Practice Test: Full Length - 1 - UPSC MCQ

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 359 of Constitution provides for suspension of enforcement of fundamental rights. Suspension of enforcement of fundamental rights implies right to constitutional remedies are not immune from suspension under any kind of national emergency. Right to constitutional remedies gets suspended only through Presidential orders. Presidential order mentions which all right’s enforcement are suspended. The article applies in all cases of national emergency i.e. war, external aggression or armed rebellion. Also,

• Statement 2 is correct: Article 358 of Constitution provides for automatic suspension of freedom of speech and expression (Article 19). 44th Amendment limits the suspension of freedom of speech and expression only when National Emergency is imposed on the grounds of war and external aggression (external emergency) and not in case of internal emergency (armed rebellion).

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Indus Valley was predominated by bronze age culture. Kalibangan in Rajasthan has given the evidence of the earliest (2800 BC) ploughed agricultural field, revealed through an excavation. Plough used at Kalibangan was probably of wooden and copper and not of iron.

• Statement 2 is correct: A republican government is one in which the political authority comes from the people.

  The later Vedic period witnessed certain significant changes in the political structure which were closely related to the growing importance of settled agriculture and the consequent social differentia-tion. Later Vedic literature contains, probably for the first time, discussions on the origins of kingship which is quaintly stated in the Aitareya Brahmana.

  Instances of the election of the king appear in the later Vedic texts. Those individuals who were considered to have the best physical and other attributes were elected Raja.

  There were certain other limitations also on the authority of the king. The king could also be elected and there are references in Atharva Veda of his expulsion, re-election and restorations to the throne. The king had to take an oath of loyalty to the constitution and law at the time of his coronation. There is also the mention of king taking approval or Anumati of the earth. The King was often elected by an assembly i.e. Samiti. Sabha in the exercise of its judicial functions could remove the King.

  The Sabha and the Samiti also acted as a check on the king. These two bodies have been described as the twin daughters of god Prajapati, and therefore, were no fewer divine creations than the kingship.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: Different theories have been put forward regarding the origin and
  diffusion of the megalithic cultures. Scholars, by and large, unanimously
  look forward to a West Asian origin. According to C. von F. Heimendorf, the
  megalithic folk of South India were the Dravidian speakers who came to
  South India from the West by sea. But we find that the typical West Asian
  megaliths yielded the bronze objects and this culture came to an end in the last phase of their Bronze Age around 1500 B.C. The Indian megaliths, on the
  other hand, belong to the Iron Age generally dated to 1000 B.C onwards. It
  is yet not certain when and how iron technology developed and became an
  integral part of the megalithic culture.

Statement a is correct: The EQUIP exercise has set the following objectives to be achieved in a period of 5 years:

• Double the Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in higher education and resolve the geographically and socially skewed access to higher education institutions in India

• Upgrade the quality of education to global standards

• Position at least 50 Indian institutions among the top-1000 global universities

• Introduce governance reforms in higher education

• Accreditation of all institutions as an assurance of quality

• Promote Research & Innovation ecosystems

• Double the employability of the students passing out of higher education

• Harness education technology for expanding the reach

• Promote India as a study destination

• Achieve a quantum increase in investment in higher education

Statements b, c and d are recommendations of the committee for draft National educational Policy which was chaired by Dr. K. Kasturirangan. The report proposes an education policy, which seeks to address the challenges of: (i) access, (ii) equity, (iii) quality, (iv) affordability, and (v) accountability faced by the current education system.

The Almatti Dam is a dam project on the Krishna River in North Karnataka, India which was completed in 2005.

Option a is correct: Preamble sets the nature of state i.e. it mentions Indian state to be sovereign, secular, republic and democratic. It set the objectives of Indian state i.e. it ensures social, economic and political justice; equality of status and opportunity; brotherhood, fraternity, unity and integrity.

Option b is incorrect: Preamble is based on the Objective Resolution introduced by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1946. On the basis of the Objectives Resolution, India’s Preamble gave expression to the fundamental commitments: equality, liberty, democracy, sovereignty and a cosmopolitan identity.

Option c is correct: The Supreme court in Berubari case 1960, held that Preamble serves as a key to open the minds of the framers, and shows the general purpose for which they made the several provisions in the Constitution.

Option d is correct: The Constitution can be amended to meet the needs and requirements of present times, provided it does not violate basic structure. Hence, Preamble too can be amended as it reflects the goals and objectives of the Constitution. It gets amended only under Article 368 by special majority.

Statement 1 is correct: This Act recognizes the rights to hold and live in the forest land under the individual or common occupation for habitation or for self-cultivation for livelihood, but also grants several other rights to ensure their control over forest resources which, inter-alia, include right of ownership, access to collect, use and dispose of minor forest produce, community rights such as nistar; habitat rights for primitive tribal groups and pre-agricultural communities; right to protect, regenerate or conserve or manage any community forest resource which they have been traditionally protecting and conserving for sustainable use.

Statement 2 is correct: The Act authorises the Gram Sabha to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both that may be given to the forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers within the local limits of its jurisdiction. The Act also provides for diversion of forest land for public utility facilities managed by the Government, such as schools, dispensaries, fair price shops, electricity and telecommunication lines, water tanks, etc. with the recommendation of Gram Sabhas.

All the statements are correct, hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Option a is correct: As per article 345 of the Constitution, the legislature of a state can adopts any one or more of the languages in use in the State including the eighth schedule languages for official purposes of the State.

Option b is correct: As per article 348 of the Constitution, the Governor of a State may, with the previous consent of the President, authorise the use of the Hindi language, or any other language used for any official purposes of the State, in proceedings in the High Court having its principal seat in that State.

Option c is correct: Article 348(1) of the Constitution provides Parliament the power to change or add language in which proceedings of the Supreme Court and High Court can be conducted. Till now, no such law has been provided by the Parliament and all the proceedings of supreme court are conducted in English Language.

Option a is incorrect: Financial committees are not an executive body and hence cannot issue an order. Only Parliament can take final decisions on its findings.

Option b is incorrect: It is the Estimate committee which suggests an alternative policy to bring efficiency and effectiveness in administration and not a Public Account Committee. The Public Account committee analyses the policy from the point of view of economy, prudence, wisdom and propriety to bring out the cases of waste, loss, corruption, extravagance, inefficiency and nugatory expenses.

Option c is correct: Three Finance committees are: Public Account Committee, Estimates Committee and Committee on Public Undertakings. All the three committees have work which is post-mortem in nature. Option d is incorrect: The recommendations of the committee are not binding. It is just an advisory in nature.

This is the 1st Gender Social Norm Index released by the United Nations Development Program. According to the index 90% of the people (men and women both) are biased against women.

Almost half of the population believe that men are better leaders in Politics. The dimensions of the index include Political empowerment, Educational empowerment, Economic empowerment and Physical Integrity.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative set up by the NITI Aayog to promote innovation and entrepreneurship across the length and breadth of the country, based on a detailed study and deliberations on innovation and entrepreneurial needs of India in the years ahead. Statement 2 is correct: At the university, NGO, SME and Corporate industry levels, AIM is setting up world- class Atal Incubators (AICs) that would trigger and enable successful growth of sustainable startups in every

sector / state of the country. Women led incubators and entrepreneurial startups are strongly encouraged by AIM.

Statement 3 is correct: ARISE is an initiative under the AIM, to promote research, innovation and competitiveness of Indian start-ups and small enterprises including Micro, Small, and Medium enterprises. The program’s objective is to catalyse research, innovation, find solutions to the sectoral problems and subsequently trigger creation of new industrial sectors, through support of Central Government Ministries / Departments, who will become the first buyer of the solutions / products innovated under the ARISE program by start-ups and small enterprises.

Statement 1 is correct: Changes in Methodology and Data Sources in the New Series of National Accounts, Base Year 2011-12. The 2011-12 series of National Accounts Statistics incorporates changes in data sources, expansion in coverage of activities and improvements in procedures that are aligned to the latest recommendations of the UN System of National Accounts 2008, to the extent data is available.

Statement 2 is correct: GVA at basic prices + (product taxes) - (product subsidies) gives GDP at market price. Headline GDP is now GDP at market prices as per the new GDP series.

Statement 3 is correct: GDP at market price which is headline GDP will include taxes and exclude subsidies as per new GDP series. This has been shown in above statement.

Statement 1 is correct: Vaishnava Saint and reformer of Assam, MahapurushaSankaradeva, introduced Sattriya dance as a medium of propagation of Vaishnavism. Sattriya has aspects of local folk dances of Assam, incorporated by Sankardeva.

Statement 2 is correct: The techniques of movement in Odissi dance are built around the two basic postures of the Chowk and the Tribhanga. The chowk is a position imitating a square - a very masculine stance with the weight of the body equally balanced. The tribhanga is a very feminine stance where the body is deflected at the neck, torso and the knees.

Statement 3 is correct: Being the only classical dance of India having links with Muslim culture, it represents a unique synthesis of Hindu and Muslim genius in art. Further, Kathak is the only form of classical dance wedded to Hindustani or the North Indian music. Both of them have had a parallel growth, each feeding and sustaining the other.

Option 1 is correct. Lord Wellesly has been associated with one of the early initiatives of the civil services reforms. He established Fort William College in Kolkata in 1800 to train civil servants in India. Here the civil servants were taught local culture traditions and practices. This was aimed at improving local administration and governance.

Option 2 is correct. Lord Macaulay presented a report to the Select Committee of the British Parliament which recommended modern, merit based civil services. Consequently, merit oriented and modern civil services were introduced in India in 1854. A Civil Services Commission was founded in London in 1854. In 1864 Satyendra N ath T agore became the first Indian to qualify. From 1923 onwards the prestigious exam was conducted in India.

Option 3 is incorrect. Lord Linlithgow was the Viceroy of India from 1936 to 1944. He is not associated with civil services reforms in India. Some of the major events his tenure witnessed were enforcement of GOI act

1935 in 1937, Provincial election of1937, Cripps Proposal, Quit India Movement etc.

Statement 1 is correct: Compared to BS-IV, the BS-VI will reduce particulate matter like PM 2.5 and PM 10 in diesel vehicles by 80 percent. This would help in tackling the problem of air pollution and the menace of cancer.

Statement 2 is correct: Compared to BS-IV, the use of BS-VI compliant vehicles can reduce the harmful NOx (nitrogen oxides) emissions by nearly 70% and 25% in Diesel and Petrol vehicles respectively.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The main difference between the BS-IV and BS-VI is that the BS-VI grade fuel has only 10 parts per million (ppm) sulphur content while the BS-IV grade fuel contains 50 ppm sulphur.

Statement (c) is the correct answer. The Government of India Act 1915 repealed 47 prior acts of Parliament, starting with an act of 1770, and replaced them with a single act containing 135 sections and five schedules.

It was an act of the British Parliament which superseded previous acts concerning British India. A supplementary act was passed in 1916. Both the acts provided for easier understanding of the English law related to India.

All of the above options are correct, hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Option a is correct: Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) is a set of directives to be followed by the government of the day while framing any policies. Hence, DPSP is a set of provisions to ensure good governance in the country.

Option b is correct: Urban Local Bodies is a third tier of the system of Government. Third tier of government is based on subsidiarity principle. Subsidiarity principles ensure good governance.

Option c is correct: Article 240 of the Constitution provided the President the power to make regulations for peace, progress and good government of the Union territory without legislatures.

Statement 1 is correct. Directive Principles of State Policy consists of three principles: Socilaistic Principles, Gandhian Principles and Liberal- Intellectual Principles. Socialistic Principles aims to achieve socio-economic justice by setting the ideal of a Welfare state for the government. Various Articles of the Constitution reflects the ideals:

• Article 38: to promote the welfare of the people by setting a social order which ensures social, political and economic justice.

• Article 39 provides special directives for vulnerable sections like women and children. It also aims at preventing the concentration of wealth, equal pay for men and women etc.

• Article 39A provides for free legal aid

• Article 41 provides for public assistance to unemployed, old age and sick people.

• Article 42 provides for maternity relief.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Directive Principles does not set the limitation on power of state, rather it enriches state to frame policies which promote good governance in the country.

Option(a) is the correct answer. The Peace to Prosperity plan is USA’s initiative for the betterment of the life of people of Israel and Palestine. The plan proposed that Jerusalem will remain the capital of Israel and sacred places of Jerusalem should be open to people of all faiths. The plan also proposes a $50 billion investment plan for the region over a decade. The plan has been rejected by the Palestinian authorities.

Option (b) is the correct answer. The East Kolkata Wetlands (EKW), located on the eastern fringes of Kolkata city bordering the Salt Lake township on the one hand and the new township at Rajarhat on the other, forms one of the largest assemblages of sewage fed fishponds.

The wetlands serve as a natural sewage treatment plant as Kolkata’s wastewater is introduced into and detained in shallow water bodies (bheris in Bengali) which serve as oxidation ponds because of the presence of algae. Under the open tropical sun, the water undergoes change, getting comprehensively treated and cleaned as the bacteria disintegrate and the algae proliferate, serving as food for fish.

The treated water is used by villagers in the area to grow vegetables and paddy. The 125 sq. km area of the wetlands were recognised internationally in 2002 as a ‘Ramsar site’, or a wetland of international significance, which made it incumbent by both the State and the Central governments to protect them from invasive encroachments

Statement 1 is correct: The act has defined the Consumer. It defines Consumer as a person who buys any good or avails a service for consideration. It does not include a person who obtains a good for resale or a good or service for commercial purpose. It covers transactions through all modes including offline, and online through electronic means, teleshopping, multi-level marketing or direct selling.

Six consumer rights have been defined in the Bill, including the right to:

(i) be protected against marketing of goods and services which are hazardous to life and property;

(ii) be informed of the quality, quantity, potency, purity, standard and price of goods or services;

(iii) be assured of access to a variety of goods or services at competitive prices; and

(iv) seek redressal against unfair or restrictive trade practices.

Statement 2 is correct: The act provides penalties for misleading advertisements. It provides penalties against both celebrities and advertising agencies.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The District Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission (CDRC) will entertain complaints where value of goods and services does not exceed Rs 1 crore. The State CDRC will entertain complaints when the value is more than Rs 1 crore but does not exceed Rs 10 crore. Complaints with value of goods and services over Rs 10 crore will be entertained by the National CDRC.

Statement 1 is correct: Fishes and invertebrates rely on live coral for food, shelter, or recruitment habitat. Death of corals would eventually lead to the death of the species dependent on corals and hence declining the genetic and species diversity of marine ecosystems.

Statement 2 is correct: Coral reefs help to protect vulnerable coastal areas from waves and storms. Death of corals would lead to increased vulnerability of coastal areas to these hazards.

Statement 3 is correct: Death of corals would lead to decline in tourism activities and significant losses in the fishing industry. This would threaten the livelihoods and food security of the people living in the coastal areas.

Statement 1 is correct: In vitro fertilization (IVF) is a type of assisted reproductive technology (ART). It involves retrieving eggs from a woman’s ovaries and fertilizing them with sperm. This fertilized egg is known as an embryo. The embryo is then transferred to a woman’s uterus.

Statement 2 is correct: Babies that have been conceived through assisted reproductive techniques like IVF face a higher risk of mortality than naturally conceived babies. It is due to the fact that there are many premature births in IVF-conceived children.

Statement 3 is incorrect: There are two types of surrogacy: traditional surrogacy, in which the surrogate mother and the commissioning father are the genetic parents of the child, and gestational surrogacy, in which the commissioning mother and father are the genetic parents.

In gestational surrogacy, the resulting baby is genetically unrelated to the surrogate i.e., the surrogate has no biological link to the baby. In traditional surrogacy, the surrogate's eggs are used, making her the biological mother of the child she carries.

Statement 1 is correct: The beneficiaries under the Scheme are children in the age group of 0-6 years, pregnant women and lactating mothers. Objectives of the Scheme are first, to improve the nutritional and health status of children in the age-group 0-6 years and Second, to lay the foundation for proper psychological, physical and social development of the child.

Statement 2 is correct: Third objectives to reduce the incidence of mortality, morbidity, malnutrition and school dropout and to achieve effective coordination of policy and implementation amongst the various departments to promote child development; and

Statement 3 is correct: The ICDS Mission targets would be to attain three main outcomes namely;

(i) Prevent and reduce young child under-nutrition (% underweight children 0-3 years) by 10 percentage point;

(ii) Enhance early development and learning outcomes in all children 0-6 years of age; and (iii) Improve care and nutrition of girls and women and reduce anaemia prevalence in young children, girls and women by one fifth.

Statement 4 is correct: Fourth objectives to enhance the capability of the mother to look after the normal health and nutritional needs of the child through proper nutrition and health education.

Statement 1 is correct: The AITUC was founded in 1920. Lala Lajpat Rai along with NM Joshi, Diwan Chaman Lal and Joseph Baptista were among the founders of AITUC. Lajpat Rai was its first President. He was also the President of INC that year.

Statement 2 is correct: KaziNasrul Islam was one of the founders of Workers and Peasant Party (also known as Kirti Kisan Party). He is popularly called “Bidrohi Kavi” or Rebel Poet. Through his poetry like Bidrohi and BhangarGaan he inspired the National movement. He was imprisoned many times for his activism against British rule.

Option 1 is correct: Electrostatic precipitator is an air purification tool that uses electrostatic force to grab and hold dust and other particles.

Option 2 is incorrect: Smokestack is a large, chimney-like pipe that releases smoke and air pollutants like sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides high into the atmosphere.

Option 3 is correct: Catalytic converter is designed to turn harmful constituents of exhaust emitted by internal combustion engines into harmless gases by means of a chemical reaction. A catalytic converter is therefore an important part of modern emission purification systems.

Option (b) is the correct answer. Lee Commission was appointed in 1923 to consider ethnic composition of superior public services. It recommended that 40% of Indians should be recruited directly, 20% Indians to be promoted from provincial services and the remaining 40% should be British.

It also recommended a Public Service Commission with five members to be appointed immediately.

Option d is correct: Contingent reserve arrangement (CRA) established in 2015 by BRICS member nations Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa, is a framework for the provision of support through liquidity and precautionary instruments in response to actual or potential short-term balance of payments pressures.

Option a is incorrect: Balance of payments difficulties can arise—and, in the worst case, build into crises— even in the face of strong prevention efforts. The IMF assists countries in restoring economic stability by helping to devise programs of corrective policies and providing loans to support them.

Option b is incorrect: RBI avoids situations like Bank Run through deposit insurance. Deposit insurance is such a safety valve through which the losses of the so-called "unsophisticated" depositors of banks can be plugged, albeit to a stipulated limit, in case banks fail, and thereby help arrest cataclysmic impact of bank runs. Option c is incorrect: The Ministry of MSME, Government of India and SIDBI set up the Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE) with a view to facilitate flow of credit to the MSE sector without the need for collaterals/ third party guarantees.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Australia group is a multilateral export control regime (MECR) which prevents proliferation of chemical and biological weapons. It does not impose any legally binding obligation on the participant countries. All member countries are parties to the Chemical Weapon Convention (CWC) and Biological Weapon Convention (BWC).

Statement 2 is incorrect: Wassenaar Arrangement (is also MECR) to prevent proliferation of conventional weapons. It contributes to regional and international security and stability through transparency and conveying responsibility in transfers of conventional weapons and dual use of technologies. The aim is to keep away these items from the terrorists

Statement 1 is correct: A Farmers Producer Organisation (FPO) is a legal entity formed by primary producers, viz. farmers, milk producers, fishermen, weavers, rural artisans, craftsmen. A PO can be a producer company, a cooperative society or any other legal form which provides for sharing of profits/benefits among the members. In some forms like producer companies, institutions of primary producers can also become members of FPO.

Statement 2 is correct: The main aim of FPO is to ensure better income for the producers through an organization of their own. Small producers do not have the volume individually (both inputs and produce) to get the benefit of economies of scale.

The Barak River is a 900-kilometre-long (560 mi) river flowing through the states of Manipur, Nagaland, Mizoram and Assam in India and into the Bay of Bengal via Bangladesh.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Barak river originates near LiyaiKhullen Village in Manipur state of India. Near its source, the river receives a lot of streams, including the Vehrei, Gumti, Howrah, Kagni, Senai Buri, Hari Mangal, Kakrai, Kurulia, Balujhuri, Shonaichhari, and Durduria.

Loktak lake is present in Manipur but is not the source of Barak River.

Statement 2 is correct. The endangered Ganges River Dolphin (Platanista gangeticagangetica) inhabits the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna (GBM) river basin of India, Nepal and Bangladesh and the disjunct Karnaphuli-Sangu river basin of Bangladesh. This includes the Barak river system.

Statement 3 is correct. Tipaimukh Dam is a proposed embankment dam on the Barak River. Environmentalists have highlighted that the construction of the Dam can prove to be disastrous for the habitat of the dolphin in the Barak river.