UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 21 (June 4, 2021) - UPSC MCQ

The regulating Act of 1773 was passed by the British Parliament to control the territories of the East India Company majorly in Bengal. This act was passed due to the misgovernment by the British East India government that introduced a situation of bankruptcy and the government had to interfere with the affairs of the Company.

This act permitted the company to retain its territorial possessions in India but sought to regulate the activities and functioning of the company. It did not take over power completely, hence called ‘regulating’.
The act provided for the appointment of a Governor-General along with four Councillors in the Presidency of Fort William (Calcutta), jointly called the Governor-General in Council.
As per this, Warren Hastings was appointed as the Governor-General of the Presidency of Fort William.
The Governors in Councils at Madras and Bombay were brought under the control of Bengal, especially in matters of foreign policy. Now, they could not wage war against Indian states without Bengal’s approval.
The company directors were elected for a period of five years and one-fourth of them were to retire every year. Also, they could not be re-elected.
The company directors were directed to make public all correspondence on revenue, civil and military matters with Indian authorities before the British authorities.
A Supreme Court of Judicature was established at Calcutta with Sir Elijah Impey as the first Chief Justice. Judges were to come from England. It had civil and criminal jurisdiction over the British subjects and not Indian natives.

Recently, the Supreme Court gave directions to the Government to explore the option of hydrogen-based technology to deal with pollution in the NCR region. The fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEV) is a device that uses a source of fuel, such as hydrogen, and an oxidant to create electricity by an electrochemical process, the fuel cell combines hydrogen and oxygen to generate electric current, water being the only byproduct. So, statement (1) is correct.
While the fuel cells generate electricity through an electrochemical process, but unlike a battery-electricity vehicle, it does not store energy and, instead, relies on a constant supply of fuel and oxygen. It works in the same way that an internal combustion engine relies on a constant supply of petrol or diesel, and oxygen. So, In that sense, it may be seen as being similar to a conventional internal combustion engine. However, it is not necessarily combined with an internal combustion engine. It uses a fuel cell, instead of a battery, or in combination with a battery or supercapacitor, to power its on-board electric motor. So, statement (2) is not correct.
Therefore the correct answer is (a).
Additional information:
The other electric vehicles are battery electric vehicle which have no internal combustion and run entirely on rechargeable batteries, Conventional hybrid electric vehicles that combine a conventional internal combustion engine system with an electric propulsion system, Plug-in hybrid vehicles that use both an internal combustion engine and electric power for motive power from batteries that can be plugged into a power source.

• Mangroves are the characteristic littoral plant formation of tropical and subtropical sheltered coastlines. Mangroves are trees and bushes growing below the high water level of spring tides which exhibits a remarkable capacity for saltwater tolerance.
• They are basically evergreen land plants growing on sheltered shores, typically on tidal flats, deltas, estuaries, bays, creeks and the barrier islands. Mangroves have many special features for adapting to such a stressful coastal environment.
• Mangroves occur in a variety of configurations. Some species (e.g. Rhizophora) send arching prop roots down into the water. While others (e.g. Avicennia) send vertical Pneumatophores or air roots up from the mud.
• Most mangrove vegetation has lenticellated bark which facilitates more water loss, produces coppices. Mangroves exhibit Viviparity mode of reproduction. i.e. seeds germinate in the tree itself (before falling to the ground). This is an adaptative mechanism to overcome the problem of germination in saline water.
• Some secrete excess salt through their leaves and some others block absorption of salt at their roots. The roots of some mangrove species (e.g. Bruguiera gymnorrhiza, Kandelia obovata) form into "knees" that project above the mud surface to facilitate gaseous exchange.
• Salt glands are present in the leaves of some mangrove species (e.g. Aegiceras corniculatum). Salt glands are used to concentrate and actively excrete the absorbed salts so as to regulate the salt concentration inside the mangroves.
• Hence option d is the correct answer.

South American , African , Indo-Australian and Antarctic plate was part of Gondwana land. So , option ( d ) is correct .
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Gondwana, also called Gondwanaland , ancient supercontinent that incorporated presentday South America, Africa, Arabia, Madagascar , India, Australia, and Antarctica. It was fully assembled by Late Precambrian time , some 600 million years ago , and the first stage of its breakup began in the Early Jurassic Period , about 180 million years ago. The name Gondwanaland was coined by the Austrian geologist Eduard Suess in reference to Upper Paleozoic and Mesozoic formations in the Gondwana region of central India, which are similar to formations of the same age on Southern Hemisphere continents.
According to plate tectonic evidence , Gondwana was assembled by continental collisions in the Late Precambrian (about 1 billion to 542 million years ago) . Gondwana then collided with North America, Europe, and Siberia to form the supercontinent of Pangea. The breakup of Gondwana occurred in stages. Some 180 million years ago, in the Jurassic Period , the western half of Gondwana (Africa and South America) separated from the eastern half (Madagascar, India, Australia, and Antarctica). The South Atlantic Ocean opened about 140 million years ago as Africa separated from South America. At about the same time, India, which was still attached to Madagascar, separated from Antarctica and Australia, opening the central Indian Ocean. During the Late Cretaceous Period, India broke away from Madagascar, and Australia slowly rifted away from Antarctica. India eventually collided with Eurasia some 50 million years ago, forming the Himalayan mountains, while the northward - moving Australian plate had just begun its collision along the southern margin of Southeast Asia - a collision that is still under way today .

Option (a) is the correct answer.
Raleigh Commission: Education, 1902
Hartog Commission: Education, 1929
Aitchison Committee: Civil services, 1886
Stratchy Commission: Famine, 1880
Mansfield Commission: Currency, 1886
Lee Commission: Civil services, 1924

Recently the idea of NEONs was unveiled by India-born scientist Pranav Mistry who heads Star labs.
NEONs are the worlds’ first artificial humans who look and behave like real humans and who could one day develop memories and emotions behind a digital screen. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Therefore the correct answer is (a).
Additional information on NEONs:
There are two core technologies behind virtual humans.
• First, there is the CORE R3 technology that drives the “reality, real-time and responsiveness” behind NEONs. It is the front-end reality that can give you real expression.
• Then we have the SPECTRA which will complement CORE R3 with the spectrum of intelligence, learning, emotions and memory
NEONs are the interface between services and technology. In the future, they may answer queries at organisations, read out news, welcome at a restaurant etc.

•  Under Article 102 of the constitution- Disqualification for membership
1. A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament
✓ if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder;
✓ if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court;
✓ if he is an undischarged insolvent;
✓ if he is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State;
✓ if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament Explanation For the purposes of this clause a person shall not be deemed to hold an office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State by reason only that he is a Minister either for the Union or for such State
2. A person shall be disqualified for being a member of either House of Parliament if he is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule.
• The Parliament has laid down the following additional disqualifications in the Representation of People Act (1951):
1. He must not have been found guilty of certain election offences or corrupt practices in the elections.
2. He must not have been convicted for any offence resulting in imprisonment for two or more years. But, the detention of a person under a preventive detention law is not a disqualification.
3. He must not have failed to lodge an account of his election expenses within the time.
4. He must not have any interest in government contracts, works or services.

The Amazon Rainforest is spread across 9 South American countries, so there' s many options. Brazil, Peru , Colombia, Venezuela , Ecuador , Bolivia, Guyana, Suriname and French Guiana are all a part of the rainforest.

Vernacular Press Act, 1878 was passed by Lord Lytton and came to be nicknamed ―the gagging Act”. The worst features of this Act were—(i) discrimination between English and vernacular press, (ii) no right of appeal. Under VPA, proceedings were instituted against Som Prakash, Bharat Mihir, Dacca Prakash and Samachar. (Incidentally, the Amrita Bazar Patrika turned overnight into an English newspaper to escape the VPA.) There was strong opposition to the Act and finally Ripon repealed it in 1882.
The Vernacular Press Act (VPA) was designed to ‘better control’ the vernacular press and effectively punish and repress seditious writing. 
The provisions of the Act included the following:
1. The district magistrate was empowered to call upon the printer and publisher of any vernacular newspaper to enter into a bond with the government undertaking not to cause disaffection against the government or antipathy between persons of different religions, caste, race through published material; the printer and publisher could also be required to deposit security which could be forfeited if the regulations were contravened, and press equipment could be seized if the offence re-occurred.
2. The magistrate’s action was final and no appeal could be made in a court of law.
3. A vernacular newspaper could get exemption from the operation of the Act by submitting proofs to a government censor.

Under the Indigen Genome Project the CSIR (Council of Scientific and Industrial Research) plans to undertake genome sequencing of a sample of nearly 1000 Indian rural youth to determine unique genetic traits, susceptibility, resilience to disease etc.
Such a considerable sample size of people is a representative of the country’s population diversity. Hence, statement (2) is not correct.
The Genome sequencing means figuring out the order of DNA nucleotides, or bases, in a genome - the order of Adenine, Cytosine, Guanines, and Thymine that make up an organism's DNA. Uracil is a part of the RNA nucleotides. Hence, statement (1) is not correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).
Additional information:
The human genome:
• It is made up of 23 chromosome pairs with a total of about 3 billion DNA base pairs.
• There are 24 distinct human chromosomes: 22 autosomal chromosomes, plus the sexdetermining X and Y chromosomes.
Human Genome Project:
• The Human Genome Project was an international research effort to determine the sequence of the human genome. The Project was coordinated by the National Institutes of Health and the U.S. Department of Energy.
• It was a publicly funded project initiated in 1990 to determine the DNA sequence. It was a huge success and helped usher in a new era of medicine.

• Standing Committee on Finance
1. The Committee is constituted under Rule 331C of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.
2. It consists of 31 members; 21 members from Lok Sabha, nominated by the Speaker, Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha nominated by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha.
3. Statement 2 is correct: The Chairman of the Committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst the members of the Committee from Lok Sabha. The term of office of the members of the Committee does not exceed one year
• Statement 1 is not correct: It examines matters concerned with the following Ministries/ Departments:
1. Ministry of Finance:
✓ Department of Economic Affairs,
✓ Department of Financial Services
✓ Department of Expenditure,
✓ Department of Revenue, and
✓ Department of Investment & Public Asset Management 
1. Ministry of Corporate Affairs,
2. Ministry of Planning (NITI Aayog), and
3. Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
• Functions of the Committee
1. The Committee has been entrusted with the following functions:
✓ to consider the Demands for Grants of the concerned Ministries/Departments and make Reports on the same to the Houses
✓ to examine such Bills pertaining to the concerned Ministries/Departments as are referred to the Committee by the Speaker, Lok Sabha or the Chairman, Rajya Sabha as the case may be, and make Reports thereon;
✓ to consider Annual Reports of the concerned Ministries/Departments and make Reports thereon; and
✓ to consider national basic long term policy documents presented to the houses, if referred to the Committee by the Speaker, Lok Sabha or the Chairman, Rajya Sabha as the case may be, and make Reports thereon.

The northern plains are generally described as flat land with no variations in its relief. It is not true. These vast plains also have diverse relief features. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The largest part of the northern plain is formed of older alluvium. They lie above the flood plains of the rivers and present a terrace like feature. This part is known as Bhangar. So, Statement 2 is correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
The Northern plains can be divided into four regions. The rivers, after descending from the mountains deposit pebbles in a narrow belt of about 8 to 16 km in width lying parallel to the slopes of the Shiwaliks. It is known as bhabar. All the streams disappear in this bhabar belt. South of this belt, the streams and rivers re-emerge and create a wet, swampy and marshy region known as terai. This was a thickly forested region full of wildlife. The largest part of the northern plain is formed of older alluvium. They lie above the flood plains of the rivers and present a terrace like feature. This part is known as bhangar. The soil in this region contains calcareous deposits locally known as kankar. The newer, younger deposits of the flood plains are called khadar. They are renewed almost every year and so are fertile, thus, ideal for intensive agriculture.

Statement 1 is incorrect. It asked the government of India to assume responsibility for the education of the masses.
Statement 2 is correct. As per the Wood’s dispatch, the medium of instruction at the primary level was to be vernacular while at the higher levels it would be English.
Statement 3 is correct. It highlighted female education, vocational education and teachers training
Other recommendations:
● It systematised the hierarchy from vernacular primary schools in villages at bottom, followed by Anglo -Vernacular High Schools and an affiliated college at the district level, and affiliating universities in the presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.
● It laid down that the education imparted in government institutions should be secular.
● It recommended a system of grants-in-aid to encourage private enterprise.

Inner Line Permit (ILP) is a document that allows an Indian citizen to visit or stay in a state that is protected under the ILP system. So, statement (1) is correct.
The ILP is obligatory for all those who reside outside the protected states. Currently, the ILP is operational in Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram and Nagaland. It can be issued for travel purposes solely. So, statement (3) is not correct.
An ILP is issued by the State Government concerned. So, statement (2) is not correct.
ILP’s origin dates back to the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulations, 1873 which prohibited “British subjects” or Indians from entering into these protected areas.
Therefore, (b) is the answer.

• States that are part of the Ganga River Basin are:
1. Himachal Pradesh
2. Uttarakhand
3. Delhi
4. Haryana
5. Rajasthan
6. Madhya Pradesh
7. Chhattisgarh
8. Uttar Pradesh o Bihar
9. Jharkhand
10. West Bengal

Offence committed by Juveniles are to be tried under Juveniles Justice Act not under this Act. So, Statement 1 is correct.
If a contractor fails to comply with road design standards, the penalty will be a fine of up to one lakh rupees. So, Statement 2 is correct.
If a vehicle manufacturer fails to comply with motor vehicle standards, the penalty will be a fine of up to Rs 100 crore, or imprisonment of up to one year , or both. So, Statement 3 is correct.
The central government will develop a scheme for cashless treatment of road accident victims during golden hour. The Bill defines golden hour as the time period of up to one hour following a traumatic injury, during which the likelihood of preventing death through prompt medical care is the highest. The central government may also make a scheme for providing interim relief to claimants seeking compensation under third party insurance.
So, Statement 4 is correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
The Motor Vehicles (Amendment ) Bill, 2019
The Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was introduced in Lok Sabha on July 15, 2019 by the Minister for Road Transport and Highways , Mr. Nitin Gadkari. The Bill seeks to amend the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 to provide for road safety. The Act provides for grant of licenses and permits related to motor vehicles , standards for motor vehicles , and penalties for violation of these provisions.
• Compensation for road accident victims: The central government will develop a scheme for cashless treatment of road accident victims during golden hour. The Bill defines golden hour as the time period of up to one hour following a traumatic injury , during which the likelihood of preventing death through prompt medical care is the highest. The central government may also make a scheme for providing interim relief to claimants seeking compensation under third party insurance. The Bill increases the minimum compensation for hit and run cases as follows: (i) in case of death , from Rs 25,000 to two lakh rupees, and (ii) in case of grievous injury, from Rs 12 ,500 to Rs 50,000.
• Compulsory insurance: The Bill requires the central government to constitute a Motor Vehicle Accident Fund , to provide compulsory insurance cover to all road users in India. It will be utilised for: (i) treatment of persons injured in road accidents as per the golden hour scheme , (ii) compensation to representatives of a person who died in a hit and run accident , (iii) compensation to a person grievously hurt in a hit and run accident, and (iv) compensation to any other persons as prescribed by the central government. This Fund will be credited through: (i) payment of a nature notified by the central government , (ii) a grant or loan made by the central government , (iii) balance of the Solatium Fund (existing fund under the Act to provide compensation for hit and run accidents), or (iv) any other source as prescribed the central government.
• Good Samaritans: The Bill defines a good Samaritan as a person who renders emergency medical or non-medical assistance to a victim at the scene of an accident. The assistance must have been (i) in good faith , (ii) voluntary, and (iii) without the expectation of any reward . Such a person will not be liable for any civil or criminal action for any injury to or death of an accident victim, caused due to their negligence in providing assistance to the victim.
• Recall of vehicles: The Bill allows the central government to order for recall of motor vehicles if a defect in the vehicle may cause damage to the environment , or the driver , or other road users. The manufacturer of the recalled vehicle will be required to: (i) reimburse the buyers for the full cost of the vehicle , or (ii) replace the defective vehicle with another vehicle with similar or better specifications.
• National Transportation Policy: The central government may develop a National Transportation Policy, in consultation with state governments. The Policy will: (i) establish a planning framework for road transport , (ii) develop a framework for grant of permits, and (iii) specify priorities for the transport system , among other things.
• Road Safety Board: The Bill provides for a National Road Safety Board , to be created by the central government through a notification. The Board will advise the central and state governments on all aspects of road safety and traffic management including: (i) standards of motor vehicles , (ii) registration and licensing of vehicles, (iii) standards for road safety , and (iv) promotion of new vehicle technology.
• Offences and penalties: The Bill increases penalties for several offences under the Act. For example , the maximum penalty for driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs has been increased from Rs 2 ,000 to Rs 10 ,000. If a vehicle manufacturer fails to comply with motor vehicle standards, the penalty will be a fine of up to Rs 100 crore , or imprisonment of up to one year , or both. If a contractor fails to comply with road design standards, the penalty will be a fine of up to one lakh rupees. The central government may increase fines mentioned under the Act every year by up to 10%.
• Taxi aggregators: The Bill defines aggregators as digital intermediaries or market places which can be used by passengers to connect with a driver for transportation purposes (taxi services) . These aggregators will be issued licenses by state Further , they must comply with the Information Technology Act , 2000.
It is well known that India is one of the most accident-prone countries in the world , accounting for nearly 1,50 ,000 deaths, 10% of all motor vehicles-related fatalities worldwide. According to the 2018 report of the World Health Organization , the highest number of road accidents occur in India worldwide. Even China , the most populous country, is behind us in this regard. As per the report of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, 2017; there are about 5 lakh road accidents occurred in India every year in which around 1.5 lakh people are killed.
There are around 1.49 lakh people died in 2018 in the road accidents with Uttar Pradesh registering the maximum spike in fatalities. So in order to prevent the menace of road accidents; the central government has amended the Motor Vehicle 1988 by the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill 2019. Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act 2019 has been implemented throughout the country since September 1, 2019.
Now the penalty has been increased 10 times on various violations.

Statement 1 is correct. In India, NKN with its multi-gigabit capability aims to connect all universities, research institutions, libraries, laboratories, healthcare and agricultural institutions across the country to address such paradigm shift. 
Statement 2 is correct. The leading mission-oriented agencies in the fields of nuclear, space and defence research are also part of NKN. By facilitating the flow of information and knowledge, the network addresses the critical issue of access and creates a new paradigm of collaboration to enrich the research efforts in the country.
Role of NKN:
Establishing a high-speed backbone connectivity which will enable knowledge and information sharing amongst NKN connected institutes
Enabling collaborative research, development and innovation amongst NKN connected institutes
Statement 3 is correct. Facilitating advanced distance education in specialized fields like engineering, science, medicine etc. Facilitating an ultra-high-speed e-governance backbone Facilitating connection between different sectoral networks in the field of research.

The National Anti-Profiteering Authority (NAA) has been constituted under Section 171 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017. It came into existence (just after the rollout of GST) for two years (not permanently) to deal with complaints by consumers against companies for not passing on GST rate cut benefits. So, statement (1) is not correct.
It will ensure that the reduction in the rate of tax or the benefit of the input tax credit is passed on to the consumers by way of commensurate reduction in prices. So, statement (2) is correct.
It falls under the aegis of the Ministry of Finance. NAA comprises of Chairman, four Technical members, a Standing Committee, Screening Committees in every State and the Directorate General of Safeguards in the Central Board of Excise & Customs (CBEC).
The orders of the NAA can be appealed against only in the high court. So, statements (3) and (4) are correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

• Certiorari: In the literal sense, it means ‘to be certified’ or ‘to be informed’. It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal either to transfer a case pending with the latter to itself or to quash the order of the latter in a case. It is issued on the grounds of the excess of jurisdiction or lack of jurisdiction or error of law. Thus, unlike prohibition, which is only preventive, certiorari is both preventive as well as curative. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Previously, the writ of certiorari could be issued only against judicial and quasi -judicial authorities and not against administrative authorities. However, in 1991, the Supreme Court ruled that the certiorari can be issued even against administrative authorities affecting the rights of individuals. Like prohibition, certiorari is also not available against legislative bodies and private individuals or bodies. Hence statement 2 is correct.

As the distance from the sea increases, its moderating influence decreases and the people experience extreme weather conditions. This condition is known as Continentality (i.e. very hot during summers and very cold during winters) . So , option (a ) is correct .

Press Act of 1835 or Metcalfe Act enacted by Charles Metcalfe (governor-general—1835-36) repealed the obnoxious 1823 ordinance and earned the epithet, ―liberator of the Indian press”. The new Press Act (1835) required a printer/publisher to give a precise account of premises of a publication and cease functioning, if required by a similar declaration. The result of a liberal press policy was a rapid growth of newspapers.
Licensing Regulations, 1823
The acting governor-general, John Adams, who had reactionary views, enacted these. According to these regulations, starting or using a press without licence was a penal offence. Later on, the Act was extended to cover journals, pamphlets and books. These restrictions were directed chiefly against Indian language newspapers or those edited by Indians. Rammohan Roy’s Mirat-ul-Akbar had to stop publication.

The President’s Rule implies the suspension of a state government and the imposition of direct rule of the Centre. This is achieved through the invocation of Article 356 of the Constitution by the President on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers. So, statement (1) is correct.
Recently in Maharashtra, President’s Rule was imposed because no party or alliance could form the government. However, the Maharashtra Assembly was kept in suspended animation and was not dissolved. The Supreme Court in S.R. Bommai case has said that the state legislative assembly cannot be dissolved until the Parliament approves the proclamation within two months. So, statement (2) is not correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

• The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution, mainly to give its recommendations on the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and amongst the States themselves.
• The XV Finance Commission headed by N.K. Singh sought to balance the principles of fiscal needs, equity, and performance for determining the criteria for horizontal sharing.
• The criteria used by the commission for devolution of funds include:
1. Population (15%),
2. Area (15%),
3. Forest and Ecology (10%),
4. Income Distance (45%),
5. Demographic performance (12.5%),
6. Tax Effort (2.5%).
• The commission has recommended an aggregate share of 41 percent of the net proceeds of Union taxes (divisible pool) to be devolved to States in the year 2020-21.
• Income distance is calculated as the difference between the per capita gross state domestic product (GSDP) of the state from that of the state with the highest per capita GSDP.
• Income Distance criteria is used to make the devolution formula more equalizing and progressive and provides higher devolution to States with lower per capita income (and lower own tax capacity). Here, per capita gross state domestic product (GSDP) is used as a proxy for the distance between States in tax capacity. Poorer states with low per capita income also have higher expenditure needs to provide for comparable services. Hence, the income distance criterion helps in providing for two-sided equalization.

The Southwest monsoon sets in over the Kerala coast by 1st June and moves swiftly to reach Mumbai and Kolkata between 10th and 13th June. By mid-July, southwest monsoon engulfs the entire subcontinent . So, Statement 1 is not correct .
When the axis of the monsoon trough lies over the plains, rainfall is good in these parts.
On the other hand , whenever the axis shifts closer to the Himalayas, there are longer dry spells in the plains , and widespread rain occur in the mountainous catchment areas of the Himalayan rivers. So , Statement 2 is not correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
A phenomenon associated with the monsoon is its tendency to have ‘breaks’ in rainfall.
Thus , it has wet and dry spells. In other words , the monsoon rains take place only for a few days at a time. They are interspersed with rainless intervals. These breaks in monsoon are related to the movement of the monsoon trough . For various reasons, the trough and its axis keep on moving northward or southward , which determines the spatial distribution of rainfall . When the axis of the monsoon trough lies over the plains, rainfall is good in these parts. On the other hand , whenever the axis shifts closer to the Himalayas, there are longer dry spells in the plains, and widespread rain occur in the mountainous catchment areas of the Himalayan rivers. These heavy rains bring in their wake , devastating floods causing damage to life and property in the plains. The frequency and intensity of tropical depressions too , determine the amount and duration of monsoon rains. These depressions form at the head of the Bay of Bengal and cross over to the mainland . The depressions follow the axis of the “ monsoontrough of low pressure”. The monsoon is known for its uncertainties. The alternation of dry and wet spells varies in intensity, frequency and duration . While it causes heavy floods in one part , it may be responsible for droughts in the other. It is often irregular in its arrival and its retreat.

Pair 1 is correctly matched. Bandi Jiwan was written by Sachindra Nath Sanyal.
Pair 2 is correctly matched. Pather Dabi was written by Sarat Chandra Chatterjee.
Pair 3 is correctly matched. The Philosophy of the Bomb was written by bhagwati charan Vohra.
Sachindra Nath Sanyal was senior revolutionary leader who was one of the founders of Hindustan Republican association/army. In his book Bandi Jivan he talked about the Life under British Colonialism.
Pather Dabi- A Novel written by Sharat chandra Chatterjee talks about a secret society where a young person who is highly educated talks about getting free from British colonial Rule.
The Philosophy of the Bomb- It was written by Bhagwaticharan Vohra as a counter argument to Gandh i ji’s article ‘Cult of the Bomb’. 

India and Asian Development Bank (ADB) have been partnering on the economic corridor approach for some time now. Economic Corridor Development contributes to and stimulates economic development along the route. The economic corridor approach involves leveraging infrastructure connectivity and developing urban areas as growth centres and gateways, to unlock the full potential of markets.
The ECEC is a multimodal, regional maritime corridor. It is India’s first coastal corridor.
It aims to transform the region into a top investment destination through infrastructure planning, project implementation, investment, and policy support. So, statement (1) is correct.
India-ADB partnership has yielded useful lessons on Economic Corridor Development (ECD), through their joint work on the East Coast Economic Corridor (ECEC). ADB, in September 2016, approved $625 million in finance to develop the Vizag-Chennai Industrial Corridor (VCIC) in Andhra Pradesh and plans to invest another $1.5 billion to the connecting Chennai-Kanyakumari Industrial Corridor (CKIC) in Tamil Nadu. VCIC and CKIC are parts of ECEC. ADB’s country partnership strategy (CPS) (2018–2022) for India projects about $5 billion commitment for economic corridor development over the five years. So, statement (2) is correct.
ECEC extends about 2,500 kilometres from Kolkata to Kanyakumari and covers four states of Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Odisha, and West Bengal. So, statement (3) is not correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

• Kalam (Kalamezhuthu) is a unique form of this art found in Kerala. It is essentially a ritualistic art practiced in temples and sacred groves of Kerala where the representation of deities like Kali and Lord Ayyappa, are made on the floor. Kalamezhuthu is practiced using natural pigments and powders, usually in five colours. The drawing is done with bare hands without the use of tools. The pictures are developed from the centre, growing outwards, patch by patch. Kalamezhuthu artists are generally members of communities like the Kurups, Theyyampadi Nambiars, Theeyadi Nambiars and Theeyadi Unnis. The 'Kalams' drawn by these people vary in certain characteristics. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Sohrai and Khavar paintings are popular in Hazaribagh region of Jharkhand. The folk art draws heavily from the forest life. Khovar refers to the decoration of the marriage chambers and Sohrai is the harvest painting on the mud houses, repairing it after the rains and offering a thanksgiving to the forces of nature. Brush or broken comb is used to paint. Natural ochre colours make up the palette — dhudhi mitti (white in colour), lal mitti or red oxide from the local mines, kaali mitti or manganese black and peeli mitti or yellow ochre. These colours are collected in the form of lumps and powdered. They are then mixed with water and glue and applied on the canvas or handmade paper. It is an art form practised by women at home, usually the mother-in-law and daughter-in-law combine. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Paitkar painting is a folk painting found in East India in the form of scrolls. The Paitkar painting occurs in the bordering areas of Jharkhand, West Bengal and Orissa and considered as the old age tribal painting of India. The painting is prepared by the painters known as ‘Chitrakar’ in much a traditional way. Paitkar painting reflects many realities of day-to-day human life, legends and mythologies of their society. The tribal artists in Jharkhand who have fostered this art of scroll painting that has long been used in story telling performance and also in socio-religious custom. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.

The correct option is B.
Despite its small size, the Strait of Hormuz is one of the world's most important shipping routes.
It is about 96 miles long and only 21 miles wide at its narrowest point, with shipping lanes in each direction just two miles wide.
Bounded to the north by Iran and to the south by Oman and the United Arab Emirates (UAE), the Strait of Hormuz connects the Gulf with the Arabian Sea.
The Strait of Malacca became an important maritime trade route between India and China. ... The strait was already established as one of the world's busiest shipping lanes, with Indonesia controlling the majority of the sea lane.

Statement 1 is correct. Raja Rammohan Roy was a firm believer of internationalism and in free cooperation between nations.
Statement 2 is correct. He protested against attempts to impose tax on tax-free lands, abolition of Company’s trading rights and removal of high export duty from Indian goods. He also raised demands for Indianisation of superior services, separation of executive from judiciary, trial by jury and judicial equality between Europeans and Indians.
Statement 3 is incorrect. David Hare founded the Hindu college. He was supported by Raja Rammohan Roy in this.

Nutrient Based Subsidy has been implemented with effect from April 01, 2010. Under the NBS Policy, a fixed rate of subsidy (in Rs. per Kg basis) is announced on nutrients namely Nitrogen (N), Phosphate (P), Potash (K) and Sulphur (S) by the Government on an annual basis. So, statement (1) is correct.
The government fixes the maximum retail price of urea and it reimburses manufacturers the differences between the MRP and production cost. The Centre also provides nutrientbased subsidy (NBS) on non-urea fertilisers. So, statement (2) is correct.
MRP of P&K fertilisers has been left open and fertiliser manufacturers/marketers are allowed to fix the MRP at reasonable rates. In effect, the domestic prices are determined by the demand-supply mechanism. So, statement (3) is correct.
Under NBS, the subsidy is paid to fertiliser companies and not the consumers. The NBS is passed on to the farmers through the fertiliser industry, as the companies reduce the price due to the subsidy. The payment of NBS to the manufacturers/importers of P&K fertilisers is released as per the procedure notified by the Department. So, statement (4) is not correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d)