UPSC Exam  >  UPSC Tests  >  UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - UPSC MCQ

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - UPSC MCQ


Test Description

30 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 for UPSC 2024 is part of UPSC preparation. The UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 MCQs are made for UPSC 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 below.
Solutions of UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 questions in English are available as part of our course for UPSC & UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 solutions in Hindi for UPSC course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for UPSC Exam by signing up for free. Attempt UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 | 100 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for UPSC preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study for UPSC Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 1

Which of the following can be the natural causes of wetland loss?
1. Sea level rise
2. Drought
3. Ground water abstraction
4. Erosion
5. Conservation efforts for aquaculture
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 1

Causes of wetland loss
Natural Causes:
• Subsidence
• Sea level rise
• Drought Hurricane and other storms
• Erosion
• Biotic effects (natural as well as induced due to disturbances)
Human Causes:
• Drainage for agriculture, forestry and mosquito control
• Dredging and stream channelization for navigation and food protection
• Filling for solid waste disposal, roads
• Conservation for aquaculture/mariculture
• Construction of dykes, dams and seawalls for flood control
• Discharge of pesticide, herbicide, nutrients from domestic sewage
• Mining of wetlands for peat, coal, gravel, phosphate and other minerals
• Ground water abstraction
• Sediment diversion by dams
• Hydrological alterations by canals, roads and other structures
• Subsidence due to extraction of ground water, oil, gas and other minerals
Hence, the answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 2

Consider the following statements regarding the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB):
1. It is the nodal drug law enforcement and intelligence agency of India responsible for fighting drug trafficking.
2. It is a statutory body.
3. It is under the administrative control of Ministry of Home Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 2

The Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) is the nodal drug law enforcement and intelligence agency of India responsible for fighting drug trafficking and the abuse of illegal substances. The chief purpose of the Narcotics Control Bureau is to fight drug trafficking on an all-India level.
The National Policy on Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances is based on the Directive Principles, contained in Article 47 of the Indian Constitution, which direct the State to endeavor to bring about prohibition of the consumption, except for medicinal purposes, of intoxicating drugs injurious to health with less than 20 branches. Banks like Regional Rural Banks have a higher Priority Sector lending targets than commercial banks.

1 Crore+ students have signed up on EduRev. Have you? Download the App
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 3

Which of the following statements with respect to corals is/are correct?
1. Increased absorption of carbon dioxide by the oceans aid the growth of Corals.
2. Extreme low-tide events such as those associated with El Nino are good for coral health.
3. Local and commercial fishing can overharvest corals.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 3

Coral bleaching is called so because zooxanthellae (which are golden-brown in colour) are expelled, leaving the white coral exposed. While the cause of bleaching is not yet fully known and extensive research is under way, it is believed that the most likely factor is unusually high seawater temperatures, approximately 30 °C (86 °F). Other factors linked to coral bleaching include rising acidity associated with the increased absorption of carbon dioxide by the oceans ( Hence, statement 1 is incorrect), ultraviolet radiation exposure, drying from extreme low-tide events (such as those associated with El Nino) (therefore statement 2 is incorrect), sedimentation, pollution, and disease.Since coral reefs harbour many species of fishes and other sea life, local and commercial fishing can overharvest them.
In their attempts to capture the animals of the reef, fishers may resort to using dragnets and explosives. Such practices scour or break up sections of the reef, destroying the corals and the numerous individual habitats they provide. Some coral reefs may be cloaked by excess sedimentation from terrestrial  erosion. (Thus statement 3 is correct.)

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 4

 Which among the following factors led to an increase in maritime trade between India and China?
1. Instability in Central Asia
2. Encouragement of commerce by South Indian kingdoms
3. Better understanding of monsoon
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 4

Tibet was ruled by a theocracy of Buddhist monks under the nominal suzerainty of China. The British efforts to establish friendly relations with Tibet had not yielded any result in the past and a deadlock had been reached by the time Curzon's arrival in India. The Chinese suzerainty over Tibet was ineffective and Russian influence at Lhasa was increasing, there were reports of Russian arms and ammunition coming into Tibet. Curzon felt alarmed and sent  a small Gorkha regiment under Colonel Young husband on a special mission to Tibet to oblige the Tibetans to come to an agreement.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 5

Consider the following statements:
1. Article 32 of the constitution provides the judiciary with due process of law.
2. Due process of law provides for more fair treatment of individual rights than procedure established by law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 5

Statement 1 is not correct: Due process of law is nowhere mentioned in the constitution.
Statement 2 is correct: Due process of law doctrine not only checks if there is a law to deprive the life and personal liberty of a person but also see if the law made is fair, just and not arbitrary. If SC finds that any law as not fair, it will declare it as null and void. This doctrine provides for more fair treatment of individual rights.
Under due process, it is the legal requirement that the state must respect all of the legal rights that are owed to a person and laws that states enact must conform to the laws of the land like – fairness, fundamental rights, liberty etc. It also gives the judiciary to access the fundamental fairness, justice, and liberty of any legislation. “Procedure established by law” means a law duly enacted is valid even if it’s contrary to principles of justice and equity. Strictly following procedure established by law may raise the risk of compromise to life and personal liberty of individuals due to unjust laws made by the law-making authorities. It is to avoid this situation, SC stressed the importance of due process of law.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 6

With reference to the Independence for India League, consider the following statements:
1. It was started by Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose.
2. It was started in opposition to the Gandhi's decision to withdraw Non-Cooperation Movement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 6

Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

  • The Nehru Report of 1928 recommended dominion status for India on lines of self -governing dominions as the form of government desired by Indians. The younger section regarded the idea of dominion status in the report as a step backward, and the developments at the All Parties Conference strengthened their criticism of the dominion status idea.
  • In 1928, Jawaharlal joined hands with Subhash to organize the Independence for India League to fight for complete independence and ‘a socialist revision of the economic structure of society.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 7

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 7

Pyrenees mountain chain of southwestern Europe consists of flat-topped massifs and folded linear ranges. It stretches from the shores of the Mediterranean Sea on the east to the Bay of Biscay on the Atlantic Ocean on the west. The Pyrenees form a high wall between France and Spain that has played a significant role in the history of both countries and of Europe as a whole. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
The Gulf of Boothia is a body of water in Nunavut, Canada. Gran Chaco is an extensive lowland plain of central South America. It is sparsely populated and is divided among Paraguay, Bolivia, and Argentina. Hence, pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 8

Which of the following are classified as Electoral Offences under Representation of People Act 1951?
1. Promoting enmity between communities on the basis of religion, class, caste etc.
2. Publishing Exit polls during conduct of elections.
3. Filing false affidavits.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 8

Representation of People Act 1951 specifies Corrupt Practices (under Sec 123) and Electoral Offences (Sec 125-136). Acts like Bribery, appeal to vote on basis of religion, promotion of Sati etc are considered Corrupt Practices and Acts like filing false affidavits, publishing results of exit polls during elections etc are covered under Electoral Offences. However, the two sets are not mutually exclusive, i.e. some acts like Bribery, booth capturing and promoting enmity between two communities are considered as both - Corrupt Practices and Electoral Offences

  • Promoting enmity between communities on the basis of religion, class, caste, language etc. is both an Electoral Offence (under Sec 125) and a Corrupt Practice (under Sec 123 (3A)) under RPA.
  • Publishing Exit or Opinion polls during elections is an Electoral Offence under Sec 126
  • Filing false affidavits or concealing information in affidavits is an Electoral Offence under Sec 125(A). Therefore, all three options are correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 9

Aggregate Measurement of Support is related to:
1. Amber Box
2. Blue Box
3. Green Box
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 9

WTO’s Agreement on Agriculture (AoA) classifies domestic support or subsidies given by the government to farmers into different categories. An important type of subsidies or supports is Aggregate Measurement of Support (AMS). The AMS represents trade distorting domestic support and is referred as the “amber box”.
The AMS means annual level of support (subsidies) expressed in monetary terms, provided for an agricultural  product in favour of  the producers (product specific) of  the basic agricultural product and non-product specific support provided in favour of agricultural producers in general.
As per the WTO provision, AMS is a trade distorting subsidy. Since it distorts trade by directly influencing production and price in an economy, the AMS is categorized as a ‘reducible’, ‘non permissible’ or ‘nonexempted’ subsidy.
India and China jointly submitted a proposal to the World Trade Organization (WTO) calling for the elimination - by developed countries - of the most trade-distorting form of farm subsidies which is known as Aggregate Measurement Support or Amber box subsidy.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 10

With reference to index linked bonds, consider the following statements:
1. It is a bond in which payment of interest income on the principal is usually related to specific price index.
2. It provides protection to investors by shielding them from changes in the underlying index.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 10

An index-linked bond is a bond in which payment of interest income on the principal is related to a specific price index, usually the Consumer Price Index. This feature provides protection to investors by shielding them from changes in the underlying index. The bond's cash flows are adjusted to ensure that the holder of the bond receives a known real rate of return. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
A bond investor holds a bond with a fixed level of interest rate. The interest payments, known as coupons, are usually paid semi-annually and represent the bondholder’s return on investing in the bond. However, as time goes by, inflation also increases, thereby, eroding the value of the investor’s annual return. This is unlike returns on equity and property, in which dividend and rental income increases with inflation. To mitigate the impact of inflation, index-linked bonds are issued by the government. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 11

Which among the following can be the advantages of using the 'Embryo Transfer Technology' in animal husbandry?
1. It can be used to increase the number of offsprings.
2. It can be used to improve genetic structure of offsprings.
3. The offsprings born will be free from disease.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 11

Department of Animal husbandry, Dairying and Fisheries (Ministry of Agriculture and Family Welfare) in cooperation with 12 States has undertaken a Mass Embryo Transfer programme in Indigenous Breeds under the scheme, National Mission on Bovine Productivity. Under this programme, embryos of higher genetic merit indigenous bovines are being transferred in to surrogate cows. Embryos of Indigenous breeds such as Sahiwal, Gir, Red Sindhi, Ongole, Deoni and Vechur have been proposed to be transferred under this programme.
It has been planned to carry out 440 embryo transfers during October 2-10, 2017 throughout the country. The programme is implemented with the objective of conservation and development of indigenous breeds under RashtriyaGokul Mission.
Through the use of ETT, (i) a farmer can get a 5-6 fold increase in number of offsprings , (ii) the calves so born will be of high genetic merit and (iii) the offsprings born will be free from diseases. Hence, all statements are correct.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 12

Which of the following are mega-diverse countries?
1. China
2. Australia
3. New Zealand
4. India
5. South Africa
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 12

The megadiverse countries, first used in the 1990s, are a group of countries that harbor the majority of the Earth's species and are therefore considered extremely biodiverse. Conservation International identified 17 megadiverse countries in 1998. The identified Megadiverse Countries are: United States of America, Mexico, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Venezuela, Brazil, Democratic Republic of Congo, South Africa, Madagascar, India, Malaysia, Indonesia, Philippines, Papua New Guinea, China and Australia.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 13

Consider the following statements:
1. The term 'forest cover' refers to all lands more than one hectare in area, having a tree canopy density of more than 10%.
2. The term 'forest area' generally refers to all the geographic areas recorded as forest in government records.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 13

The term 'Forest Area' (or recorded forest area) generally refers to all the geographic areas recorded as forest in government records. Recorded forest areas largely comprise Reserved Forests (RF) and Protected Forests (PF), which have been constituted under the provisions of Indian Forest Act, 1927. Besides RFs and PFs, the recorded forest area may include all such areas, which have been recorded as forests in the revenue records or have been constituted so under any State Act or local laws. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
On the other hand, the term 'Forest Cover' as used in the 'SFR' refers to all lands more than one hectare in area, having a tree canopy density of more than 10%. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Thus the term 'forest area' denotes the legal status of the land as per the government records, whereas the term 'forest cover' indicates presence of trees over any land.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 14

Consider the following:
1. Nicobar Megapode
2. Asiatic Wild Ass
3. Asian Wild Buffalo

Which of the above is/are naturally found in India?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 14

Nicobar Megapode is listed as Vulnerable in IUCN Red list data and it is endemic to the Nicobar Islands and it become regionally extinct from Myanmar. It inhabits forests and secondary growth, with the greatest concentrations in coastal forests. The key threat is the loss of coastal forest through conversion to agriculture (coconut, banana and cashew plantations and rice-paddy cultivation), road development projects, which threaten to fragment habitat blocks, particularly on Great Nicobar, and settlement expansion.
Wild Ass (Asiatic Wild Ass) - historically, it ranged throughout the steppes and desert steppes of the Russian Federation, Mongolia, northern China, northwest India, Central Asia, the Middle East, including Iran, the Arabian Peninsula and Asia Minor. At present, it is extinct in most of the ranges. The highest population is in Southern Mongolia. In India, the species survives as isolated populations in the Little Rann of Kutch.
Asian Wild Buffalo is listed as endangered in IUCN Red list data. It is native of Bhutan; Cambodia; India; Myanmar; Nepal; Thailand. It has become extinct from Bangladesh; Indonesia; Lao People's Democratic Republic; Sri Lanka.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 15

A cup with a hole in the bottom drains slower when filled with honey than when it is filled with water. This is because of

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 15

If a cup with a hole in the bottom is taken and honey is poured into it, it is found that the cup drains very slowly. If the same cup is filled with water, the cup drains much more quickly. This is because honey's viscosity is large compared to water's viscosity.
Viscosity is a measure of a fluid's resistance to flow. It describes the internal friction of a moving fluid. A fluid with large viscosity resists motion because its molecular makeup gives it a lot of internal friction. A fluid with low viscosity flows easily because its molecular makeup results in very little friction when it is in motion.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 16

Government of India has come up with new Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017. These rules will be applicable to which of the following wetland or wetland complexes?
1. Wetlands categorised as 'wetlands of international importance' under the Ramsar Convention.
2. Wetlands as notified by the Central Government.
3. Wetlands as notified by the State Governments.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 16

As per Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change notification (Part II, section 3) Applicability of Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017 are given as follows:- These rules shall apply to the following wetlands or wetlands complexes, namely:—
(a) Wetlands categorised as 'wetlands of international importance' under the Ramsar Convention;
(b) Wetlands as notified by the Central Government, State Government and Union Territory Administration;

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 17

Consider the following statements with respect to Strategic Debt Restructuring (SDR) scheme of RBI:
1. The scheme was launched to deal with Non Performing Assets (NPA) problem.
2. Under the scheme, the group of lender can take control of management of the defaulting company.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 17

Statement 1 is correct. The SDR scheme was introduced by the RBI in June 2015 to help banks recover their loans from defaulting companies.
Statement 2 is correct. The SDR initiative can be taken by the group of banks or JLF that have given loans to the particular defaulted entity. The Joint Lender Forum (JLF) is a committee comprised of the entire bankers who have given loans to a stressed borrower. Under SDR, JLF gets the right to convert the full or part of their loans into equity shares in the loan taken company. They can even take over the management of the company. RBI has recently abolished almost all of the loan restructuring schemes like SDR, Corporate Debt Restructuring, Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets or S4A etc.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 18

'INSV Tarini' recently seen in news is a

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 18
  • INSV Tarini is an indigenously built sailing vessel which is being used for the first-ever Indian circumnavigation of the globe by an all-women crew.
  • The expedition titled ‘NavikaSagarParikrama’ is aimed at promoting women empowerment in the country and ocean sailing by the Indian Navy.
  • Additional aims of the Expedition are as follows:- (a) Nari Shakti- In consonance with the National policy to empower women to attain their full potential. (b) Environment and Climate Change - Sailing encourages the use of environment friendly non-conventional renewable energy resources which affects the life of women. (c) The voyage also aims to show case the ‘Make in India’ initiative by sailing onboard the indigenously built INSV Tarini. (d) Meteorological/ Ocean/ Wave Data Observation-The crew would also collate and update Meteorological/ Ocean/ Wave data on a daily basis for subsequent analysis by research and development organisations like the Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) (e) Marine Pollution-The crew would monitor and report marine pollution on the high seas. (f) Interaction with Local PIOs.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 19

Which of the following Parliamentary committees is/are exclusive to the members of the LokSabha only?
1. Committee on Private Members' Bills and Resolutions
2. Committee on Public Undertakings
3. Estimates Committee
4. Committee on Absence of Members
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 19

Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions: This committee classifies bills and allocates time for the discussion on bills and resolutions introduced by private members. This is a special committee of the LokSabha and consists of 15 members including the Deputy Speaker as its  chairman. The RajyaSabha does not have any such committee. The same function in the RajyaSabha is performed by the Business Advisory Committee of that House.
Committee on Public Undertakings: This committee was created in 1964 on the recommendation of the Krishna Menon Committee. Originally, it had 15 members (10 from the LokSabha and 5 from the RajyaSabha). However, in 1974, its membership was raised to 22 (15 from the LokSabha and 7 from the RajyaSabha).
Estimates Committee: The origin of this committee can be traced to the standing financial committee set up in 1921. The first Estimates Committee in the post independence era was constituted in 1950 on the recommendation of John Mathai, the then finance minister. Originally, it had 25 members but in 1956 its membership was raised to 30. All the thirty members are from LokSabha only. The RajyaSabha has no representation in this committee.
Committee on Absence of Members: This committee considers all applications from members for leave of absence from the sittings of the House, and examines the cases of members who have been absent for a period of 60 days or more without permission. It is a special committee of the LokSabha and consists of 15 members. There is no such committee in the RajyaSabha and all such matters are dealt by the House itself.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 20

Who among the following were prominent women scholars of the Vedic Era?
1. Lopamudra
2. Gargi
3. Andal
4. Maitreyi
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 20
  • Women of the Vedic period (circa 1500-1200 BCE), were epitomes of intellectual and spiritual attainments. The Vedas have volumes to say about these women, who both complemented and supplemented their male partners.
  • Significant female figures of the Vedic period include- Ghosha, Lopamudra, SulabhaMaitreyi, and Gargi.
  • Andal was a Bhakti saint who composed hymns in eighth-century Tamil. She was the only woman among the twelve Alwars – medieval Vaishnavite poets who took the scriptures to the masses, composing hymns in Tamil that are considered the equivalent of the Sanskrit Vedas.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 21

The Freedom of religion as provided under Articles 25 and 26 is/are subject to which of the reasonable restrictions?
1. Public Health
2. Public order
3. Morality
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 21

Article 25 and 26 guaranted Religious rights (Art.25. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of Religion and Art. 26.Freedom to manage religious affairs- (a) to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes; (b) to manage it own affairs in matters of religion; (e) to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and (d) to administer such property in accordance with law.) Both are Subject to Morality, Public Health & Public order.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 22

With reference to the All India Kisan Sabha, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Swami Sahjanand Saraswati was the first president.
2. Its formation was opposed by the Indian National Congress.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 22
  • Statement 1 is correct: The All India Kisan Congress/Sabha was founded in Lucknow in April 1936 with Swami Sahjanand Saraswati as its first president and N.G. Ranga as its first general secretary. A kisan manifesto was issued and a periodical under IndulYagnik started.
  • Statement 2 is not correct: The AIKS and Congress held their sessions in Faizpur in 1936. The Congress manifesto (especially the agrarian policy) for the 1937 provincial elections was strongly influenced by AIKS agenda.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 23

With reference to banking sector the Prompt Corrective Action framework of RBI is applicable to:
1. Public sector banks
2. Private commercial banks
3. Co-operative banks
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 23

As a part of Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) Framework, the RBI has specified certain regulatory trigger points, in terms of three parameters, i.e. capital to risk weighted assets ratio (CRAR), net non-performing assets (NPA) and Return on Assets (RoA), for initiation of certain structured and discretionary actions in respect of banks hitting such trigger points. The PCA framework is applicable only to commercial banks both public and private and not extended to co-operative banks, non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) and Financial Managment Information System.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 24

Consider the following statements regarding the term 'Green Bonds', often seen in news:
1. A green bond is a debt instrument issued by an entity for raising funds from investors for financing renewable and sustainable energy projects.
2. Issuance and listing of green bonds in India is governed by the Securities and Control Board of India (SEBI) regulations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 24
  • Both the statements are correct.
  • A green bond is like any other bond where a debt instrument is issued by an entity for raising funds from investors. However, what differentiates a green bond from other bonds is that the proceeds of a Green Bond offering are 'ear- marked' for use towards financing green projects.
  • According to SEBI, a debt security will be considered green bonds if the funds raised through it will be used for renewable and sustainable energy including wind, solar, bioenergy and other sources of energy which use clean technology. Among others, such funds would be used for clean transportation; sustainable water management; climate change adaptation; energy efficiency including efficient and green buildings; and sustainable waste management.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 25

Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to Strip Cropping?
1. In strip farming different crops are cultivated in alternate strips.
2. Strips are generally perpendicular to the contour to allow for better water absorption in the soil.
Select correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 25
  • Statement 1 is correct: In strip farming different crops are cultivated in alternate strips. Thus various crops ripen at different times of the year and are harvested at intervals. This ensures that at no time of the year the entire field is left exposed. This helps in soil conservation.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Strips are kept parallel to the contour to allow better absorption of water by the soil by slowing down the run off.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 26

Who among the following were associated with judicial reform in India?
1. Warren Hastings
2. William Bentinck
3. Lord Ripon
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 26
  • Reforms under Warren Hastings (1772-1785): District Diwani Adalats were established in districts to try civil disputes.
  • District Fauzdari Adalats were set up to try criminal disputes and were placed under an Indian officer assisted by qazis and muftis.
  • Reforms under William Bentinck (1828-1833): The four Circuit Courts were abolished and their functions transferred to collectors under the supervision of the commissioner of revenue and circuit. Sadar Diwani Adalat and a Sadar Nizamat Adalat were set up at Allahabad for the convenience of the people of Upper Provinces. Till now, Persian was the official language in courts. Now, the suitor had the option to use Persian or a vernacular language, while in the Supreme Court English language replaced Persian.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 27

In South Africa, Mahatma Gandhi organised Satyagraha against:
1. Legislation imposing restrictions on Indian immigration.
2. Supreme Court's order invalidating all marriages not conducted according to Christian rites.
3. Compulsory requirement of carrying registration certificate at all times.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 27

In South Africa, Mahatma Gandhi organised Passive resistance or Satyagraha against:

  • A new legislation in South Africa made it compulsory for Indians there to carry at all times certificates of registration with their fingerprints. The Indians under Gandhi's leadership decided not to submit to this discriminatory measure. Gandhi  formed  the  Passive  Resistance  Association  to  conduct  the  campaign. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • There were restrictions imposed on immigration of the Indians in South Africa, through a legislation called Immigration Regulation Act, 1913, which the Indians defied by crossing over from one province to another and by refusing to produce licences. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • A poll tax of three pounds was imposed on all ex -indentured Indians. The inclusion of demands for the abolition of poll tax (which was too much for the poor ex-indentured Indians who earned less than ten shillings a month) in the ongoing struggle further widened the base of the campaign.
  • Fuel was added to the fire by a Supreme Court order which invalidated all marriages not conducted according to Christian rites and by the registrar of marriages. By implication, Hindu, Muslim and Parsi marriages were illegal and children born out of such marriages, illegitimate. The Indians treated this judgement as an insult to the honour of their women and many women were drawn into the movement because of this indignity. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 28

With reference to Keys Affair incident, consider the following statements:
1. It was related to the issue of granting separate electorate to Sikhs.
2. It took place during the Non Cooperation Movement.
3. Baba Kharak Singh was the major leader associated with it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 28
  • Statement 1 is not correct: A major victory was won by the Akalis in the Keys Affair‘ in October 1921. The Government made an effort to keep possession of the keys of the Toshakhana of the Golden Temple. The Akalis immediately reacted, and organized massive protest meetings; tens of Akalijathas reached Amritsar immediately. The SGPC advised Sikhs to join the hartal on the day of the arrival of the Prince of Wales in India.
  • Statement 2 and 3 are correct: The Government retaliated by arresting the prominent, militant nationalist leaders of the SGPC like Baba Kharak Singh and Master Tara Singh. But, instead of dying down, the movement began to spread to the remotest rural areas and the army. The Non-Cooperation Movement was at its height in the rest of the country. The Government once again decided not to confront Sikhs on a religious issue. It released all those arrested in the 'Keys Affair' and surrendered the keys of the Toshakhana to Baba Kharak Singh, head of the SGPC.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 29

With respect to World Economic Forum, consider the following statements:
1. It is a nonprofit foundation under IMF.
2. It aims to improve the state of the world and shape global agendas by engaging business, political, academic and other leaders of society.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 29

The World Economic Forum (WEF) is a Swiss nonprofit foundation, based in Geneva, Switzerland. Each year since 2003, the Open Forum convenes in January at the local Swiss Alpine School in the heart of Davos, attracting leaders from all walks of life. Its mission is cited as 'committed to improving the state of the world by engaging business, political, academic, and other leaders of society to shape global, regional, and industry agendas'. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and 2 is correct. The World Economic Forum publishes a comprehensive series of reports which examine in detail the broad range of global issues it seeks to address. It publishes reports like Global Competitiveness Report, the Global Risks Report and the Global Gender Gap Report.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 30

In the context of ecology, which of the following best defines Protocooperation?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 - Question 30

Protocooperation (facultative mutualism)- An interaction between organisms of different species in which both organisms benefit, but neither is dependent on the relationship. Both of them can survive without the other.

View more questions
Information about UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 Page
In this test you can find the Exam questions for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10 solved & explained in the simplest way possible. Besides giving Questions and answers for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Test - 10, EduRev gives you an ample number of Online tests for practice

Top Courses for UPSC

Download as PDF

Top Courses for UPSC