1. Which of the fololowing statements regarding Judiciary in India are correct?
1. In India Judiciary is not part of the State
2. In India the pattern and designation of subordiante courts in the State are not uniform
3. Munsiff's courts have both civil and criminal jurisdiction.
4. The pattern of subordinate courts in metropolitan areas is the same as that in districts
Which of the following statements regarding 'the advisory jurisdiction' of the Supreme Court are correct?
1. The opinion of the Supreme Coourt may be sought by the President on any question of law or fact.
2. In casee the opinion of the Supreme Court is sought it is bound to give it.
3. The advice given by the Supreme Court on a matter referred to it is binding on the President since the 42nd amendment.
4. Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court can also be exercised over disputes arising out of reference made over pre-constitutional treaties.
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Judge of the High Court can be removed from office during his tenure by
Restriction of the write jurisdiction of the High Courts under Article 226 of the Constitution is only possible through
What is the procedure required to be followed for the abolition of an existing Legislative Council in a State?
1. The Rajya Sabha must pass a resolution to that effect.
2. The State Legislative Assembly must pass a resolution to that effect by a special majority as prescribed in the Constitution
3. Parliament must enact a law abolishing the Legislative Council
4. The State Legislative Assembly must pass a resolution by ordinary majority as in the case of a bill.
Which of the following characteristics are essential to Federal Government
1. A supreme and written constitution
2. Separation of pwoers and the system of checks and balances
3. Distribution of powers between the Centre and States in a manner that each is independent of the other
4. Fundamental rights guaranteed to citizens
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Which one of the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties contained in the Indian constitution are correct?
1. Fundamental duties can be enforced through writ jurisdiction
2. Fundamental duties have formed a part of the Indian Constitution since its adoption
3. Fundamental duties became a part of the Constitution in according with the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee
4. Fundamental duties are applicable only to citizens of India.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Which of the following statements about a uniform civil code code is/are correct?
1. It is binding on the state that a uniform civil code must be made applicable to all
2. The provisions regarding a uniform civil code is contained in Part III of the Constitution
3. The provision regarding the uniform civil code is not applicable to the State of Jammu and Kashmir
4. The Supreme Court of India has directed that a uniform civil code must be made applicable to all within ten years
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Given below are two statements, one labelled as A and the other labelled as (R):
A: A bill which contains a taxation clause besides clauses dealing with other matters may also be a money bill.
R: All bills dealing with taxes are money bills.
In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct?
Which one of the following is directly related to the Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India?
Which one of the following statements regarding the exercise of judicial review in India is not correct?
In which of the followi 1. A reference made by the President on a question of law or fact
2. A case involving interpretation of the Constitution
3. A case involving a substantial question of law of general impotance
4. A case where the constitutionality of any law has been challenged
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:ng categories of cases has the Surpeme Court of India the power of decide?
Which of the following statements regarding the residuary powers in the Constitution of India are correct?
1. Residuary powers have been given to the Union Parliament
2. In the matter of residuary powers the Constitution of India follows the Constitution of Australia
3. The final authority to decide whether a particular matter falls under the residuary power or not is Parliament
4. The Government of India Act 1935 placed residuary powers in the hands of the Governor General
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Which of the following are the principles on the basis of which the Parliamentary system of government in India operate?
1. Nominal executive head
2. Vice President as the Chairman of the Upper House
3. Real Executive authority with the Council of Ministers.
4. Executive responsibility to the Lower House
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Consider the following statements:
A: Right to equality suggests that people ought to have an equal opportunity to demonstrate their particular capabilities and not be governed by the accident of their birth.
R: All men are equal in virtue, talent, rational capacity and endeavour.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Consider the following statements regarding the Single Transferable Vote System:
1. The candidate securing the lowest number of votes is eliminated and his votes are transferred to the next candidate in order of preference.
2. Candidates polling the necessary minimum quota of votes are elected and their surplus votes are transferred to other candidates in order of preference
3. An elector is required to indicate his choice of specified number of candidates in the order of his preference
4. The required number of seats are filled by a process of transfer of votes and elimination
What is the correct sequence in which the above requirements are to be followed? Choose the answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
The object of the adjournment motion in Parliament is to
Which of the following are the principal feature of the Government of India Act, 1919?
1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the Provinces
2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the Centre to the Provinces
4. Expansion and reconstitution of Central and Provincial Legislatures
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
Under the term 'Double Jeopardy' implied in Clause 2 of Article 20 of the Constitution of India, a person
Which of the following are the grounds on which discrimination of citizens for admission into educational institutions is constitutionally prohibited?
1. Religion and Race
2. Sex and Place of Birth
3. Nationality and Colour
4. Age and Nativity
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
Which of the following statements regarding Article 22 of the Constitution of India are correct?
I. The fundamental right conferred by this Article protects persons against arrests and detention in certain cases arrests.
II. This fundamental right is guaranteed both to citizens and non-citizens
III. The rights guaranteed under this provision are applicable to those arrested under laws providing for preventive detention
IV. The rights guaranteed under this provision are not applicable to enemy aliens
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
A writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Court which
Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Division 1. Bring the debate to a close
B. Guillotine 2. Formal proposal made by a member to the House
C. Motion 3. Relates to interpretation or enforcement of the rules of procedure or Constitution
D. Point of order 4. Concludes discussion on demand for grants
5. Mode of arriving at a decision
Codes:
Which of the following are the main jurisdictions of the High Court of a state:
1. Original jurisdiction
2. Appellate jurisdiction
3. Supervisory jurisdiction
4. Advisory jurisdiction
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
Which of the following is not correct regarding the Index of Industrial Production?
Which of the following is correct regarding Bharat Mala Project?
Consider the following statements:
I. The first draft of the economic survey is prepared by the Department of Economic Affairs in the Finance Ministry.
II. Then this draft is cleared by the Chief Economic Advisor and Secretary of Economic Affairs.
III. The final version is scrutinized by the Finance Secretary and Finance Minister.
IV. Most of the data are given by CSO.
Which of the above statements is correct?
What is special about India's economic growth?
I. The survey points out that India can be rated as among the best performing economies in the world as the average growth during last three years is around 4 percentage points higher than global growth and nearly 3 percentage points higher than that of Emerging Market and Developing Economies.
II. It points out that the GDP growth has averaged 7.3 per cent for the period from 2014-15 to 2017-18, which is the highest among the major economies of the world.
III. The real GDP growth is expected to reach 6.75 percent this fiscal and will rise to 7.0 to 7.5 percent in 2018-19, thereby re-instating India as the world's fastest growing major economy.
Consider the following statements:
I. The economic growth rate provides insight into the general direction and magnitude of growth for the overall economy. It demonstrates the change in a nation's or economy's income over a specified period of time.
II. Economic growth refers to positive change in economic output, but changes in economic output can be either positive or negative.
III. If an economy experiences three consecutive quarters with falling growth rates, it can be said that the associated economy is falling into a recession.
IV. If the economy begins to shrink, the percentage rate can be expressed in negative to demonstrate the income lost over the time period being examined.
Which of the above statem ents is correct?
Which of the following is correct?
I. GVA and GDP give a picture of economic activity from producers? (supply side) and consumers?(demand side) perspective, respectively, because GVA is the net receipt of the producers and GDP is the expenditure incurred by the consumers.
II. Both these measures need not match and there could be a sharp divergence due to net indirect taxes.
III. GVA provides a better measure of economic activity because GDP can record a sharp increase just on account of increased tax collections due to better compliance/coverage and not necessarily due to increase in output.
IV. GVA is a better reflection of the productivity of the producers as it excludes the indirect taxes, which could distort the production process