Daily Current Affairs MCQ - June 11, 2021 - UPSC MCQ

Convergence Energy Services Limited (CESL) has signed a MoU with the Administration of Union Territory (UT) of Ladakh, to make it a clean, green and Carbon Neutral UT.

• Under the MoU, various clean energy and energy efficiency programmes will be implemented such as solar mini and micro grid solutions, energy efficient lighting, energy storage-based solutions, efficient cooking stoves and electric mobility solutions in the UT.
• PM Modi, in his Independence Day speech of 2020, said that the Ladakh, Leh and Kargil region will be developed and declared to be a carbon neutral region, a first in the contry.
• While the concept of carbon neutral villages have been considered in India in the past and some villages in Kerala and Manipur have adopted it, this will be the first large region to be carbon neutral.
• Convergence Energy Services Limited (CESL) is a 100% owned subsidiary of Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL) under Ministry of Power.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

The National Scheme Sanctioning Committee (NSSC) of SBM-G approved the Annual Implementation Plan (AIP) of States and UTs. It allocated Rs. 40,700 crores under Swachh Bharat Mission (Grameen) towards solid and liquid waste management (SLWM) arrangements support for over 2 Lakh Villages in 2021-22.

• The National Scheme Sanctioning Committee (NSSC) of SBM-G works under the Chairmanship of Secretary, Ministry of Jal Shakti.
• It comprises representatives of Ministry of Rural Development, Panchayati Raj, Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, representative from State Governments apart sector experts.
• The NSSC reviewed the plans of all States and UTs and provided them guidance to intensify implementation as sanitation and hygiene are of paramount importance in the pandemic times.
• Hence both statements are correct.

The Supreme Court has directed the States/UTs to take stringent action against private individuals and NGOs who invite people to illegally adopt children orphaned by the COVID-19 pandemic. It said that it was illegal to invite strangers to adopt children without the involvement of the Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA).

Statement 1 is correct:

• Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is the nodal body for adoption of Indian children. CARA primarily deals with adoption of orphan, abandoned and surrendered children through its associated /recognised adoption agencies.
• It regulates in-country and inter-country adoptions (in accordance with the provisions of The Hague Convention on Inter-Country Adoption, 1993, ratified by Government of India in 2003).
• Status:  It is an autonomous and a statutory body of the Union Women and Child Development Ministry.

Statement 2 is correct:

• The mandatory registration of CCIs and linking to CARA has been provided in Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015.
• It was set up in 1990.
• In 2018, CARA has allowed individuals in a live-in relationship to adopt children from and within India.
• HQ: New Delhi.

In a boost to groundnut exports from eastern region, a consignment of 24 metric tonne (MT) of groundnuts was exported to Nepal from West Bengal.

• According to the third advance estimates of oilseeds production by the ministry of agriculture and farmer welfare, the groundnut production in 2020-21 is estimated at 101.19 lakh tonne against 99.52 lakh tonne estimated in 2019-20.
• Gujarat is the largest producer of groundnuts in the country, which is followed by Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, West Bengal and Rajasthan.
• The crop is grown in both Kharif and Rabi seasons. The Kharif season has a share of more than 75% of the total production.
• Traditionally, Gujarat and Rajasthan have a major share in groundnut exports. The groundnut exports from West Bengal would boost exports potential of the crop from the eastern region.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

A record number of fake online pharmacies have been shut down under Operation Pangea XIV targeting the sale of counterfeit and illicit medicines and medical products.

• The operation coordinated by INTERPOL involved police, customs and health regulatory authorities from 92 countries. Indian agencies also participated in the operation, said an official of the Central Bureau of Investigation that is the nodal body for the Interpol in the country.
• It resulted in 1.1 Lakh web links including websites and online marketplaces being closed down or removed, the highest number since the first Operation Pangea in 2008.
• Raising public awareness of the potential dangers of buying medicines online was also part of Operation Pangea XIV.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Electronic and Electrical Equipment (EEE)-manufacturing is dependent on high material consumption with metals like iron, copper, silver, gold, aluminum, manganese, chromium and zinc along with various rare earth elements.

NASA notes that a supermoon occurs when the Moon’s orbit is closest to the Earth at the same time that the Moon is full.

As the Moon orbits the Earth, there is a point of time when the distance between the two is the least (called the perigee when the average distance is about 360,000 km from the Earth) and a point of time when the distance is the most (called the apogee when the distance is about 405,000 km from the Earth).

Now, when a full Moon appears at the point when the distance between the Earth and the Moon is the least, not only does it appear to be brighter but it is also larger than a regular full moon. According to NASA, the term supermoon was coined by astrologer Richard Nolle in 1979. In a typical year, there may be two to four full supermoons and two to four new supermoons in a row.

• The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration of the tribal areas in the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
  • The special provision is provided under Article 244 (2) and Article 275 of the Constitution.
  • The tribals have been given freedom to exercise legislative and executive powers through an Autonomous Regional Council and Autonomous District Councils. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Each autonomous district and regional council consists of not more than 30 members, of which four are nominated by the governor and the rest via elections. All of them remain in power for a term of five years. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • However, the Bodoland Territorial Council is an exception as it can constitute up to 46 members.
• Despite various degrees of autonomy, the Sixth Schedule area does not fall outside the executive authority of the state concerned.
  • The Acts passed by Parliament and state legislatures may or may not be levied in these regions unless the President and the Governor of the state gives her or his approval, with or without modifications in the laws for the autonomous regions. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• The Global Liveability Ranking is an annual assessment published by the Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The index takes into account more than 30 qualitative and quantitative factors spanning five broad categories: stability (25%), healthcare (20%), culture and environment (25%), education (10%), and infrastructure (20%).
• Due to the pandemic, the EIU added new indicators such as stress on health-care resources as well as restrictions around local sporting events, theatres, music concerts, restaurants and schools.
  • Each factor in a city is rated as acceptable, tolerable, uncomfortable, undesirable or intolerable.
• Austria's Vienna, number one in both 2018 and 2019, has completely dropped out of the top 10 after being heavily affected by Covid-19, and now ranks 12.
• Auckland rose to the top of the ranking owing to its successful approach in containing the Covid-19 pandemic, which allowed its society to remain open and the city to score strongly on a number of metrics including education, culture and environment. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Damascus remains the world's least liveable city, as the effects of the civil war in Syria continue to take their toll.

• The Government of India has advanced the target for 20% ethanol blending in petrol (also called E20) to 2025 from 2030. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Currently, 8.5% of ethanol is blended with petrol in India.
• Objectives of Ethanol Blending:
  • Increased use of ethanol can help reduce the oil import bill. India’s net import cost stands at USD 551 billion in 2020-21.
    • The E20 program can save the country USD 4 billion (Rs 30,000 crore) per annum. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Use of ethanol-blended petrol decreases emissions such as carbon monoxide (CO), hydrocarbons (HC) and nitrogen oxides (NOx). Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
• Recently, The central government has released an expert committee report on the Roadmap for Ethanol Blending in India by 2025.
  • The roadmap proposes a gradual rollout of ethanol-blended fuel to achieve E10 fuel supply by April 2022 and phased rollout of E20 from April 2023 to April 2025