Q1: Airplane manufacturer: I object to your characterization of our X-387 jets as dangerous. No X-387 in commercial use has ever crashed or even had a serious malfunction.
Airline regulator: The problem with the X-387 is not that it, itself, malfunctions, but that it creates turbulence in its wake that can create hazardous conditions for aircraft in its vicinity.
The airline regulator responds to the manufacturer by doing which of the following?
(A) Characterizing the manufacturer’s assertion as stemming from subjective interest rather than from objective evaluation of the facts
(B) Drawing attention to the fact that the manufacturer’s interpretation of the word "dangerous" is too narrow
(C) Invoking evidence that the manufacturer has explicitly dismissed as irrelevant to the point at issue
(D) Citing statistical evidence that refutes the manufacturer’s claim
(E) Casting doubt on the extent of the manufacturer’s knowledge of the number of recent airline disasters
Ans: (B)
Manufacturer says that X-387 is not dangerous. It has never had any serious malfunction or crashed.
The regulator says that it is dangerous. It creates hazards for other aircraft.
Note that the regulator does not object to the manufacturer's claim of no malfunction, etc. He increases the scope of the term 'dangerous' to include how it impacts others too.
(A) Characterizing the manufacturer's assertion as stemming from subjective interest rather than from objective evaluation of the facts
Incorrect. The regulator does not say that you are not evaluating facts. He doesn't imply that the manufacturer is being subjective.
(B) Drawing attention to the fact that the manufacturer's interpretation of the word 'dangerous' is too narrow
Correct. The manufacturer seems to apply the term 'dangerous' to an aircraft that malfunctions or crashes. The regulator applies the term 'dangerous' more broadly by including its impact on other aircraft too. As per him, an aircraft is dangerous if endangers other aircraft. The manufacturer ignores this particular aspect and includes only how the aircraft functions itself.
(C) Invoking evidence that the manufacturer has explicitly dismissed as irrelevant to the point at issue
Consider the term "explicitly" here. Does the manufacturer explicitly dismiss the point of endangering other nearby aircraft? No, he doesn't. He doesn't even mention this point. So he doesn't explicitly dismiss it. Hence the regulator does not invoke evidence against any explicit dismissal.
(D) Citing statistical evidence that refutes the manufacturer's claim
There is no statistical evidence given to refute the manufacturer's claim. Statistical evidence to do that would be something like "in 2002, X-387 had major malfunction during flights" etc.
(E) Casting doubt on the extent of the manufacturer's knowledge of the number of recent airline disasters
The regulator does not cast doubt on the manufacturer's knowledge of number of recent airline disasters.
Q2: Instead of relying on general tax revenue, as it now does, the government should rely more heavily on passenger fares to finance public bus and train service. In order for public transportation to be maintained without cutting service, users should pay all the operating costs even if these costs should increase. Such charges would be fair since only users benefit from public transportation.
Which of the following is a principle on which the position above could be based?
(A) The number of users of a public service should determine the amount of governmental financial support for the service.
(B) The amount of public transportation provided should be dependent on the operating cost of each transportation service.
(C) If necessary, general taxes should be raised to ensure that public transportation services are provided.
(D) The government should provide support from general tax revenue to any transportation industry that has passenger service available to the public.
(E) General tax revenues should not be used to finance public services that benefit a limited number of people.
Ans: (E)
Instead of relying on general tax revenue, as it now does, the government should rely more heavily on passenger fares to finance public bus and train service. In order for public transportation to be maintained without cutting services, users should pay all the operating costs even if these costs should increase. Such charges would be fair since only users benefit from public transportation.
Answer is (E).
Q3: Scientists conjecture that certain microbes consume organic molecules in exposed shale and similar sediments. In so doing, the microbes remove oxygen from the atmosphere and generate carbon dioxide, a gas that, evidence indicates, promotes global wanning. They also conjecture that these microbes reproduce more quickly at higher temperatures.
The scientists' conjectures, if true, provide the most support for which one of the following statements?
(A) The microbes' activity will soon diminish as the organic molecules in exposed sediments are depleted.
(B) Every organism that generates carbon dioxide reproduces more quickly at high temperatures.
(C) If global warming occurs, it will be exacerbated by the activity of the microbes.
(D) The microbes do not ren1ove any element other than oxygen from the atmosphere.
(E) A significant portion of the carbon dioxide in Earth's atmosphere was produced by the microbes.
Ans: (C)
If global warming occurs, it will be exacerbated(worsened) by the activity of the microbes.
As indicated in the passage (remove oxygen from the atmosphere and generate carbon dioxide, a gas that, evidence indicates, promotes global warming.)
So if global warming is already happening microbial activity will add to the cause.
Q4: John's literature professor believes that the ability to judge the greatness of literacy works accurately can be acquired only after years of specialized training. Such training is, in fact, what is required to become a literature professor. She is also well aware the the vast majority of the reading public does not have access to this specialized training.
Which one of the following statements must be true if what Johns literature professor believes is true?
(A) John's literature professor can judge the greatness of works of literature accurately
(B) Anyone who is not a literature professor cannot judge the greatness of works of literature accurately
(C) Specialized training like that received by John's literature professor should be more broadly available to members of the reading public
(D) Literature professors do not belong to the reading public
(E) The vast majority of the reading public is unable to judge the greatness of works of literature accurately
Ans: (E)
(A) John's literature professor can judge the greatness of works of literature accurately.
WE cannot say whether all the literature professor can judge the greatness of works of literature accurately.
(B) Anyone who is not a literature professor(NOT C) cannot judge the greatness of works of literature accurately (NOT A)
This translates into If NOT C, then NOT A..
Again we cannot say anything..
(C) Specialized training like that received by John's literature professor should be more broadly available to members of the reading public.
We cannot say anything about this. Nowhere mentioned in reasoning/para
(D) Literature professors do not belong to the reading public.
Too extreme. There may be few literature professors who belong to reading public group.
It says--the vast majority of the reading public does not have access to this specialized training.
It says vast majority NOT all.
(E) The vast majority of the reading public is unable to judge the greatness of works of literature accurately.
This can be said from the vast majority of the reading public does not have access to this specialized training(NOT B) , as this specialized training is MUST for judging the greatness of works of literature accurately(A).
We know that IF NOT B, then NOT A is true.
Q5: Consolidated Metals manufactures only ashtrays and umbrella stands. In 1983, ashtrays accounted for 40 percent of their production. In 1993 they produced more umbrella stands than in 1983, but the increase in the number of ashtrays they produced was even greater over the same ten year period.
If all the facts above are true, which of the following must also be true?
(A) In 1993, the percentage of Consolidated Metal's production devoted to ashtrays was greater than that in 1983.
(B) In 1993, Consolidated Metals produced fewer ashtrays than umbrella stands.
(C) In 1993, ashtrays were more cost-efficient to produce than they were in 1983
(D) The production of umbrella stands required more labor in 1993 than did ashtrays in 1983.
(E) In 1993, Consolidated Metals produced more ashtrays than umbrella stands.
Ans: (A)
________1983 ___ 1993
Ashtrays ___ 40 ___ > = 51 (Increase will be more than 10)
Umbrella ___ 60 ___ 70 (+10 from before)
Already note that say 60 increases by 10 so that is an increase of 16%.
Now 40 must increase by more than 10 so by more than 25%. This %age increase will be higher because 40 is less than 60. When you increase 40 by the same amount as you increase 60, the percentage increase to 40 will be more. When you increase 40 by a higher amount than 60, the percentage increase in 40 will be even more!
Which must be true? (Refer to the data taken above)
(A) In 1993, the percentage of Consolidated Metal's production devoted to ashtrays was greater than that in 1983.
Say 40 and 60 are both increased by the same amount 10. In 1993, production of ashtrays of the total will be 50/120 = 42% (higher than before). So if ashtrays are actually increased by a greater amount (more than 10), they will account for an even higher percentage of the total.
Hence, this will be true in all cases. When a smaller number is increased by a greater amount, it will take a larger share.
(B) In 1993, Consolidated Metals produced fewer ashtrays than umbrella stands.
We don't know. Perhaps they produced 51 ashtrays in 1993 or perhaps they produced 101.
(C) In 1993, ashtrays were more cost-efficient to produce than they were in 1983.
Not known. Argument doesn't talk about cost of production.
(D) The production of umbrella stands required more labor in 1993 than did ashtrays in 1983.
Again, irrelevant.
(E) In 1993, Consolidated Metals produced more ashtrays than umbrella stands.
We don't know. Perhaps they produced 51 ashtrays in 1993 or perhaps they produced 101.
Q6: Experts studying patterns of shark attacks on humans have noted that attacks tend to diminish when the water temperature drops below 65 degrees Fahrenheit. Until recently, researchers believed this was because sharks prefer warmer water, and thus are present in fewer numbers in colder water. However, new research shows that sharks are present in equal numbers in cold and warm water.
Which of the following, if true, best explains the apparent paradox?
(A) In general, humans prefer warm water.
(B) Sharks’ keen sense of smell is enhanced in cold water.
(C) In the Pacific, shark attacks tend to occur more frequently in the daytime.
(D) Of the more than 200 types of sharks present in the ocean, only three attack humans.
(E) The average temperature of the earth’s oceans is 55 degrees.
Ans: (A)
The paradox comes out to be this: Even though the number of sharks present in the cold and hot water are the same, sharks attacks tend to diminish in the cold water.
Let’s explore the options:
- In general, humans prefer warm water
Now this option solves the paradox. If humans prefer warm water, then the main reason for diminished shark attacks in cold water is not the temperature but the absence of humans in cold water. Let’s hold on to this. - Sharks’ keen sense of smell is enhanced in cold water.
Now this is something that increases the paradox even more. If the shark’s senses were enhanced in cold water, wouldn’t it be more beneficial for them to attack in cold water? Hence this option can be eliminated. - In the Pacific, shark attacks tend to occur more frequently in the daytime.
There is no mention of the time of day affecting the shark attacks in the passage. So we can eliminate the choice. - Of the more than 200 types of sharks present in the ocean, only three attack humans.
Now this might be true, but this does not solve the apparent contradiction between the temperature of water and shark attacks. So it is irrelevant. - The average temperature of the earth’s oceans is 55 degrees.
Not sure on how to explain it properly, but the average temperature of the ocean does not solve the paradox. It could have been lower or higher, but that would not tell us why the sharks attack less in cold waters below 65 degrees False!
So A is the answer
Q7: The number of tornadoes recorded annually in North America has more than tripled since 1953. Yet meteorologists insist that the climatic factors affecting the creation of tornadoes are unchanged.
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the apparent discrepancy described above?
(A) The factors affecting the creation of tornadoes were not well known to meteorologists before 1953.
(B) The intensity of the average tornado is greater now than it was in 1953.
(C) The number of tornadoes recorded annually has increased only slightly in the last five years.
(D) The amount of property damage done by tornadoes has grown substantially since 1953.
(E) Many more citizens are helping authorities detect tornadoes now than in 1953.
Ans: (E)
As in all Resolve the Paradox questions, this stimulus presents a surprising situation. While experts claim the climatic factors impacting the creation of tornadoes has remained constant, records show that the number of tornadoes recorded every year has more than tripled since 1953. To help resolve this conflict, we want to focus on the difference between the number of tornadoes that occur, and the number that are recorded. After all, if the climatic factors are constant, we would expect the number of tornadoes that occur annually to be consistent. Therefore, in our answer choice, we want to find something that addresses why so many more tornadoes are recorded now than in 1953.
- Answer choice (A): This answer choice addresses the meteorologist’s knowledge of the climatic factors that cause tornadoes. By saying that the meteorologists do not really understand what caused tornadoes prior to 1953, this answer choice attacks the experts providing data that supports the contention that tornado occurrences have remained constant. Remember though, that you cannot resolve a paradox by attacking the facts; you must take both parts of the paradox as true, and not attack either part. Since this answer choice does not explain how both parts of the paradox can be true, it is incorrect.
- Answer choice (B): This answer choice is incorrect because the stimulus is about the number of tornadoes, not the strength of the tornadoes. Since this answer choice does not address the numerical discrepancy, it is incorrect.
- Answer choice (C): In this answer choice, we only look at a small piece of the time between 1953 and the present. The stimulus focuses on the increase over the entire period, not just the past 5 years. There could have a technological advance 10 years ago that explains the increase in recorded tornadoes, or the increase could have occurred slowly but gradually over the past 50-60 years. This answer choice does not explain how the total number of tornadoes remained constant, while the reported number increased so drastically, it is incorrect.
- Answer choice (D): Like answer choice (B), this answer choice addresses the strength of the tornadoes, this time by discussing the physical impact. However, this answer choice still does not address why the number of tornadoes reported would have gone up so much.
- Answer choice (E): This is the correct answer choice. This is the only answer choice to explain why the number of tornadoes recorded increased. Notice how this answer choice is consistent with all the facts in the stimulus. If there are more people helping to identify and report tornadoes, it would make sense that the number of tornadoes recorded would increase as well. The overall number of tornadoes can be stable between 1953 and the present, but more are recorded as more people are tracking them.
Q8: A requirement of traditional pension plans is that an employee work for a company a number of years before gaining full rights to benefits from the company’s plan on retirement. Companies used this requirement to help them retain employees, but recent regulations have substantially reduced the number of years of work a company can require.
Nevertheless, companies have not experienced any significant loss of employees.
Which of the following, if true, helps to explain why companies are not experiencing problems in retaining employees?
(A) As the number of years an employee has worked for a company increases, the rate at which the company contributes to the employee’s pension benefits increases.
(B) Potential employees prefer to work for companies that offer them pension plans rather than for those that do not.
(C) Most companies that do not offer traditional pension plans offer plans in which their employees enjoy rights to retirement benefits as soon as they enter employment.
(D) An employee is more willing to leave an employer after gaining full rights to pension benefits than before gaining such rights.
(E) Employers have always been reluctant to lose highly trained employees.
Ans: (A)
Argument states that there was a factor that motivated employees to continue with a certain company. Now that mandatory requirement has been relaxed. Still employees are not leaving companies. Our task is to find such a "motivating" factor / enticing factor.
(A) This explains one reason that a particular employee would like to continue with the same company, rather than starting afresh. HOLD
(B) This does not provide any additional information. OUT
(C) This infact provides a reason, for leaving companies. This cannot explain why employees DON'T want to leave. OUT
(D) If this were true, the employee attrition would have increased. Obviously this is not the reason for retaining employees. OUT
(E) This is irrelevant.
A is the answer.
Q9: A survey of alumni of the class of 1960 at Aurora University yielded puzzling results. When asked to indicate their academic rank, half of the respondents reported that they were in the top quarter of the graduating class in 1960.
Which one of the following most helps account for the apparent contradiction above?
(A) A disproportionately large number of high-ranking alumni responded to the survey.
(B) Few, if any, respondents were mistaken about their class rank.
(C) Not all the alumni who were actually in the top quarter responded to the survey.
(D) Almost all of the alumni who graduated in 1960 responded to the survey.
(E) Academic rank at Aurora University was based on a number of considerations in addition to average grades.
Ans: (A)
The main flaw in argument is absence of information about which percent of class was surveyed. For example in class were 100 students. Survey ask 50 students about their ranks and 25 people say that they was in top 25%. So there is no contradiction if we will find information about which percent was surveyed
(also possible variant about wrong technic of survey or lying alumni, but usually than we see some proportions in argument than among premises should be some tricks with ratio and percents)
(A) From this premise we see that survey was wrong because not all alumni was surveyed and group was mainly from high-ranking alumni. Correct
(B) This premise give us information in survey was correct and this change nothing, we still have a paradox. Incorrect
(C) This variant actually worsen situation because it's true than we will have even more high-ranking alumni. Incorrect
(D) This variant doesn't resolve paradox, because for now we know that we ask all alumni so paradox not in proportion of people but in something another (maybe lying of alumni). Incorrect
(E) From this variant we know some additional detail about way of ranking but it change nothing because in any ranking should be only 25% of top alumni. Incorrect
Q10: Exit polls, conducted by an independent organization among voters at five polling locations during a recent election, suggested that the incumbent mayor—a Democrat—was going to lose the election by a wide margin. But, in fact, by the time the final results were tabulated, the incumbent had won the election by a narrow margin.
Which of the following, if true, would explain the apparent contradiction in the results of the exit polls?
(A) The people chosen at random to be polled by the independent organization happened to be Democrats.
(B) The exit poll locations chosen by the independent organization were in predominantly Republican districts.
(C) The exit polls were conducted during the afternoon, when most of the districts’ younger voters, who did not support the incumbent mayor, were at work.
(D) The incumbent mayor ran on a platform that promised to lower taxes if elected.
(E) An earlier poll, conducted the week before the election, had predicted that the incumbent mayor would win.
Ans: (B)
The key to this statistical argument is to understand that the sampling of the voters might not be representative of ALL the voters. Choice A says the voters chosen by the pollsters happened to be Democrats. But in that case, we would expect that the incumbent mayor, a Democrat, would have been predicted the winner of the election. Choice C says the exit poll was conducted at a time of day in which many people who disliked the mayor could not vote, implying that the actual election results for the incumbent would be worse, or at least no better. Choices D and E are outside the scope of the argument. The best answer is B, which gives a statistical reason for the skewed results: The exit polls were conducted in locations where the incumbent had little support—leaving open the possibility that his results would be stronger elsewhere.
