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Critical Reasoning (CR) Practice Questions - 4 | GMAT Mock Test Series 2025 PDF Download

Q1: Premila: Everybody who works with your quality-assurance process has thoroughly internalized all aspects of it, but we also need a written explanation of every step in the process, just in case someone else has to apply the process.
Graciela: I agree. However, we don't need to spend any time documenting it, because we already have the procedures manual used by the Internal Programs department. All the steps in our process are the same as in the quality-assurance process used by Internal Programs.
Graciela's argument depends on the assumption that
(A) 
at least some people who currently work with Graciela's quality-assurance process have not thoroughly internalized all aspects of the process
(B) all steps in the quality-assurance process used by the Internal Programs department are explained in the procedures manual used by that department
(C) at least some of the steps described in the procedures manual used by the Internal Programs department are likely to be modified in the near future
(D) everyone who has thoroughly internalized all aspects of Graciela's quality-assurance process has done so as a result of reading the Internal Programs department's procedures manual
(E) if everyone who works with the Internal Programs department's quality-assurance process had thoroughly internalized the process, Internal Programs would not have developed a procedures manual
Ans: (B)
(A) at least some people who currently work with Graciela’s quality-assurance process have not thoroughly internalized all aspects of the process
Premila mentions in her premise that everyone who works with Graciela’s quality-assurance process has thoroughly internalized all aspects of it. Hence, this information goes against the premise, and the information provided is also not relevant to the conclusion. Eliminate this option.
(B) all steps in the quality-assurance process used by the Internal Programs department are explained in the procedures manual used by that department
This is a correct assumption. The reason Graciela concludes that they don’t need any documentation is because the steps are already documented. As Premila required every step to be documented, Graciela in arriving at her conclusion assumes that all steps in the quality-assurance process used by the Internal Programs department are documented. If not, her conclusion fails.
Let's keep B.
(C) at least some of the steps described in the procedures manual used by the Internal Programs department are likely to be modified in the near future
This information is not relevant to the conclusion. We can eliminate this option.
(D) everyone who has thoroughly internalized all aspects of Graciela’s quality-assurance process has done so as a result of reading the Internal Programs department’s procedures manual
However, Graciela’s team internalizing all aspects of the quality-assurance process is not the conclusion. The conclusion is centered around whether documentation is needed. Eliminate D.
(E) if everyone who works with the Internal Programs department’s quality-assurance process had thoroughly internalized the process, Internal Programs would not have developed a procedures manual
This information is not relevant to the conclusion. We can eliminate this option.

Q2: When storing Renaissance oil paintings, museums conform to standards that call for careful control of the surrounding temperature and humidity, with variations confined within narrow margins. Maintaining this environment is very costly, and recent research shows that even old oil paint is unaffected by wide fluctuations in temperature and humidity. Therefore, museums could relax their standards and save money without endangering their Renaissance oil paintings.
Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?
(A) 
Renaissance paintings were created in conditions involving far greater fluctuations in temperature and humidity than those permitted by current standards.
(B) 
Under the current standards that museums use when storing Renaissance oil paintings, those paintings do not deteriorate at all.
(C) 
Museum collections typically do not contain items that are more likely to be vulnerable to fluctuations in temperature and humidity than Renaissance oil paintings.
(D) 
None of the materials in Renaissance oil paintings other than the paint are vulnerable enough to relatively wide fluctuations in temperature and humidity to cause damage to the paintings.
(E) 
Most Renaissance oil paintings are stored in museums located in regions near the regions where the paintings were created.
Ans:
(D)
(A) Renaissance paintings were created in conditions involving far greater fluctuations in temperature and humidity than those permitted by current standards. --> This strengthens the argument but not an assumption in anyway.
(B) Under the current standards that museums use when storing Renaissance oil paintings, those paintings do not deteriorate at all. --> again strengthens but not an assumption.
(C) Museum collectors typically do not contain items that are more likely to be vulnerable to fluctuations in temperature and humidity than Renaissance oil paintings. --> It is clearly stated that such methods are used only when storing Renaissance oil paintings.
(D) None of the materials in Renaissance oil paintings other than the paint are vulnerable enough to relatively wide variations in temperature and humidity to cause damage to the paintings. --> the argument mentions "old paint" as being relevant, clearly assuming the canvas painted on and maybe even the frame are also resistant.
(E) Most Renaissance oil paintings are stored in museums located in regions near the regions where the paintings were created. --> No mention of any regions.
So D.

Q3: Aroca City currently funds its public schools through taxes on property. In place of this system, the city plans to introduce a sales tax of three percent on all retail sales in the city. Critics protest that 3 percent of current retail sales falls short of the amount raised for schools by property taxes. The critics are correct on this point. Nevertheless, implementing the plan will probably not reduce the money going to Aroca’s schools. Several large retailers have selected Aroca City as the site for huge new stores, and these are certain to draw large numbers of shoppers from neighboring municipalities, where sales are taxed at rates of six percent and more. In consequence, retail sales in Aroca City are bound to increase substantially.
In the argument given, the two portions in boldface play which of the following roles?
(A) 
The first presents a plan that the argument concludes is unlikely to achieve its goal; the second expresses that conclusion.
(B) 
The first presents a plan that the argument concludes is unlikely to achieve its goal; the second presents evidence in support of that conclusion.
(C) 
The first presents a plan that the argument contends is the best available; the second is a conclusion drawn by the argument to justify that contention.
(D) 
The first presents a plan one of whose consequences is at issue in the argument; the second is the argument’s conclusion about that consequence.
(E) 
The first presents a plan that the argument seeks to defend against a certain criticism; the second is that criticism.
Ans: (D)
BF1: New plan.
BF2: Verdict on the new plan.
(A) The first presents a plan that the argument concludes is unlikely to achieve its goal; the second expresses that conclusion. - Incorrect. The argument concludes that BF1 is likely to achieve its goal.
(B) The first presents a plan that the argument concludes is unlikely to achieve its goal; the second presents evidence in support of that conclusion. - Incorrect. Same error as in A.
(C) The first presents a plan that the argument contends is the best available; the second is a conclusion drawn by the argument to justify that contention. - Incorrect. We do not know whether the first plan is the best available.
(D) The first presents a plan one of whose consequences is at issue in the argument; the second is the argument's conclusion about that consequence. - Correct.
(E) The first presents a plan that the argument seeks to defend against a certain criticism; the second is that criticism. - Incorrect. BF2 is not a criticism.
Answer is (D).

Q4: A prominent investor who holds a large stake in the Burton Tool company has recently claimed that the company is mismanaged, citing as evidence the company's failure to slow production in response to a recent rise in its inventory of finished products. It is doubtful whether an investor's sniping at management can ever be anything other than counterproductive, but in this case it is clearly not justified. It is true that an increased inventory of finished products often indicates that production is outstripping demand, but in Burton's case it indicates no such thing. Rather, the increase in inventory is entirely attributable to products that have already been assigned to orders received from customers.
In the argument given, the two boldfaced portions play which of the following roles?
(A)
The first states the position that the argument as a whole opposes; the second provides evidence to undermine the support for the position being opposed.
(B) 
The first states the position that the argument as a whole opposes; the second is evidence that has been used to support the position being opposed.
(C) 
The first states the position that the argument as a whole opposes; the second states the conclusion of the argument as a whole.
(D) 
The first is evidence that has been used to support a position that the argument as a whole opposes; the second provides information to undermine the force of that evidence.
(E) 
The first is evidence that has been used to support a position that the argument as a whole opposes; the second states the conclusion of the argument as a whole.
Ans:
(C)
Let's understand the structure of the argument given:
Prominent investor's opinion/conclusion - the company is mismanaged,
Reasons/evidence/premise - citing a evidence the company's failure slow production in response to a recent rise in its inventory of finished products.
Author's opinion/conclusion - it is doubtful whether an investor's sniping at management can ever be anything other than counterproductive, but in this case, it is clearly not justified.
Reasons/premises - it is true that an increased inventory of finished products often indicates that production is outstripping demand, but in Burton's case indicates no such thing. Rather, the increase in inventory is entirely attributable to products that have already been assigned to orders received from customers.
The first BF is the conclusion of the investor that the author disagrees with. The second BF is the conclusion of the author.
Let's scan the options and eliminate all the options that do not follow this structure.
(A) The first states the position that the argument as a whole opposes; the second provides evidence to undermine the support for the position being opposed.
The second BF is not evidence but the conclusion of the author. Eliminate.
(B) The first states the position that the argument as a whole opposes; the second is evidence that has been used to support the position being opposed.
Same as A.
(C) The first states the position that the argument as a whole opposes; the second states the conclusion of the argument as a whole.
Both are correct.
(D) The first states evidence that has been used to support a position that the argument as a whole opposes; the second provides information to undermine the force of that evidence.
The first BF is not evidence but the conclusion/main position of the investor. Eliminate.
(E) The first states evidence that has been used to support a position that the argument as a whole opposes; the second states the conclusion of the argument as a whole.
Same as D. Eliminate.
Option C is correct.

Q5: Which of the following logically completes the passage below ?

One name-brand cereal manufacturer is about to reduce wholesale prices for its cereals by 20% because consumers have been switching from its cereals to cheaper store brands. The success of this strategy relies on the assumption that supermarkets will pass on all of the savings by lowering the prices they charge consumers for the manufacturers' cereals. Although supermarkets usually pass on such savings, in this case it is likely that supermarkets will not do so because ________.
(A) Several other name-brand cereal manufacturers are about to reduce the wholesale prices of their cereals
(B) The average price per box of name-band cereals has significantly increases over the past 10 years.
(C) Total annual sales of cereal—including both name-brand and store-brand cereals—have increased over the past 10 years.
(D) Supermarkets currently make far more profit on sales of store-brand cereals than on sales of name-brand cereals.
(E) The current prices of manufacturers' cereals are comparable to the prices of name-brand cereals produced by other cereal manufacturers.
Ans: (D)
Several other name-brand cereal manufacturers are about to reduce the wholesale prices of their cereals. Incorrect. Even if other name brand manufacturers reduce the price, there is no reason why store cannot pass the saving.
(A) the average price per box of name-band cereals has significantly increased over the past 10 years. Incorrect. This will impact the manufacturer not the stores. So, irrelevant.
(B) total annual sales of cereal - including both name-brand and store-brand cereals - have increased over the past 10 years. Incorrect. Even if the sales increased, there is no reason why store cannot pass the saving.
(C) supermarkets currently make far more profit on sales of store-brand cereals than on sales of name-brand cereals. Correct. If the store is earning more profit on sales of their brand why will they want to lose and earn less profit.
(D) the current prices of manufacturers' cereals are comparable to the prices of name-brand cereals produced by other real manufacturers. Incorrect. Comparison of brand to other brand is irrelevant, let's keep it to manufacturers' brand vs store brand. Irrelevant.

Q6: Which of the following most logically completes the argument below?
The expansion of large-scale farming in Africa and Asia has destroyed much of the natural vegetation on which elephants have historically depended, forcing them to turn to cultivated land to satisfy their enormous appetites. As a result, farmers have lost millions of dollars worth of crops annually. Yet even if elephant sanctuaries were created on a widespread basis to guarantee elephants sufficient natural vegetation, the raiding would likely persist, since ________.
(A) 
when elephants forage for food, they typically travel in herds.
(B) 
Foraging elephants have been known to cause substantial damage even to plants that they do not eat.
(C) 
Some of the land where crops have suffered extensive damage from elephants has been allowed to return to its natural state.
(D) 
Elephants tend to prefer cultivated crops to wild vegetation as a food source.
(E)
Elephant sanctuaries are usually created in areas that are rich in the natural vegetation on which elephants have historically depended.
Ans:
(D)
Background: The expansion of large-scale farming in Africa and Asia has destroyed much of the natural vegetation on which elephants have historically depended, forcing them to turn to cultivated land to sate their enormous appetites.
Premise: As a result, farmers have lost millions of dollars worth of crops annually.
Conclusion: Yet even if elephant sanctuaries were created on a widespread basis to guarantee elephants sufficient natural vegetation, the raiding would likely persist.
Reason for the conclusion: since
(A) when elephants forage for food, they typically travel in herds. - irrelevant; just told us the characteristic of the elephant but can’t explain the reason why they come to cropland but not just stay in wild.
(B) Foraging elephants have been known to cause substantial damage even to plants that they do not eat, seems relevant, but still can’t explain the point why they come to cropland but not just stay in wild.
(C) Some of the land where crops have suffered extensive damage from elephants has been allowed to return to its natural state, irrelevant, told us nothing about the reason why elephant would raid the crops
(D) Elephants tend to prefer cultivated crops to wild vegetation as a food source. That told us why elephant would continue to raid the crops because they like it much more than wild vegetation.
(E) Elephant sanctuaries are usually created in areas that are rich in the natural vegetation on which elephants have historically depended. Weakens, this option told us that elephant should more likely to eat in wild, not to raid the crops.

Q7: Birds and mammals can be infected with West Nile virus only through mosquito bites. Mosquitoes, in turn, become infected with the virus when they bite certain infected birds or mammals. The virus was originally detected in northern Africa and spread to North America in the 1990s. Humans sometimes catch West Nile virus, but the virus never becomes abundant enough in human blood to infect a mosquito.
The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following?
(A) West Nile virus will never be a common disease among humans.
(B) West Nile virus is most common in those parts of North America with the highest density of mosquitoes.
(C) Some people who become infected with West Nile virus never show symptoms of illness.
(D) West Nile virus infects more people in northern Africa than it does in North America.
(E) West Nile virus was not carried to North America via an infected person.
Ans:
(E)
Birds and mammals can be infected with West Nile virus only through mosquito bites. Mosquitoes, in turn, become infected with the virus when they bite certain infected birds or mammals. The virus was originally detected in northern Africa and spread to North America in the 1990s. Humans sometimes catch West Nile virus, but the virus never becomes abundant enough in human blood to infect a mosquito.

Type: Inference.

  1. Mosquitoes, in turn, become infected with the virus when they bite certain infected birds or mammals.
  2. Humans sometimes catch West Nile virus, but the virus never becomes abundant enough in human blood to infect a mosquito.

(A) West Nile virus will never be a common disease among humans. - Incorrect, will never is too strong, we know that humans do not transmit.
(B) West Nile virus is most common in those parts of North America with the highest density of mosquitoes. - Incorrect, do we know whether birds and mammals are present in that part?
(C) Some people who become infected with West Nile virus never show symptoms of illness. - Incorrect, the visibility of symptoms is not discussed.
(D) West Nile virus infects more people in northern Africa than it does in North America. - Incorrect, we are not given any information to make a comparison.
(E) West Nile virus was not carried to North America via an infected person. - Correct: on combining 1 and 2.

Q8: The level of sulfur dioxide in the atmosphere is slightly higher than it was ten years ago. This increase is troubling because ten years ago the Interior Ministry imposed new, stricter regulations on emissions from coal-burning power plants. If these regulations had been followed, then the level of sulfur dioxide in the atmosphere would have decreased.
Which one of the following can be properly inferred from the statements above?
(A)
If current regulations on emissions from coal-burning power plants are not followed from now on, then the level of sulfur dioxide in the atmosphere will continue to increase.
(B) 
There have been violations of the regulations on emissions from coal-burning power plants that were imposed ten years ago.
(C) 
If the regulations on emissions from coal-burning power plants are made even stronger, the level of sulfur dioxide in the atmosphere still will not decrease.
(D) 
Emissions from coal-burning power plants are one of the main sources of air pollution.
(E) 
Government regulations will never reduce the level of sulfur dioxide in the atmosphere.
Ans:
(B)
(A) If current regulations on emissions from coal-burning power plants are not followed from now on, then the level of sulfur dioxide in the atmosphere will continue to increase. we cannot imply this for the future as the levels may or may not increase.
(B) There have been violations of the regulations on emissions from coal-burning power plants that were imposed ten years ago. Correct answer since the regulations were imposed but the pollution is still increasing, this means there has been a violation in the regulation.
(C) If the regulations on emissions from coal-burning power plants are made even stronger, the level of sulfur dioxide in the atmosphere will still not decrease. Decrease in the levels is not discussed, so out of scope.
(D) Emissions from coal-burning power plants are one of the main sources of air pollution. Air pollution is out of scope as we are only discussing sulfur dioxide.
(E) Government regulations will never reduce the level of sulfur dioxide in the atmosphere. No such point.

Q9: The average giraffe is six and a half to seven foot tall at the age of six months. Therefore, if a six-month-old giraffe is over seven feet tall, it grew by more inches each month than the average giraffe does.
Which of the following indicates a flaw in the reasoning above?
(A) 
The giraffe's weight is not taken into consideration.
(B) 
Overall faster growth and faster growth per month are not the same.
(C) 
Some six-month-old giraffes are almost eight feet tall.
(D) 
Height is only one measure of normal development in giraffes.
(E) 
The average height at six months for giraffes in general is not the same as the average growth rate of a single giraffe.
Ans: 
(B)
The fact a giraffe is overall taller than average does not mean it consistently grew more than average in each month. For example, a tall giraffe could also be behind the average 5 out of 6 months, and then sprint beyond the sixth month average in the last month.
In other words, this argument confuses a speedier growth on average or in total with a speedier growth each and every month.

Q10: Ingrid: Rock music has produced no songs as durable as the songs of the 1940s, which continue to be recorded by numerous performers.
Jerome: True, rock songs are usually recorded only once. If the original recording continues to be popular, however, that fact can indicate durability, and the best rock songs will prove to be durable.
Jerome responds to Ingrid’s claim by -
(A) intentionally misinterpreting the claim
(B) showing that the claim necessarily leads to a contradiction
(C) undermining the truth of the evidence that Ingrid presents
(D) suggesting an alternative standard for judging the point at issue
(E) claiming that Ingrid’s knowledge of the period under discussion is incomplete
Ans:
(D)
(A) Intentionally misinterpreting the claim
The second person is not intentionally misinterpreting the claim as it cannot be proven that the second speaker is intentionally doing so.
(B) Showing that the claim necessarily leads to a contradiction
The second speaker does not provide contradictory solution to the first one.
(C) Undermining the truth of the evidence that Ingrid presents
No such attempts are done to undermine the facts provided by Ingrid since she is not pointing out any of the logic he mentioned.
(D) Suggesting an alternative standard for judging the point at issue.
The correct answer that she provides an alternate standard to judge the point.
(E) Claiming that Ingrid's knowledge of the period under discussion is incomplete.
Does not speak underminingly but provides alternate analysis.

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FAQs on Critical Reasoning (CR) Practice Questions - 4 - GMAT Mock Test Series 2025

1. What is Critical Reasoning (CR) in the context of the GMAT exam?
Ans. Critical Reasoning (CR) in the GMAT exam assesses a test-taker’s ability to analyze arguments, identify assumptions, evaluate evidence, and draw logical conclusions. The questions often present a short argument or statement, followed by questions that require the test-taker to evaluate the strength of the argument or identify flaws in reasoning.
2. How can I improve my Critical Reasoning skills for the GMAT?
Ans. To improve Critical Reasoning skills for the GMAT, practice regularly with sample questions, focus on understanding the structure of arguments, and familiarize yourself with common logical fallacies. Additionally, reading diverse materials, such as opinion pieces and editorials, can help enhance analytical thinking.
3. What types of questions are commonly found in the Critical Reasoning section of the GMAT?
Ans. Common types of questions in the Critical Reasoning section include identifying assumptions, strengthening or weakening arguments, drawing conclusions, and evaluating evidence. Each question type requires different analytical skills and understanding of argument structure.
4. Are there specific strategies for tackling Critical Reasoning questions effectively?
Ans. Yes, effective strategies for tackling Critical Reasoning questions include carefully reading the argument to identify its main conclusion, taking note of evidence presented, and considering alternative explanations. Additionally, eliminating clearly wrong answer choices can help narrow down options.
5. How much time should I allocate for Critical Reasoning questions during the GMAT?
Ans. It is generally advisable to allocate about 1.5 to 2 minutes per Critical Reasoning question during the GMAT. With a total of 10 questions in this section, managing time effectively is crucial to ensure that you can carefully analyze each argument and select the best answer.
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