runner and syndicate members generate awareness, create demand and run the order book

C. Appointment of the merchant banker and syndicate members (SEBI registerd intermediaries) as underwriters

D. Preparation and filing of red herring prospectus with the SEBI for approval

E. Allotment and listing of shares on stock exchange (s)

Chose the correct answer from the option given below:

(a) C, D, B, A, E

(b) D, C, A, B, E

(c) A, B, C, D, E

(d) B, C, D, E, A

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is C, D, B, A, E.

The book building process for the public issue of shares in India generally follows a well-defined sequence.

•           First, a merchant banker and syndicate members need to be appointed as underwriters. This is the team that will manage the issuance of the new shares (C).
• Once the team is in place, the next step is the preparation and filing of the red herring prospectus with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) for approval (D). This document provides details about the planned share issue.
• After receiving approval from SEBI, the next step involves promoting the issue and generating demand for the shares. This is done through 'book running', where the book runner and syndicate members generate awareness, and create and manage demand (B).
• These leads to the next step which is the determination of the issue price or market clearing price, a process known as 'price discovery' (A).
• Finally, once the shares have been priced and the book is closed, the issued shares get allotted and listed on stock exchange(s) (E).
• So, the correct sequence is C, D, B, A, E which matches with option:

Other Related Points

• Issue Price: The price at which a company's shares are initially sold to the public.
• Market Clearing Price: The price of a good or a service at which quantity supplied is equal to quantity demanded.
• Price Discovery: The process by which buyers and sellers determine the price of a security.
• Book Runner: The main underwriter or lead manager in the issuance of new equity, debt, or securities instruments.
• Syndicate Members: A group of investment banks that work together to sell new security offerings to investors.
• Merchant Banker: An individual or a financial institution providing capital to firms, often in exchange for an ownership stake.
• Underwriters: Entities that administer the public issuance and distribution of securities from a corporation.
• Red Herring Prospectus: A preliminary registration statement or prospectus filed by a company with SEBI in anticipation of a public offering.
• Allotment: The process of allocating or distributing a certain number of shares to prospective shareholders.
• Stock Exchange: A market in which securities are bought and sold.

Q64: Which one of the following digital payment systems is developed and managed by the National Payments Corporation of India? 

(a) Paytm

(b) BharatPe

(c) Mastercard

(d)  RuPay

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is RuPay.

• The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is an important body for all retail payment systems in India.
• It aims to allow all Indian residents access to e-payment services.
• It has developed various digital payment systems, one of which is RuPay.
• Paytm is a private firm and does not come under the jurisdiction of the NPCI.
• BharatPe, like Paytm, is a private firm offering digital payment solutions and is not a product of the NPCI.
• Mastercard is a multinational financial services corporation headquartered in the United States, possessing no link to the NPCI.
• RuPay, on the other hand, is a credit card payment system launched by the NPCI. RuPay has been created with the intent to fulfill RBI's vision of establishing a 'domestic, open and multilateral system of payments'.
• Therefore, the correct answer is: RuPay 

Other Related Points

• The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is an umbrella organization for all retail payment systems in India.
• It was established in 2008 by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Indian Banks' Association (IBA) with a vision to create a robust Payment and Settlement Infrastructure in India.
• NPCI has played a pivotal role in revolutionizing the payment systems in India and making them globally recognized.
• It has developed numerous payment systems and products, such as Automated Clearing House (ACH), Immediate Payment Service (IMPS), National Automated Clearing House (NACH), Unified Payments Interface (UPI), and most notably, India's homegrown card network, RuPay.

Q65: Match List - I with List - II.

​
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

(a) A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III

(b) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I

(c) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

(d) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II. 

Q66: _______ is a marketing term for any design to prompt an immediate response or encourage an immediate sale. 

(a) Call for Promotion

(b) Call for Activity

(c) Call to Action

(d) Call to Aspiration

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is Call to Action

• A "call to action" (CTA) is a marketing term used to describe any design element, statement, or message that prompts an immediate response or encourages an immediate sale.
• CTAs are commonly used in advertising, sales materials, websites, and other marketing communications to guide the audience towards taking a specific action, such as making a purchase, signing up for a newsletter, or requesting more information.
• CTAs are typically concise and directive, using clear language and compelling visuals to encourage the desired response.
• They often include action verbs that convey a sense of urgency or importance, such as "Buy Now," "Subscribe Today," or "Learn More."
• Additionally, CTAs may be accompanied by persuasive elements such as limited-time offers, special discounts, or freebies to incentivize the audience to act quickly.
• The effectiveness of a call to action depends on several factors, including its placement, visibility, relevance to the audience, and alignment with the overall marketing objectives.
• A well-crafted CTA can significantly improve conversion rates and drive desired outcomes for businesses by guiding potential customers through the sales funnel and facilitating engagement and interaction with the brand.

Other Related Points

• A "call to action" is a crucial component of marketing strategy, serving as a powerful tool to motivate audiences to take immediate and specific actions that contribute to achieving marketing goals and driving business success.

Q67: Which of the following are constituents of the trilemma of international finance? 

A. Fixed exchange rate

B. Independent monetary policy

C. Free mobility of capital

D. Global recessionary tendency

E. Rising inflationary conditions

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B and C Only

(b) C, D and E Only

(c) B, C and E Only

(d) A, C and D Only

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is A, B, and C Only

• The trilemma of international finance, also known as the impossible trinity, is a concept in economics that suggests it is impossible for a country to simultaneously achieve all three of the following objectives in its monetary policy: (A), an independent monetary policy (B)., and free capital movement (C).
• Fixed exchange rate: This refers to a situation where a country's currency is pegged to the value of another currency or a basket of currencies, and the exchange rate remains constant. This is often desired for stability in international trade and investment.
• Independent monetary policy: This means that a country's central bank has the ability to control its monetary policy, including interest rates and money supply, without being constrained by external factors. Independent monetary policy is crucial for addressing domestic economic conditions such as inflation, unemployment, and economic growth.
• Free mobility of capital: This implies that capital can flow in and out of a country's economy without significant restrictions, such as capital controls or barriers to investment. Free mobility of capital facilitates international investment, diversification of portfolios, and efficient allocation of resources across borders.

Other Related Points

• If a country chooses to have a fixed exchange rate and free mobility of capital, it would have to give up independent monetary policy. This is because capital mobility can put pressure on the exchange rate, forcing the central bank to adjust its monetary policy to maintain the fixed exchange rate.
• If a country prioritizes independent monetary policy and free mobility of capital, it would have to allow its exchange rate to float, meaning it cannot maintain a fixed exchange rate.
• Alternatively, if a country decides to have a fixed exchange rate and independent monetary policy, it would have to impose restrictions on capital flows to prevent speculative attacks on its currency. This would violate the principal of free mobility of capital.

Q68: Every seller who receives an amount exceeding ______ as consideration for sale of a motor vehicle, shall collect tax @ 1% of the sale consideration from the buyer at the time of receipt of such an amount 

(a) Rs. 25 lakhs

(b) Rs. 15 lakhs

(c) Rs. 10 lakhs

(d) Rs. 50 lakhs

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is Rs. 10 lakhs

• Section 206C(1F) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, mandates the collection of tax at source (TCS) by the seller of a motor vehicle when the value of the motor vehicle exceeds INR 10 lakhs.
• This provision applies to any person who is responsible for selling a motor vehicle. It is important to note that the obligation to collect tax at source falls on the seller.
• The requirement to collect tax at source is triggered when the value of the motor vehicle being sold exceeds INR 10 lakhs. If the sale consideration is INR 10 lakhs or less, there is no requirement to collect tax at source under this provision.
• The tax rate applicable for the purpose of TCS under Section 206C(1F) is 1% of the sale consideration. This means that the seller is required to collect 1% of the total sale consideration from the buyer as tax.
• The tax shall be collected at the time of receipt of the sale consideration from the buyer. This implies that the seller must ensure that the tax is collected from the buyer when the payment for the motor vehicle is received.

Other Related Points

• It is the responsibility of the seller to collect the tax at source and remit it to the government within the stipulated time frame.
• The seller should ensure compliance with the provisions of Section 206C(1F) to avoid any penalties or consequences for non-compliance.

Q69: In International Commercial Terms (INCOTERMES), identify the one, under which the delivery of goods to the named place of destination (discharge) takes place at the seller's expense. Buyers assumes the cargo insurance, import custom clearance, payment of custom duties, taxes and other costs and risk, 

(a) Carriage and Insurance Paid To (CIP)

(b) Cost, Insurance and Freight (CIF)

(c) Carriage Paid To (CPT)

(d) Cost and Freight (CFR)

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is Carriage Paid To (CPT) 

• Carriage and Insurance Paid To (CIP): Under CIP, the seller is responsible for arranging and paying for the carriage of goods to a named destination, and also must provide cargo insurance coverage until the goods are delivered to the carrier or appointed person at the destination specified. However, CIP requires the seller to cover insurance, which does not align with the scenario where the buyer assumes cargo insurance responsibilities.
• Cost, Insurance and Freight (CIF): CIF applies to sea or inland waterway transport and requires the seller to cover the cost, freight, and insurance to bring the goods to the port of destination. Similar to CIP, under CIF, the seller is responsible for procuring and paying for the insurance up to the destination port, contradicting the condition that the buyer handles the cargo insurance.
• Carriage Paid To (CPT): CPT means the seller pays for the carriage of goods to a named destination. Here, the risk, along with the responsibility for additional costs after the goods have been handed over to the carrier, transfers from the seller to the buyer. The seller does not cover insurance under CPT, which is in line with the scenario where the buyer assumes the responsibility for cargo insurance, import custom clearance, and other costs and risks after the goods have been delivered to the carrier. This matches the scenario described, making CPT the correct choice.
• Cost and Freight (CFR): In the case of CFR, the seller must pay the costs and freight necessary to bring the goods to the named port of destination. However, risk is transferred to the buyer once the goods are loaded on board the ship, and importantly, CFR does not require the seller to provide insurance, which must be obtained by the buyer if desired. While CFR might seem to fit certain aspects of the scenario (not covering insurance), it specifically applies to sea or inland waterway transport and does not fully match the description provided as well as CPT does, particularly acknowledging that the responsibility for customs clearance, duties, and taxes explicitly falls to the buyer under CPT after the delivery point.

Therefore, "Carriage Paid To (CPT)" is aligned with the conditions that delivery of goods happens at the seller's expense to the named place of destination, and after which the buyer assumes cargo insurance, import custom clearance, payment of custom duties, taxes, and other costs and risks.

Q70: Which of the following are relevant in deciding among different courses of action, the manager needs to consider the differential revenue and costs of alternatives? 

A. Opportunity costs and economic profits

B. Fixed and Sunk Costs

C. Marginal Revenue and Marginal Cost

D. Incremental and marginal costs

E. Economies and dis-economies of scale

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A and D Only

(b) B and C Only

(c) D and E Only

(d) A and B Only

Ans: A

Sol: The Correct answer is: A and D Only 

Opportunity costs and economic profits:

• This statement is correct.
• Opportunity cost represents the benefits of the next best alternative foregone, which is essential in evaluating decisions among alternative courses of action.
• Economic profit considers both explicit and implicit costs, providing a more comprehensive measure of profitability when comparing alternatives.
• These factors help managers understand the trade-offs and overall profitability of each decision.

Fixed and Sunk Costs:

• This statement is incorrect.
• Fixed costs remain unchanged regardless of the decision and are irrelevant in comparing alternatives.
• Sunk costs are past costs that cannot be recovered and should not influence future decision-making.

Marginal Revenue and Marginal Cost:

• This statement is incorrect.
• Marginal revenue and marginal cost are critical for determining the optimal output level but are not directly relevant when comparing the differential revenue and costs of alternatives.

Incremental and marginal costs:

• This statement is correct.
• Incremental costs refer to the additional costs associated with a specific decision or course of action.
• These costs are directly relevant for evaluating alternatives, as they highlight the cost differences between options.

Economies and diseconomies of scale:

• This statement is incorrect.
• Economies and diseconomies of scale pertain to cost behavior in relation to the scale of operations and are not directly linked to the differential analysis of alternatives.

Other Related Points

Decision-making in management:

• Managers rely on differential analysis to focus on the costs and revenues that differ between alternatives, ignoring irrelevant costs like sunk and fixed costs.
• This approach helps in resource optimization and aligning decisions with organizational goals.

Incremental analysis:

• Also known as differential analysis, this method evaluates the financial impact of alternative decisions by focusing on changes in revenue and costs.
• Incremental costs and revenues are the core factors considered during this process.

Q71: Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R 

Assertion A: Persons with high self-esteem are less susceptible to influence, more confident of achieving goals and more effective in social networking

Reason R: Self-esteem manifests in several behaviours. Persons with high self-esteem tend to report fewer negative emotions than persons with low self-esteem

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct  of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct  of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is Both A and R are true but R is not the correct  of A. 

• Assertion A : The statement highlights the fact that persons with high self esteem are less influenced by others. They make their own decisions and do not need others approval. They are confident about their abilities in accomplishing the goals. They have a purpose and their purpose is aligned with their principals and values. Moreover, people with high self esteem are more effective in social networking than the people with low self esteem. They have excellent communication and persuasive skills. Their confidence and positive mindset allows them to be more confident in social situations.
• Reason R: People with higher self esteem tend to report fewer negative emotions than people with low esteem. High esteemed people have a positive frame of mind and a stronger sense of self worth. They tend to manage their emotions effectively in times of a setback or challenges and do not fall into the trap of negativity as they have an optimistic outlook on life. The people with low self esteem are less resilient and are more likely to focus on the problem rather than the solution.
• The Reason R is does not correctly explain the Assertion as there is no explicit connection between negative emotions and susceptibility to influence, confidence or social networking skills.

Q72: Which of the following ratios are critically significant for an investor 

A. Debt-Equity ratio

B. Price-Earning ratio

C. Dividend yield

D. Asset turnover ratio

E. Debtor turnover ratio

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B and C Only

(b) D and E Only

(c)  B, C and D Only

(d) A, D and E Only

Ans: A

Sol: Correct answer is A, B and C Only

Debt Equity ratio = Debt Equity ratio reveals the relationship between the internal and external sources of the funds of a firm. Ideal debt equity ratio is 2:1. A debt equity ratio is helpful to assess the company's financial leverage and risk and in turn this ratio will be helpful to the investorsthat whether to invest in the company or not. A low debt equity ratio provides sufficient safety margin to creditors and a high debt equity ratio shows that the claims of the creditors are greater then those of the owners hence lesser safety. To summarize the debt to equity ratio is valuable to the stakeholders or the investors to see and study the company's financial structure and suitability for investment and lending.

Formula = External Equities / Internal Equities

• External Equity = Total outside liabilities that is short term and long term loans.
• Internal equities = Equity and preference share capital + total amount of reserves and surplus - accumulated losses and deferred expenses.
• Price earning ratio = Price earning ratio helps in the assessment of the profitability of the firm from the point view of the shareholders or the investors. With the help of this ratio one will come to know that whether the share is overvalued or undervalued. If the price earning ratio is high it means the share is overvalued and in case if the price earning ratio is less then the share is undervalued.
  • Formula = Market price of the share / Earning per share

Dividend yield = This ratio shows the rate of return to the shareholders in the form of dividend on market price of the share. In other words dividend yield ratio is an useful tool for investors to assess the income potential of a stock relative to its market price.

• Formula = (Dividend per share / Market price per share) * 100

Assets turnover ratio = Assets turnover ratio is a type of activity ratio which indicates the number of times the assets are turned over in a year in relation to sales which is used by the businessto see that its assets are effectively utilized or not. A high ratio indicates an effective utilization of investment in assets and a low ratio indicates that the assets are not properly utilized in comparison to sales.

• Formula = Net sales or COGS / Total assets
  • Total assets = Fixed assets - depreciation + Current assets

Debtor turnover ratio = Debtors turnover ratio is a valuable tool for assessing the efficiency of the company's credit and collection policies. It also provides knowledge about the cash flow management and help to identify the potential credit risk. A high ratio indicates efficiency in collection from the debtors and a low ratio indicates the inefficiency in collection of payments.

• Formula = Net credit sales / Average receivables

Q73: A charitable trust (registered under section 12 AB of the Income Tax Act) is registered under GST in New Delhi. It provided yoga training to middle-aged people. coaching for Basket-ball to teenagers and skill development services to persons over the age of 65 years residing in New Delhi in the month of July. This trust is liable to pay GST on: 

(a) Yoga training

(b) Skill-development services

(c) Coaching for basket-ball

(d) Coaching for basket-ball and Yoga training

Ans: B

Sol: Correct answer is Skill-development services.

Key Points 

• Yoga Training and Coaching for Basketball: According to the GST regime in India, services provided by an entity registered under Section 12AB (which pertains to charitable organizations under the Income Tax Act, 1961) relating to education (including physical education and sports), health care, religion, spirituality, or yoga are generally exempt from GST, provided these services are part of achieving the entity's objectives and are not conducted with a profit motive. This is outlined under specific entries in the notification on GST exemptions for services.

  The rationale behind exempting yoga training is its recognition as promoting health, spirituality, or religion that aligns with charitable activities. Similarly, sports coaching, specifically for teenagers in this context, could potentially be aligned with educational or charitable activities aimed at the development of an individual, thereby possibly falling under exemptions if it fulfills certain criteria related to charitable objectives.

• Skill-development Services: The services provided related to skill development to individuals over the age of 65 do not specifically fall within the broad categories typically exempted—like healthcare, education, religious, or spiritual activities directly. The GST law and its exemptions primarily focus on services that directly contribute to education, healthcare, religion, or social welfare. While skill development can be a part of educational services, the specificity regarding the age group (persons over the age of 65 years) and the nature of these - not being explicitly educational (part of a curriculum) or for persons with disabilities - might not qualify for GST exemption under the typically recognized categories.

Q74: Effective mentoring requires trust and the level of trust reflects the mentor’s: 

(a) Competence, consistency, communication abilities and control sharing readiness

(b) Concerned, cooperativeness, communication abilities and coordination skills

(c) Competence, consistency, complexity and communication abilities

(d) Communication abilities, competence, concerned behaviour, control sharing readiness

Ans: A

Sol: Correct answer is Competence, consistency, communication abilities and control sharing readiness

Effective mentoring= An effective mentoring involves active listening, providing constructive feedback, setting clear and goals and keep a supportive and open communication among the mentees so that they can develop both personally and professionally. A successful mentor will share the experiences, provide the guidance and encourages the critical thinking. Celebrating the achievements of the mentees and promoting the self reflection contribute to a positive mentoring relationship. So in summary there are four parameters which contributes to effective mentoring.

• Competence = Competence refers to the mentor's ability and knowledge in their respective field. The mentor should have expertise in his own field so that he can teach to his mentee effectively. Along with expertise he should also have interpersonal skills and feedback skills. He should also keep him updated on industry trends this will lead to continuous learning.
• Consistency = Consistency means the regularity of the mentor which can build the trust of the mentees over time. It is effective in mentoring when it involves regular meetings which helps to maintain continuity and allows for ongoing support or guidance. Consistent feedback is also important as it ensures that the mentee receives a steady flow of information for development.
• Communication abilities = By prioritizing effective communication mentors can build strong connections with their mentees leading to guidance and development. Communication abilities includes the following active listening, clarity in communication so that the goals are understandable, openness in communication so that the mentee feels comfortable sharing their challenges and aspirations.
• Control sharing readiness = Control sharing readiness shows the mentor's willingness to allow the mentee to participate and make various decisions and take ownership of their own learning process leading to confidence of the mentee's abilities and motivating them to take more such decisions.

Q75: Match List - I with List - II.

​
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

(a) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

(b) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

(c) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I

(d) A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - II

Ans: D

Sol: Correct answer is A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - II

Q76: _______ as defined under the Foreign Trade Policy (FTP), implemented by Director General of Foreign Trade has the main aim to “mentor new and potential exporters on the intricacies of foreign trade through counselling, training and outreach programmes” so that they can get into international trade 

(a) Niryat Bharat Scheme

(b) Niryat Bandhu Scheme

(c) Niryat Benefit Scheme

(d) Niryat Border Scheme

Ans: B

Sol: Correct answer is Niryat Bandhu Scheme 

• Foreign trade policy = Foreign Trade Policy refers to a government's guidelines and regulations related to international trade. It includes tariffs, trade agreements and other measures to regulate the import and export. The main objective of foreign trade policy is to promote economic growth of the country. Schemes that have been implemented by the foreign trade policy is Niryat Bandhu Scheme.
• Niryat Bandhu Scheme = This scheme was introduced on 13 October 2011 as part of the foreign trade policy 2009-2014. This scheme was implemented by the Director General of Foreign Trade under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Objectives of Niryat Bandhu Scheme

• Mentor new and potential exporters on the intricacies of foreign trade through counselling, training and outreach programmes so that they can reach the international trade.
• To boost exports from India.
• The primary goal of the Niryat Bandhu Scheme is to improve international business and to ensure that all the activities are carried in a legitimate manner.
• The Niryat portal is committed to analyze India's export and import in a comprehensive manner so as to guide and mentor the next generation of entrepreneurs entering the field of international trade.

Benefits of Niryat Portal

• The Niryat portal will help to bring a positive change in the field of trade and commerce especially for MSMEs.
• It is easy to use as the user has to login with their username and password and access the trade information easily.
• This portal is organized by the professionals who have a great knowledge in the area of export and import. So the users will the authentic information.

Q77: Which amongst the following methods Is not a method of generating sales leads in personal selling?

(a) Referrals

(b) Networking

(c) Coupons

(d) Cold calls

Ans: C

Sol: Correct answer is Coupons

Personal Selling = Personal selling is an art of convincing the prospects to buy the given products and services. It is a two way communication as it involves face to face contact between the sales man and the prospect. Personal selling is the ability to convert the human needs into the wants.

Features of personal selling

• It is one of the important tools for increasing the sales of the company.
• It is a two way communication between the prospects.
• It is a persuading process to buy the goods and services.
• The essence of personal selling is the interpretation of products and services in terms of benefit and advantage.

Methods for generating sales lead in personal selling

• Networking = Networking is an important sales lead in personal selling. Networking can be increased by attending industry events, conferences, and seminars to meet the potential clients and the prospects. Company can use online platform also such as LinkedIn.
• Referrals = Sales can be increased through referrals also. Referrals means encouraging the satisfied customers to refer to other who might be interested in the product or services.
• Cold calling = Initiate contact with the prospects and the potential customers through phone calls. This can lead to increase the sales of the company.
• Email marketing = Company can build an email list and those mails to the targeted customers to increase the sales. In emails provide valuable content and incentives to encourage engagement.
• Social media = Social media platforms are very important way to increase sales as they can connect company to the potential customers.
• Trade shows and exhibitions = Trade shows and exhibitions provide opportunities to meet the potential clients face to face and showcase the product or services.

Process of personal selling 

• The first step in the personal selling is to identify and qualify the prospects. Companies can qualify the prospects by contacting them by emails or calls.
• The next step is that the salesman need to learn about the prospects as much as possible.
• The salesman now should tell the prospect about the product characteristics, features, advantages and benefits.
• The next step is to overcome the objections raised by the prospect. The objections are related to price, delivery schedule or quality.
• Now the salesperson attempts to close the sale and change the potential customer into the customer.

Q78: Which of the following are considered as the limitations of Cost-Volume-Profit analysis? 

A. Constant selling price regardless of sales volume

B. Firm efficiency and productivity are constant and the costs are linear

C. Margin of safety is constant at varied levels of sales

D. Sales mix and the inventory levels are constant

E. Profit is constant at varied levels of sales price

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B and C only

(b) B, C and D only

(c) C, D and E only

(d) A, B and D only

Ans: D

Sol: Correct answer is A, B and D Only

Cost volume or profit analysis = Cost volume or profit analysis also known as CVP analysis shows the changes in the cost and the profit due to changes in the volume of production. It is a main part of the marginal costing techniques. Here total cost of production and profits of a concern depends upon many factors such as selling price per unit, variable cost per unit, sales volume, product mix and fixed cost per unit. It help the business to understand the relationship between these factors and then make an informed decision about pricing, production and overall business strategy.

Advantages of CVP analysis

• Informed decision making = CVP provides a framework of decision making by taking into account the relationship between various factors which are cost, volume and profit. This also simplifies the work of the managers to take an more informed decisions to increase the efficiency and achieve the objectives of the business.
• Cost control = CVP analysis facilitate better cost control by categorizing the cost into fixed and variable cost. Managers can identify the areas where the cost can be controlled or reduced and then frame the policies accordingly so that there is reduction in the cost and increase in profits.
• Profit planning = CVP analysis helps the managers to plan the profit by studying the relationship between the cost and the volume. By understanding the break even point (no profit, no loss situation) and the effect of production levels on the profits companies can plan and frame their strategies so that maximum profit can be earned.
• Break even analysis = Break even analysis is a situation of no profit or no loss or the situation where the level of production or sales at which the total revenue equals to the cost. This analysis is helpful to find out the minimum level of sales which are required to recover the cost.

Limitations of CVP analysis 

• Linearity = CVP analysis assume a liner relationship between the cost, volume and profit but in reality this situation does not exist because there are many factors that can affect the cost such as environmental factors, social factors, technological factors etc. and due to that the cost fluctuates. And when the cost keeps on changing the firms efficiency and the productivity also changes and will not remain constant.
• Constant selling price = The next assumption of CVP analysis is constant selling price which is also one of the limitations. As the environment and the business too are dynamic the prices and the cost will keep on fluctuating. The factors that can affect the selling price are cost of production, resource availability, demand of the product etc.
• Sales are constant = CVP assumes that sales and inventory are constant which is not true because sales are affected by various factors such as marketing strategies, intermediaries, demand of the product and market conditions.

Q79: The price earnings ratio for firms in a certain industry follows the normal distribution. A firm’s price-earnings ratio has a standardized value (Z) = 1.0 and it is included in the highest _____ of firms in the industry. 

(a) 99.73%

(b) 68.27%

(c) 15.87%

(d) 34.13%

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is 15.87%.

• The Price Earnings (P/E) ratio is a metric that measures the value of a company, dividing the latest closing price of a company's stock by the earnings-per-share (EPS) over the last 12 months.
• A standardized value or Z-score is a statistical measurement that shows a score's relationship to the mean in a group of scores. A Z-score of 1.0 indicates a value that is one standard deviation from the mean.
• In a standard normal distribution:
  • About 68% of the values fall within one standard deviation of the mean (accounting for the area between Z= -1 and Z= 1).
  • About 95% fall within two standard deviations (Z=-2 to Z=2).
  • About 99.7 fall within three standard deviations (Z=-3 to Z=3).
• A Z-score of 1.0 indicates that the P/E ratio of the firm falls exactly one standard deviation above the mean in the distribution and is higher than about 84.13% of the values (because 50 percent are below the mean and an additional 34.13% lie between the mean and one standard deviation above).
• Answer options review:
  1. The value 99.73% corresponds to a Z-score of 3.0, not applicable here.
  2. 68.27% represents the total percentage of values within one standard deviation around the mean, not only above.
  3. 15.87% does not directly match with any typical Z-score, but if we consider that 84.13% of the firms have P/E ratio lower than this firm (due to its Z score of 1), it can be understood that this firm's P/E ratio is in the highest 15.87%.
  4. 34.13% represents the percentage of data between the mean and 1 standard deviation above only, not considering the portion (50%) under the mean.

Conclusion: The firm's P/E ratio is in the highest 15.87% of firms in the industry - Answer 3).

Q80: Match List - I with List - II.

​
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

(a) A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I

(b) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I

(c) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV

(d) A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I.

• The FDI (Foreign Direct Investment) policy in India dictates the limit up to which foreign investment is allowed in different sectors of economy and the route through which such investments can be made. The automatic route is one where the FDI is allowed without prior approval from the Government or Reserve Bank of India.
• Trading in Transferable Development Rights (TDR) - As per the FDI policy, the foreign direct investment in trading of TDRs is prohibited, so it is associated with II. Prohibited.
• Multi-Brand Retail Trading – Foreign Direct Investment is allowed up to 51% under the government approval route, not the automatic route. So none of the options in List II corresponds directly.
• Satellite (Establishment and Operations) – Foreign Direct Investment is permitted up to 100% under the government approval route in the field of Satellites-establishment and operation, so it's associated with IV. 100%.
• Petroleum Refining (by PSUs) - In case of Petroleum Refining by PSUs, 49% FDI is permitted under the automatic route which associates it with I. 49%.

Other Related Points

Foreign Direct Investment (FDI):

• Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is a type of cross-border investment made by a resident in one economy (the direct investor) in an enterprise in another economy (the direct investment enterprise) with the objective of establishing a lasting interest in the enterprise. Essentially, it means when an investor, based in one country, invests in a business based in another country. The investor's aim is to have control, influence, or significant participation in the management of the enterprise.

Regulator for FDI in India:

• In India, the body that governs FDI is the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. It frames the FDI Policy, which is then implemented by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

Routes of FDI in India:

• There are mainly two routes through which India allows FDI, the Automatic route, and the Government route:
• Automatic Route: Under the Automatic Route, the non-resident investor or the Indian company does not require any approval from the Government of India for the investment. This is allowed in sectors/activities listed under the Consolidated FDI Policy Circular of the Government of India.
• Government Route: Under the Government Route, prior to investment, approval from the Government of India is required. Government approval is granted based on recommendations provided by the Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB). The sectors/activities requiring government approval are usually those considered sensitive for the country.

Q81: The exporting firm is termed ‘rider’ where the other firm with an established distribution channel in the target country is termed as ‘Carrier This phenomenon is known as. 

(a) Counter Trade

(b) Barter

(c) Piggy Backing

(d) Switch Trading

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is Piggy Backing.

• The phenomenon where one company ('rider') utilizes the established distribution channels of another firm ('carrier') in a particular country to export its goods is known as Piggy Backing.
• Piggybacking is a cost-effective way for companies to expand into new markets. Instead of establishing new distribution channels which can be costly and time-consuming, they make use of the channels that have already been established by another company.
• The company providing the distribution channels (the 'carrier') usually benefits from additional revenues brought by handling a complementary product line from the 'rider'.
• Therefore, the correct answer in this case is: Piggy Backing

Other Related Points

• Rider: In this context, the 'rider' is the company that wants to export its products using the distribution channels of another firm.
• Carrier: The 'carrier' is the company that has established distribution channels in a target country.
• Piggybacking: This term refers to a scenario where a company leverages the distribution network of another firm to sell its products in a foreign market.
• Counter Trade: This is a form of international trade in which goods or services are exchanged for other goods or services instead of for hard currency.
• Barter: This is the exchange of goods or services for other goods or services without using money.
• Switch Trading: It's a type of countertrade in which a third party trading house buys the firm's counterpurchase credits and sells them to another firm that can better use them.

Q82: By reducing the sales price from Rs. 80 per unit to Rs. 78 per unit, the sales manager has succeeded in selling 1000 units more of a product. Which of the following decisive conclusions can be drawn from this? 

A. Sales price variance is unfavourable

B. Sales volume variance is favourable

C. Total sales variance is unfavourable

D. Sales activity variance is Rs. 80000 (favourable)

E. Sales price variance is Rs. 2000 (unfavourable)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B and C Only

(b) C, D and E Only

(c) A, B and D Only

(d) B, D and E Only

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is A, B and C Only

• Sales price variance: Unfavourable due to the price drop (Rs. 80 to Rs. 78).
• Sales volume variance: Favourable due to the additional 1000 units sold.
• Total sales variance: Likely unfavourable if the original volume is large, as the price reduction’s negative impact outweighs the volume increase.
• Total sales variance: Not a standard term; likely a distractor or error in the question.

Q83: The present value of future profits, the individual or segment will generate over a lifetime relationship with a brand or firm, is known as 

(a) Lifelong Value

(b) Lifetime Value

(c) Longlife Value

(d) Longterm value

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is Lifetime Value.

• The Lifetime Value (LTV), also known as Customer Lifetime Value (CLV), is a prediction of the net profit attributed to the entire future relationship with a customer or segment.
• This financial metric is an important part of marketing and customer relationship management because it helps a company understand the economic value that a customer would offer over the course of their business relationship.
• LTV is calculated by predicting the net profit from the entire future relationship with a customer, then discounting it to present value.
• The present value is the current value of a future sum of money assuming a certain rate of return.
• LTV allows companies to understand what they should spend to acquire new customers or retain existing ones.
• An increase in lifetime customer value represents a positive outcome, as it implies that a company would profit more from a customer over their lifetime.
• Strategies that help in increasing LTV include improving customer service, personalizing customer experience, and launching customer loyalty programs.

Q84: Which of the following factors are attributed to the weakening of Indian rupee? 

A. Rupee payment for international trade

B. Rising cost of imports

C. Widening trade deficit

D. Opening of Rupee vostro accounts

E. Rupee UPI payments for overseas transactions

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B and C Only

(b) C, D and E Only

(c) A, D and E Only

(d) B, C and D Only

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is B, C and D Only

• When the costs of imports rise, it implies that more domestic currency (Indian rupees in this case) is needed to purchase the same amount of foreign goods and services. This increases the demand for foreign currency, putting downward pressure on the value of the Indian rupee relative to other currencies.
• Rising import costs can also lead to inflationary pressure within the economy. Imported goods become more expensive, which can contribute to overall inflation.
• A widening trade deficit means that India is importing more goods and services than it is exporting. To pay for these imports, there is an increased demand for foreign currency (e.g., US dollars, euros) in exchange for the Indian rupee. This increased demand for foreign currency relative to the supply of rupees puts downward pressure on the rupee's value.
• Opening Rupee vostro accounts (An account held by a domestic bank for a foreign bank) allows foreign banks to hold Indian rupees. This increases the availability of rupees in the foreign exchange market. As a result, there can be a surplus of rupees compared to the demand for them, leading to a depreciation of the currency.

Other Related Points

• Overall, these factors collectively contribute to the weakening of the Indian rupee by increasing the demand for foreign currency, widening the trade deficit, and affecting the supply of rupees in the foreign exchange market.
• It's important for policymakers to monitor these factors closely and take appropriate measures to manage currency fluctuations and ensure the stability of the rupee.

Q85: Arrange the following SBI-sponsored RRBs in an increasing order of their existence since formation. 

A. Rajasthan Marudhara Gramin Bank

B. Telangana Gramin Bank

C. Saurashtra Gramin Bank

D. Madhyanchal Gramin Bank

E. Arunachal Pradesh Rural Bank

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(a) A, D, B, E, C

(b) C, E, D, A, B

(c) B, A, C, E, D

(d) D, E, A, B, C

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is C, E, D, A, B. 

• Saurashtra Gramin Bank is a Regional Rural Bank which was formed in 1978 after amalgamation of three banks. It is owned by Government of India, Government of Gujarat and State bank of India.
• Arunachal Pradesh Rural bank was established in 1983 under Regional Rural Bank Act, 1976. It operates in entire Arunachal Pradesh. It is sponsored by State bank of India, Government of India and Government of Arunachal Pradesh.
• Madhyanchal Gramin Bank was established in 2006. It is joint venture go Government of India, State Bank of India and Government of Madhya Pradesh. It caters to over 13 districts of Madhya Pradesh.
• Rajasthan Marudhara Gramin Bank was formed in 2014 after the amalgamation of Marudhara Gramin Bank and Mewar Aanchalik Gramin Bank.
• Telangana Gramin Bank, formerly known as Deccan Grameena Bank was formed in 2015. It is sponsored by Government of India, Telangana government and State bank of Hyderabad.

• Regional rural Banks are scheduled commercial banks which operate at regional level in different states of the country. Thy were established under the Regional rural Banks Act, 1976.
• RRBs provide credit facility, deposit facility and other banking facilities to rural and semi urban areas.
• RRBs are owned by government of India, the sponsor bank and the concerned State government.
• Regional Rural Banks are regulated by RBI and supervised by NABARD.

Q86: The earning per share for Avanti corporation is Rs. 4.0. The rate of return on investments is 16 per cent and the return required by its shareholders is 12 percent. What will be the price per share as per the Walter model, if the payout ratio is 40 per cent? 

(a) Rs. 24

(b) Rs. 36

(c) Rs. 40

(d) Rs. 72

Ans: C

Sol: Correct answer is Rs. 40

• Dividend theory = The important aspect of the dividend policy is to determine the amount of earnings to be distributed to shareholders and the amount to be retained by the firm. On the relationship between the dividend policy and the value of the firm, different theories have been given such as Walter's model, Gordon's model and MM hypothesis.
• Walter's model = It is a dividend relevance model means the policy of the dividend affects the value of the firm. It was given by Prof. James E. Walter. He argues that the choice of the dividend policy always almost affects the value of the firm. The theory shows the relationship between the firm's rate of return and the cost of capital in determining the dividend policy and that will maximize the wealth of shareholders.

Assumptions of Walter's model theory

• Constant return and cost of capital.
• The firm finances all the investment through retained earning.
• There is 100% payout and retention ratio.
• The firm has a very long and infinite life.
• Perfect capital market, no tax and no transaction cost.

Growth firm = Growth firm means those firms in which the internal rate of return is more than the opportunity cost of capital. These type of company can maximize their growth by retaining all the earnings for internal investment. Thus, the optimal payout ratio for a growth firm is zero. The market value per share increases as payout ratio declines.

• Normal firms = Normal firms are those which have internal rate of return and the cost of opportunity are equal. The dividend policy has no effect on the market value of the share in Walter's model. Thus, there is no optimum payout ratio for a normal firm.

Declining firm = Declining firms are those which have internal rate of return less than the opportunity cost of capital. The market value per share of the declining firm will be maximum when it does not retain all the earnings. Optimum payout ratio of the declining firm is 100%. The market value per shares increases as payout ratio increases.

• To calculate the price per share according to the Walter model in an easy and simple way, we'll use the Walter formula:

  P = [D + (E-D) ( r/k )] / k.

  Where:

  • ( P ) = Price per share
  • ( D ) = Dividend per share
  • ( k ) = Required rate of return by its shareholders
  • ( r ) = Rate of return on investments
  • ( E ) = Earnings per share

Given in the question:

• Earnings per share (( E )) = Rs. 4.0
• Rate of return on investments (( r )) = 16% or 0.16
• Required rate of return by its shareholders (( k )) = 12% or 0.12
• Payout ratio = 40%, which means 40% of earnings are paid as dividends. Since ( E ) = Rs. 4.0, Dividend per share (( D )) = ( 4.0 \times 0.40 = Rs. 1.6 )

• Now, plugging these values into the Walter formula:

  P = [D + (E-D) ( r/k )] / k

Now, plugging these values into the Walter formula:

• P = [D + (E-D) ( r/k )] / k.

• P = [1.6 + (4.0 - 1.6) (0.16/0.12)]/0.12

  [ P = 13.33 + 26.67 ]

  [ P = Rs. 40 ]

Q87: A discrete probability distribution ________.

(a) is a listing of all possible values of the random variable

(b) assigns a probability to each possible value of the random variable

(c) can assume the value between -1 and +1

(d) is independent of the parameters of the distribution

Ans: B

Sol: Correct answer is Assigns a probability to each possible value of the random variable.

Discrete probability distribution = A discrete probability distribution is a probability distribution that depicts the occurrence of discrete outcomes. In a discrete probability distribution each outcome has a specific probability assigned to it. A discrete probability distribution assigns a probability to each possible value of the random variable. Discrete distribution doesn't just range between -1 and +1 as it depends on the specific set of outcomes. There are 3 types of discrete probability distributions that are Binomial distribution, Poisson distribution and multi nominal distribution.

Binomial distribution = Binomial distribution is also known as Bernoulli distribution. It is a discrete probability distribution expressing the probability of one set of dichotomous alternative that us success or failure.

Assumptions

• An experiment is performed under the same conditions for a fixed number of trials say "n".
• In each trial there are only two possible outcomes of the experiment that are success and failure.
• The probability of success is denoted as p which remains constant from trial to trial on replacement. The probability of failure is denoted as q and is equal to (1-p).
• The trials are statistically independent.
• Poisson distribution = It is a discrete probability distribution which was developed by French mathematician Simeon Devis Poisson. It may be expected in cases where the chance of any individual event being a success is small such as number of accidents on road. Also known as law of improbable events. All Poisson distribution are skewed to the right. Since the value of success is very small, the value of failure is almost equal to 1.
• Multi nominal distribution = Multi nominal distribution arises when the possibility of outcome is more than two. The probabilities of various outcomes remains the same for each trial, and the trials are independent. The sum of all the probabilities for all the outcomes in a multi nominal distribution is equal to 1.

Q88: Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R 

Assertion A: A promoter, invariably is the one who has been associated with formation of the company

Reason R: A promoter is the one who undertakes to form a company with reference to a given object and who takes the necessary steps to accomplish that purpose

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct  of A.

(b) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct  of A.

(c) A is correct but R is not correct.

(d) A is not correct but R is correct

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is Both A and R are correct and R is the correct  of A.

Q89: Which one of the following are disposed to promote financial inclusion? 

(a) Poor quality of services rendered

(b) High transaction costs

(c) Universal access to financial services

(d) Lack of trust in the system

Ans: C

Sol: Correct answer is Universal access to financial services

• Financial inclusion = Financial inclusion refers to the availability and equality of opportunities to access the financial services and products that meet their needs such as transactions, payments, savings, credit facilities. Financial inclusion strives to remove the barriers that exclude the people from participating in the financial sector. It is also called inclusive finance. It leads to overall innovation, economic growth and consumer knowledge.

Importance of financial inclusion

• Financial inclusion reduces poverty and inequality = Financial inclusion provides various opportunities to the marginalized and poor people to access the normal financial services such as savings, credit facilities, insurance, transactions and payments. By providing theses tools the financial inclusion can help to lift the people out of poverty and reduce the inequalities.
• Promotes economic growth = When more people have access to the financial services and the products they can participate actively in the economy. When the financial inclusion is increased it will lead to increase investment and savings which in turn would lead to economic growth.
• Promotes small business = Due to financial inclusion the small business will be able to get the credit facilities much easily. As the credit will be available easily more and more small business can emerge and grow.
• Financial inclusion promotes innovation = Financial inclusion drives innovation in financial sector leading to development of new technologies that will benefit to the underserved population. By innovating new technologies there will be economic growth and the people will get more educated.

Barriers to financial inclusion

• The first barrier in financial inclusion is extreme poverty because people with little or no money does not require any financial services.
• The next barrier is lack of knowledge. As the poor people have lack of knowledge they cannot get the benefit of the services provided by the financial institutions.
• While opening the accounts the high minimum balance also serve as a barrier to financial inclusion because poor people have little or no money at all.

Q90: In order to conduct exploratory data analysis, which of following are used by a researcher in the five number summary? 

A. Median

B. First quartile

C. Mean

D. Third quartile

E. Smallest and largest values

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, C, D and E Only

(b) A, B, D, and E Only

(c) B, C, D and E Only

(d) A, B, C and E Only

Ans: B

Sol: Correct answer is A, B, D, and E Only 

Five number summary = Five numbers summary is a part of the descriptive statistics and consist of five values and all these values help us to describe the data. This statistics helps to provide an overview of the central tendency, spread and overall shape of the data distribution. The summary consists of the following five statistics.

• Median = The median is the middle value in a data when the data is ordered either in ascending or descending order. It separates the first half with the last half. In case of even number in the data the median is the average of the two middle values. It is simple to compute and is not affected by the extreme values in the dataset. It is appropriate average in dealing with the qualitative data that is where ranks are given. The disadvantages of using median is that its value is not determined by each and every observation and before computing the average it is necessary to arrange the data.
• First quartile = First quartile is the value below 25% of the data in the distribution. In other words it is the 25th percentile. It is an essential part of the summary of five numbers as it provides an insight into the spread of the lower portion of the data distribution. First quartile is the median of the first half of the data. It is denoted as Q1.
• Third quartile = Third quartile denoted as Q3 is the value below 75% of the data in the distribution. It is 75th percentile. It is also an important part of the summary of five numbers as it provides an insight into the spread of the higher portion of the data distribution. Along with the first quartile it can be used for calculating the interquartile range. Third quartile is the median of the upper half of the data.
• Smallest value = Smallest value is the minimum value in the dataset. It provides the distribution about the lower floor of the data distribution.
• Largest value = Largest value is the highest or the maximum value in the data set. It provides information about the upper bound or ceiling of the data distribution. The smallest value and the largest value both helps in understanding the extreme values and helps in assessing the range and variability of the dataset.

Q91: Which one of the following beliefs and behaviors does not characterise ‘collectivism’? 

(a) Relations are moral not contractual

(b) Relations take precedence over tasks

(c) Individual opinions are independent of collective opinions

(d) Maintaining harmony is highly valued

Ans: C

Sol: Correct answer is Individual opinions are independent of collective opinions.

Collectivism = Collectivism is the social or political ideology that emphasizes the importance of collective or group interest over individual interest. It will promote cooperation, responsibility and a sense of community. In a collectivism society there is focus on group harmony, collaboration and well being of the community.

Characteristics of collectivism

• Group harmony = Group harmony is maintaining harmony within the group. It is the central value in the collectivism. Due to group harmony conflict is avoided and individuals are encouraged and agree to societal norms and expectations.
• Emphasis on community = Collectivism emphasis on community's well being rather than the individual interest. Due to this there will be strong sense of community, shared responsibility and cooperation.
• Support and collaboration = Through collectivism there will be more support and collaboration among the members of the company. In this relations take precedence over the task and individuals often see themselves as a part of larger whole.
• Group loyalty = In collectivism the members are expected to prioritize the interest of their in group over out group members. Through this the goals of the company will be achieved easily.

Advantages of collectivism

• Collectivism leads to higher unity and harmony so there is much sense of togetherness and community.
• Due to collectivism society tends to feel as if they have stronger support of friends, family and extended family.
• In collectivism there is a feeling of loyalty among the members of the group.

Disadvantages of collectivism

• Collectivism prioritize the group so they focus less on the individual uniqueness or diversity.
• Collectivism emphasizes the interest of the group over the interest of the individuals which means self expression is not encouraged.
• In collectivism members will be able to focus less on thinking about themselves hence resulting in less personal development.

Q92: Which of the following managerial actions are followed to reduce resistance to change? 

A. Education and communication are strong tools for resistance to change

B. Allows participation to those who oppose a change to participate in decision making

C. Negotiation may become vital when resistance comes from a powerful source

D. Employee counseling does not serve the purpose

E. Coercion can be used to get support easily

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B and C Only

(b) B, C and D Only

(c) B, C and E Only

(d) A, C and D Only

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is B, C and E Only.
To reduce resistance to change, the following managerial actions can be followed:

• B. Allowing participation: Allowing those who oppose a change to participate in decision making can help reduce resistance. This gives them a sense of ownership and involvement, increasing the likelihood of their support.
• C. Negotiation: Negotiation may become vital when resistance comes from a powerful source. By engaging in open dialogue and finding common ground, resistance can be minimized and a compromise can be reached.
• E. Coercion: Coercion can be used to get support easily. This involves using authority or power to enforce the change, even if it goes against the will of the employees. However, this method should be used sparingly as it may lead to resentment and decreased morale.

Other Related Points

• A. Education and communication: Education and communication are strong tools for reducing resistance to change. By providing clear s and information about the change, employees can better understand the reasons behind it and its potential benefits.
• D. Employee counseling: Although employee counseling may not serve the purpose of reducing resistance to change, it is still an important tool for addressing any concerns or anxieties that employees may have during the change process. Counseling can help individuals cope with the emotional aspects of change and provide support.

Q93: Match List - I with List - II.

​
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

(a) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

(b) A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II

(c) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

(d) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is A - IV, B - III, C - II , D - I.

A - IV: The time dimension - Cross-sectional study

• Cross-sectional studies involve observing a particular outcome or phenomenon at a single point in time. This matches with "The time dimension" as it refers to how research is framed in terms of temporal aspects - in this case, at a specific point in time rather than longitudinally.

B - III: The purpose of the study - Descriptive study

• Descriptive studies aim to accurately and systematically describe a population, situation, or phenomenon. The purpose of such studies is often to gather more information about a topic when not much is known, matching "The purpose of the study."

C - II: The topical scope of the study - Statistical study

• A statistical study implies a focus on quantifying information and often involves the collection and analysis of numerical data across a scope defined by the study. "The topical scope of the study" would thus refer to what the study is trying to cover or address, which in statistical studies, is typically a defined research question or hypothesis assessed through quantitative means.

D - I: The degree to which the research question has been crystallized - Exploratory study

• Exploratory studies are conducted when a problem is not clearly defined. It investigates potential questions that could be researched more thoroughly and is utilized when the researcher does not know much yet about the problem. This corresponds with "The degree to which the research question has been crystallized," as exploratory studies are used when the research question is not yet fully formed or clear.

Q94: Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R 

Assertion A: Consumers may prefer to choose the channels based on their own shopping goals as well as price, product assortment and convenience.

Reason R: Some consumers are unwilling to "trade-up" to retailers offering higher-end goods, and "trade down" to discount retailers for private- label

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct  of A.

(b) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct  of A.

(c) A is correct but R is not correct.

(d) A is not correct but R is correct

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is Both A and R are correct and R is the correct  of A.

• Assertion A: The assertion states that consumers may prefer to choose their shopping channels based on a variety of considerations such as shopping goals, price, product assortment, and convenience. This assertion is broadly correct as it effectively captures the multi-dimensional decision-making process of consumers when it comes to selecting where to shop.
• Reason R: The reason suggests that some consumers are resistant to changing their shopping behavior in terms of moving to higher-end goods or down to discount or private-label goods. This aspect of consumer behavior reflects the underlying motivations that might influence a consumer’s choice of shopping channel—effectively linking back to the shopping goals mentioned in Assertion A.

Other Related Points

• Shopping goals: These are the objectives or intentions a consumer has when they decide to shop. It can include obtaining good price, finding a specific product, or having a convenient shopping experience.

• Product assortment: The variety of products that a store or channel offers. A larger assortment allows customers more choices.

• Convenience: In the shopping context, this refers to how easy and effortless the shopping experience is for the customer. It includes factors such as store location, website usability, delivery or pickup options, etc.

• Trade-up: This phrase refers to the act of purchasing more expensive, higher-end items or switching to higher-end retailers.

• Higher-end goods: These are products that are considered to be of high quality and often come with a higher price tag. They're typically produced by well-known or luxury brands.

• Trade down: This refers to the act of consumers starting to purchase cheaper items or switching to cheaper, discount retailers.

• Discount retailers: These are stores that sell goods at prices lower than the typical market value. They usually offer a wide range of merchandise.

• Private-label: Private-label products are those manufactured or provided by one company for offer under another company's brand. They're prevalent in a variety of industries from food to cosmetics to apparel. These products are typically cheaper compared to national-brand goods.

Q95: Which of the following are functions of the Reserve Bank of India? 

A. Bank of issue

B. Banker's bank and lender of the last resort

C. Regulator of fiscal policy

D. Controller of credit

E. Custodian of foreign exchange reserves

Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

(a) A, B, C and D Only

(b) A, B, D and E Only

(c) B, C, D and E Only

(d) A, B and D Only

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is A, B, D and E Only

• Bank of issue: This is correct. The RBI has the authority to issue currency notes in India. It is responsible for managing the supply of currency in the economy, ensuring its adequacy, and maintaining its integrity.
• Banker's bank and lender of the last resort: This is correct. The RBI acts as a banker to other banks in India, holding their deposits, providing them with liquidity, and facilitating inter-bank transactions. It also serves as a lender of last resort, providing emergency funds to banks facing financial crises.
• Regulator of fiscal policy: This is incorrect. The RBI is not directly responsible for fiscal policy, which involves government spending, taxation, and budgetary matters. Fiscal policy is typically set by the government, while monetary policy falls within the RBI's purview.
• Controller of credit: This is correct. The RBI plays a crucial role in controlling credit in the economy through various monetary policy tools such as bank rate, repo rate, and open market operations. It regulates the credit flow in the economy to maintain price stability and promote economic growth.
• Custodian of foreign exchange reserves: This is correct. The RBI manages India's foreign exchange reserves, which consist of foreign currencies, gold, and other assets held by the central bank. These reserves are used to stabilize the rupee's value in international markets and ensure external stability.

Other Related Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank of India and plays a pivotal role in the country's economic and financial system.

• he RBI's role is crucial in maintaining monetary stability, fostering economic growth, and ensuring the stability and integrity of India's financial system. It operates as an independent and autonomous institution, accountable to the government and the public for its actions and policies.

Q96: Which one of the following statements does not support the concept of third degree price discrimination? 

(a) The firm must have monopoly power

(b) This type of price discrimination is most likely to occur in the manufacturing industries

(c) The firm must be able to keep the two markets separate

(d) The price elasticity and demand for the commodity must be different in the two markets

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is This type of price discrimination is most likely to occur in the manufacturing industries.

Price discrimination is the practice of charging different prices for an equivalent good or service, and third-degree price discrimination occurs when the price varies by customer groups or segments.

Key conditions for third-degree price discrimination include:

• The firm must have some degree of monopoly power - this is because firms in perfectly competitive markets do not have control over price.

• The firm must be able to segregate the markets - the firm must prevent reselling between customer groups or segments, to avoid the cheaper good being bought and resold into the more expensive market.

• The customers must exhibit different price elasticities of demand - different groups or segments have different sensitivities to price changes. For example, students may be more price sensitive (higher price elasticity of demand) than working professionals for certain goods or services.

Given these s, let's evaluate the options:

• The firm must have monopoly power - this is true, as explained above.

• This type of price discrimination is most likely to occur in the manufacturing industries - this statement is not necessarily true. Although price discrimination, including third-degree price discrimination, can occur in manufacturing industries, it is by no means exclusive to or most common in these industries. Price discrimination can be practiced in any market where the conditions stated earlier are met regardless of the industry.

• The firm must be able to keep the two markets separate- this is true, it's essential to prevent resale between segments.

• The price elasticity and demand for the commodity must be different in the two markets - this is true. Different segments need to have different price elasticities of demand to make price discrimination beneficial.

Q97: In one-factor ANOVA, the computed F-value will be negative: 

(a) when there is no difference in the treatment of means.

(b) when there is no difference within treatments.

(c) when SST (total variance) is larger than SSE (error variance)

(d) under no circumstances

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is under no circumstances.

• Analysis of Variance (ANOVA) is a statistical method that segregates observed variance into different parts for the purpose of assessing specific processes.
• The F-value in an ANOVA test is the test statistic for the hypothesis that the means of all groups (treatments) are equal.
• The F-value is calculated as the ratio between the Model Mean Square (or Treatment variance, which is computed as the Sum of Squares of the Treatment divided by the degrees of freedom) and the Error Mean Square (within treatment variability or error variance, computed as the Sum of Squares of Error divided by its degrees of freedom).
• Both the variance due to treatments (the numerator of the F ratio) and the error variance (the denominator of the F ratio) are sums of squares that are each divided by their respective degrees of freedom, and since these are sums of squares, they are always non-negative.
• Therefore, the F-value, being the ratio of these non-negative quantities, can never be negative.

Q98: Match List - I with List - II.

​
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

(a) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III

(b) A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I

(c) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV

(d) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III

Q99: Arrange the following in the ascending order of applicable TDS (Tax deducted at source) rates for the Financial Year, 2023-24. 

A. Payment of Rs. 6,55,000 rent by an individual in a year

B. Payment of Rs 20,000 on winnings from horse races

C. Payment of Rs 8,000 as dividend by cheque

D. Payment of Rs. 35,000 to an individual contractor for repair by a university

E. Payment of Rs 38,000 as fees for professional and technical services by a call center

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(a) A, B, C, D, E

(b) D, E, A, C, B

(c) E, D, C, B, A

(d) A, E, C, D, B

Ans: B

Sol: Correct answer is D, E, A, C, B

• D) Payment of Rs. 35,000 to an individual contractor for repair by a university: Payments to an individual contractor typically have a lower TDS rate among the types of transactions listed. Traditionally, TDS for such payments was set at 1% if the payee is an individual or HUF (Hindu Undivided Family). This transaction represents the starting point in our ascending order.

• E) Payment of Rs 38,000 as fees for professional and technical services by a call center: The TDS rate for professional or technical services has generally been around 10%. Given that this is higher than the rate for contractor payments but still significantly lower than some other rates (like those applicable to gambling winnings), it places second in our ascending order.

• A) Payment of Rs. 6,55,000 rent by an individual in a year: The TDS rate applicable on rent payments, where the payer is an individual, applies only if the total payment exceeds a certain threshold, which was historically set significantly high (in prior years, the threshold was Rs 2,40,000 per annum). The rate applicable was 10% which positions it next in the order.

• C) Payment of Rs 8,000 as dividend by cheque: With the Dividend Distribution Tax (DDT) abolished and dividends taxed in the hands of the receiver, a nominal rate of 10% TDS was applied on dividends if the total dividend income exceeded Rs 5,000 in a year. This rate is the same as for rent but is placed next in our order, maintaining the sequence in the correct answer provided.

• B) Payment of Rs 20,000 on winnings from horse races: This category has a significantly higher TDS rate compared to others. Winnings from lotteries, game shows, puzzles, or horse races have traditionally attracted a higher TDS rate of 30%, making it the highest in our list and placing it at the end of our ascending order.

 ​
​Q100: Match List - I with List - II.

​
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

(a) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

(b) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III

(c) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV

(d) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III.

• The listed concepts refer to various targeting strategies utilized by companies. Correctly understanding and applying these strategies can greatly enhance the effectiveness of a company's marketing efforts.
• Target compatibility refers to how well the company can meet the needs and preferences of a particular market segment, reflecting the company's ability to create superior customer value. This matches with II.
• Tactical Targeting focuses on how the company can reach strategically important customers. This coordinates with the tactical approach, referring to specific actions a company takes to enact its strategy. This corresponds to IV.
• Target Attractiveness reflects the potential profitability or overall appeal of a specific market segment to the company, showing the ability of a market segment to create superior value for the company. This fits with I.
• Strategic Targeting concentrates on designing the company’s offerings according to the customers’ needs, in line with the company's overall strategic goals. This alpha aligns with III.
• Therefore, the correct matchup should be: A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III