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UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - UPPSC (UP) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern)

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UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 1

The Lahore session of the Indian National Congress is significant because:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 1
The correct answer is ​it passed the resolution to demand Poorna Swaraj.

Important Point

  • The Lahore session of INC was held in December 1929.

  • Jawaharlal Nehru was the INC president during the Lahore session.

  • The Lahore session passed a resolution declaring Purna Swaraj or complete independence.

Key-Points

  • The newly adopted tricolor flag was unfurled on 31st December 1929.

  • Jawahar Lal Nehru hoisted the Indian tricolor flag on the bank of the Ravi river.

  • Indian National Congress decided to observe 26th January 1930 as the Purna Swaraj day during the Lahore session.

  • Later this day(January 26) was chosen as the Republic day of India.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 2

With reference to modern Indian history, Individual Satyagraha launched during the 1940s because

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 2
The correct answer is 2 only

Key-Points

  • Cripps Mission was sent by the British Government in March 1942.

  • The radicals embarrass the civil disobedience movement, but here Gandhi insisted on Individual Satyagraha by a few selected individuals.

  • The defense wasted not to embarrass Britain's war effort by a mass upheaval in India.

  • The Individual Satyagraha was not to seek independence but to affirm the right of speech. Hence, Option 2 is correct.

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UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 3

Which of the following is not a part of Cripps Proposal?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 3
The correct answer is an elected constituent assembly to frame the Indian Constitution.

Key-Points

  • A mission headed by Stafford Cripps was sent to India in March 1942.

  • Proposals to frame the Indian Constitution were proposed to seek Indian support for the Second World War.

  • The Japanese threat to invade India fueled this mission and needed Indian support to suppress it.

  • There was pressure on Britain from the Allies (USA, USSR, and China) to seek Indian cooperation.

  • Indian nationalists wanted substantial power transfer and complete independence after the war.

Important Point

  • The main proposals of the mission were:

  • An Indian Union with a dominion status would be set up.

  • It would be free to decide its relations with the Commonwealth and free to participate in the United Nations and other international bodies.

  • After the end of the war, a constituent assembly would be convened to frame a new constitution.

  • Members of this assembly would be partly elected by the provincial assemblies through proportional representation and partly nominated by the princes.

  • In the meantime, India’s defense would remain in British hands, and the Governor-General’s powers would remain intact.

Additional Information

The British government would accept the new constitutes subject to two conditions:

  1. any province not willing to join the Union could have a separate constitution and form a separate Union.,

  2. The new constitution-making body and the British government would negotiate a treaty to effect the transfer of power and to safeguard racial and religious minorities.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 4

Party founded by Subhash Bose was

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 4
The correct answer is Forward Block.
  • Subash Chandra Bose formed Forward Bloc in 1939.

  • Towards Socialism and Jangarjan and Lokmat were its main newspaper.

  • It had Subhas Chandra Bose as president, S.S. Kavishar from Punjab.

Additional Information

  • The party's current Secretary-General is Debabrata Biswas.

  • All India Youth League is the Youth wing of this party.

  • The Election Commission of India recognized it as a State Party in West Bengal.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian National Movement

1. Rajagopalachari formula of 1944 aimed to cons, hence the formation of states on a linguistic basis.

2.This formula was opposed by Mahatma Gandhi

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 5
The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2.
  • Rajagopalachari formula of 1944 was associated with reaching a consensus with the Muslim League regarding the formation of new states and distribution of rights and powers; hence statement 1 is incorrect.

  • This formula was supported by MK Gandhi; hence statement 2 is incorrect.

  • The major proposals of this formula are as follows-

    • Mulsim League comes with congress to support the demand for Independence.

    • A provisional government would be formed at the center by both parties' coalition.

    • A commission would be formed to demarcate areas of an absolute majority of Muslims, and a plebiscite would be held here to decide whether to stay with the Union of India or to form a new sovereign state.

    • In the case of partition, the powers of Defence, communication, and commerce would stay with the Union of India.

Additional Information

  • This formula failed because Jinnah rejected this.

  • Jinnah's opposition-

    • Two Nation theory must be recognized.

    • Only the Muslim population of proposed areas would vote in the plebiscite, not the entire population of that area.

    • Against the idea of common center

  • This formula was also opposed by V D Savarkar and Shyama Prasad Mukherjee of the Hindu Mahasabha and Srinivas Sastri of the National Liberal Federation.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 6

Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 6
The Correct Answer is A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1.

Key-Points

  • Bakasht Land Movement

    • Bakasht lands were those which the occupancy tenants had lost to zamindars.

    • This movement was mainly active in Bihar, and Karyanand Sharma was one of the leaders.

    • It is also involved religious rituals, in which farmers would take a dip in the Ganges and vow not to do Begari, resist eviction, etc.

  • Mappila rebellion

    • Kunhammad Haji was associated with the Mappila rebellion and ensured Hindus were not looted or molested.

  • Eka Movement

    • Eka Movement or Unity Movement is a peasant movement that surfaced in Hardoi, Bahraich, and Sitapur at the end of 1921.

    • Madari Pasi was a leader of the Indian militant peasant movement Eka Movement.

    • The main reason for movement was higher rent, which was generally higher than 50% of recorded rent in some areas.

  • Avadh Kisan Sabha Movement

    • The Awadh Kisan Sabha was founded by Baba Ramachandra.

    • The Sabha supported the peasants in their fight and struggles against the landlords.

    • It asked farmers to stop working on bedakhli land (i.e., from where the earlier farmers were evicted).

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 7

With reference to the Eka movement, consider the following statements.

1. It was a peasant movement.

2. The main grievances were the extraction of high rent and the oppressionCongress’sdars.

3. The movement did not have a leadership of its own and remained under Congress’s leadership.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 7
The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Key-Points

Eka movement

  • Towards the end of 1921, peasant discontent resurfaced in the districts of Hardoi, Bahraich, and Sitapur in the northern part of the United Province.

  • The initial thrust here was provided by Congress, embarrass the was and Khilafat leaders, and the movement grew under the name of the Eka or unity movement. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • The main grievances here related to the extraction of a rent that was generally fifty percent higher than the recorded rent, the oppression of the cedars to whom the work of rent- the collection was farmed out, and the practice of share-rents. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • The Eka Movement soon developed its own grassroots leadership in the form of Madari Pasi and other low-caste leaders. They were not particularly inclined to accept the discipline of non-violence that the Congress and Khilafat leaders urged.

  • As a result, the movement‘s contact with the nationalists diminished, and it went its way. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 8

Consider the following statements:

1. James Augustus Hickey, in 1780, started the newspaper Bombay Samachar.

2. The Lahore Chronicle was started by Syed Muhammad Azim.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 8
The correct answer is 2 only.
  • James Augustus Hicky was an Irishman who launched the first printed newspaper in India, Hickey's Bengal Gazette.

  • The Bombay Samachar, now Mumbai Samachar, is the oldest continuously published newspaper in India.

  • Established in 1822 by Fardunjee Marzban, it is published in Gujarati and English. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

  • The Lahore Chronicle was started by Syed Muhammad Azim, father of the Punjab historian, in 1849. Hence, statement 2 is correct.​

Additional Information

James Augustus Hickey:

  • Hickeys Bengal Gazette or the Original Calcutta General Advertiser was an English language weekly newspaper published in Kolkata (then Calcutta), the capital of British India.

  • It was the first newspaper printed in Asia and was published for two years, between 1780 and 1782, before the East India Company seized the newspaper's types and printing press.

  • Founded by James Augustus Hickey, a highly eccentric Irishman who had previously spent two years in jail for debt, the newspaper was a strong critic of the administration of Governor-General Warren Hastings.

  • The newspaper was necessary for its provocative journalism and its fight for free expression in India.

  • Hickey first maintained a neutral editing policy (his slogan was "Open to all Parties, but Influenced by None"), but after he learned that competitors with ties to the East India Company intended to launch a rival newspaper, the India Gazette, he changed his editorial stance.

  • Hickey accused an East India Company employee, Simeon Droz, of supporting the India Gazette as punishment for Hickey's refusal to pay a bribe to Droz and Marian Hastings, Warren Hastings' wife.

  • Hickey claimed Hastings' order violated his right to free expression and accused Hastings of corruption, tyranny.

  • Hickey also accused other British leaders in Calcutta of corruption, including the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of Judicature at Fort William, Elijah Impey, of taking bribes, and the leader of the Protestant Mission, Johann Zacharias Kiernander, of stealing from an orphaned children's fund.

  • Hickey's editorial independence was short-lived as Hastings and Kiernander sued him for libel. After four dramatic trials in June 1781, the Supreme Court found Hickey guilty and sentenced him to jail.

  • Hickey continued to print his newspaper from jail and continued to accuse Hastings and others of corruption.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 9

In which of the following years did Sarojini Naidu preside over the Indian National Congress session?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 9
The correct answer is 1925.

Key-Points

  • Kanpur Session, 1925: Sarojini Naidu became the second woman to preside over the Congress after Annie Besant.

  • She said during her presidential address: 'How shall I stir your hearts, how shall I light that flame that cannot die, so that your slavery, so that your disunion, so that all the things that make you hungry and naked and forlorn, oppressed and battered 'will be burnt in that undying fire?'

Additional Information

  • About Congress:

    • The Indian National Congress was founded in. Still, after Bombay in December 1885.

    • A.O. Hume played an important part in bringing Indians from the various regions together.

    • First Session: held at Bombay in 1885. President: W.C. Bannerjee

    • 1917: Calcutta. President: Annie Besant, First Woman President of Congress

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 10

Who was the last Nizam ruler of the erstwhile Hyderabad state?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 10
The correct answer is Mir Osman Ali Khan.

Key-Points

  • Mir Osman Ali Khan Bahadur was born on April 12, 1886.

  • He was the last Nizam of the Princely State of Hyderabad and Berar.

  • He died on February 24, 1967.

  • Mir Osman Ali Khan dominated Hyderabad from 1911 to 1948 before it had been condemned by the Republic of India.

Additional Information

  • Mir Nizam Ali Khan and Asaf Jah II were the second Nizam of Hyderabad State in South India between 1762 and 1803.

  • Mir Akbar Ali Khan was one such outstanding person. He was born in 1899 to Mehboob Ali Khan, a minor jagirdar in Bidar and therefore the commander of the irregular troops of the Nizam.

  • Mahboob Ali Khan, the sixth Nizam of Hyderabad, was better-known for his lifetime of extravagance.

  • He was the Nizam of Hyderabad and came to the city with his regent, the formidable Sir Salar Jung.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 11

Who wrote the book ‘Hind Swaraj’?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 11
The correct answer is Mahatma Gandhi.
  • In 1909, Mahatma Gandhi (Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi) composed 'Hind Swaraj.’

Key-Points

  • It was originally composed in the Gujarati language.

  • After prohibiting the publication of 'Hind Swaraj' in India, Gandhiji himself translated it into the English language as 'Indian Home rule.’

  • The English translation of 'Hind Swaraj' was never banned.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 12

The theory of Isostasy was developed by:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 12
The correct answer is Dutton, C.E.

The theory of Isostasy explains the tendency of Earth's crust to attain equilibrium and distribution of the material in Earth's crust.

This theory is based on the opposing influence of buoyancy and gravity.

This was coined by C.E. Dutton in 1889.

Key-Points

  • It is utilized to explain how different topographic heights can exist on Earth's surface.

  • Their theory helps in explaining -

    • Mountain building.

    • Sedimentary basin formation.

    • The breakup of continents.

    • The formation of near ocean basins.

  • Factors that affect isostatic equilibrium.

    • Change in ice cover.

    • Endogenic forces.

    • eugenic forces.

Additional Information

  • Airy postulated that crustal material has uniform density, but the topographical feature has varying depth up to which roots penetrate.

  • Pratt postulated that crustal material has varying density but uniform depth up to which roots penetrate.

  • J.W. Powell is credited for giving the concept of base-level.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 13

Asteroids are found between the orbits of:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 13
The correct answer is Mars and Jupiter.

Key-Points

  • Asteroids are small and rocky objects that revolve around the sun.
  • Although asteroids orbit the sun like Planets, they are smaller than planets.
  • There are many asteroids objects in the solar system.
  • Most of them lie in the main asteroid belt that belongs to a region between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter's planet.

Important Point

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 14

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 14

The correct answer is option 3, i.e., 1 and 3 only.

  • In the river Cauvery, the Mahseer community comprises a “blue-finned” and an “orange-finned, hump-backed” fish.

    • While it is unknown whether these are distinct species or 2 different phenotypes, evidence suggests that the hump-backed phenotype is endemic to the river. In contrast, the blue-finned phenotype was introduced in the 1980s. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Irrawaddy Dolphin is a critically endangered species.

    • They are found in coastal areas in South and Southeast Asia and three rivers: the Ayeyarwady (Myanmar), the Mahakam (Indonesian Borneo), and the Mekong.

    • In India, it is found in Lake Chilika and not the Chambal river. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

  • Rusty Spotted Cat is one of the world's smallest feline.

    • In India, it was long thought to be confined to the south, but records have established that it is found over much of the country.

    • It was observed in eastern Gujarat’s Gir National Park, Maharashtra’s Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve, and along India’s the Eastern Ghats. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 15

Which step is not involved in the carbon cycle?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 15
Transpiration is NOT correct.
  • Transpiration is not involved as a part of carbon cycling.
  • Carbon is the chemical backbone of life on Earth. Carbon compounds regulate the Earth’s temperature, make up the food that sustains us and provide energy.

  • The carbon cycle describes the process in which carbon atoms continually travel from the atmosphere to the Earth and then back into the atmosphere.
  • Carbon cycling occurs through the atmosphere, ocean, and living and dead organisms.
  • Carbon moves from one storage reservoir to another through a variety of mechanisms. For example, in the food chain, plants move carbon from the atmosphere into the biosphere through photosynthesis.
  • Carbon is fixed annually in the biosphere through photosynthesis. A considerable amount of carbon returns to the atmosphere as CO2 through the respiratory activities of the producers and consumers. Decomposers also contribute substantially to the CO2 pool by their processing of waste materials and dead organic matter of land or oceans.
UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 16

Which one of the following factors is NOT connected with the planetary wind system?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 16
The correct answer is Earth’s revolution around the Sun.

Key-Points

  • Planetary Winds - These winds are in the form of large air masses which are being formed due to the earth's rotation on its axis and the sun's heating power.

  • The formation of the wind system begins with the sun’s radiation, which is absorbed differently on the earth’s surface.

  • The earth’s surface is heated differently because of scenarios like cloud cover, mountains, valleys, water bodies, vegetation, and desert lands.

  • Earth’s rotation is responsible for the generation of Coriolis force, which impacts the direction of planetary winds.

  • Once the air has been set in motion by the pressure gradient force, it undergoes an apparent deflection from its path; this apparent deflection is called the “Coriolis force” and is a result of the earth’s rotation.

Mistake Point

  • Earth’s rotation, not its revolution, is connected with the planetary wind system.

Additional Information

  • Planetary Winds

    • Planetary winds are also known as permanent or prevailing winds.

    • It blows from high to low pressure, over the earth's surface & oceans throughout the year & in a particular direction.

    • These winds are divided into 3 categories viz.

      • Trade Winds (Tropical Easterlies)

      • Westerlies

      • Polar winds (Polar Easterlies)

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 17

Which one of the following is NOT a current of the Pacific Ocean?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 17
The Correct Answer is option Agulhas Current.
  • Agulhas Current is not a current of the Pacific Ocean.

Key-Points

  • Currents moving from the equator to poles are warm.

  • Currents moving from poles to the equator are cold.

  • The Alaska Current is a southwestern warm-water current.

  • The Agulhas Current is a warm current in the western boundary current of the southwest Indian Ocean. Hence, Option 3 is correct.

  • California Current is a cold current that moves south along the west coast of the United States.

  • Oyashio is a cold subarctic ocean current that flows south and circulates counterclockwise in the western North Pacific Ocean.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 18

Which type of land does alluvial sediment mean?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 18
The correct answer Sediment created by the river.

Key-Points

  • Alluvial soils are soils deposited by surface water.

  • A fine-grained fertile soil is deposited by water flowing over flood plains or in river beds.

  • Fertile soil can be found in aquatic communities.

  • An alluvial plain is a largely flat landform created by the deposition of sediment over a long period of time by one or more rivers coming from highland regions, from which alluvial soil forms.

  • A floodplain is part of the process, being the smaller area over which the rivers flood at a particular period of time, whereas the alluvial plain is the larger area representing the region over which the floodplains have shifted over geological time.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 19

Shifting agriculture in Brazil is known as:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 19
The correct answer is Roca.

Key-Points

  • Shifting cultivation is called Roca in Brazil.

  • It involves clearing of forests, burning the stubble, and cultivating the land for a few years before moving to another plot, leaving the old patch for regeneration.

  • This provides a very easy and very fast method of the preparation of the land for agriculture.

  • The practice, also known as slash-and-burn agriculture.

Confusion Points

  • In India, it is known as Jhumming or Jhum - Jhum cultivation.

  • In Indonesia and Malaysia, it is known as Ladang.

  • In Central America and Mexico, it is known as Milpa

Additional Information

  • A recent NITI Aayog publication on shifting cultivation has recommended that the Ministry of Agriculture should take up a “mission on shifting cultivation” to ensure inter-ministerial convergence.

  • The report titled "Shifting Cultivation: Towards a Transformational Approach" is prepared by one of the five thematic working groups set up by NITI Aayog in 2017, which aims to encourage the well-being of the people in the Indian Himalayan Region (IHR).

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 20

Assertion (A): Special Economic Zones are meant for attracting foreign companies.

Reason (R): Special Economic Zones provide more employment opportunities to the local people

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 20
The correct answer is option 2, i.e., Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • A special economic zone is an area in a country that is subject to unique economic regulations that differ from other regions of the same country.

  • The SEZ regulations tend to be conducive to foreign direct investment.

  • SEZs are zones intended to facilitate rapid economic growth by leveraging tax incentives to attract foreign dollars and technological advancement.

  • Special Economic Zones provide more employment opportunities to the local people.

  • To attract larger foreign investments in India, the Special Economic Zones (SEZs) policy was announced in April 2000.

  • The Special Economic Zones Act, 2005, was passed by Parliament in May 2005 which received Presidential assent on the 23rd of June, 2005.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 21

What are the factors influencing the distribution of the population?

(1) Availability of water and climate

(2) Urbanization and industrialization

(3) Mineral resources

(4) Social factors

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 21
The correct answer is All of the above.

Key-Points

  • There are several factors that affect the population distribution in India:

    • Geographical Factors

    • Social Factors

    • Cultural Factors

    • Economic Factors

  • Geographical Factors:

    • Topography: People prefer living on plains rather than plateaus and mountains since these areas are suitable for agriculture, manufacturing, and also service activities.

    • Climate: People generally stay away from extreme climates (very cold or very hot) like the Sahara desert, the Russian Polar regions, Canada and Antarctica.

    • Soil: Fertile soils offer optimal land for farming. Fertile plains like Brahmaputra and Ganga and in India, the Nile in Egypt, Hwang-He and Chang Jiang in China are highly populated.

    • Water: People prefer to live in those places where fresh water is easily available. So, the river valleys are densely populated, and the deserts have less population.

    • Minerals: Places with deposits of a mineral are naturally more populated.

  • Social: Areas with better housing, health facilities, and education are more populated.

  • Cultural: Places with cultural or religious import attract people, e.g., Varanasi.

  • Economic: Industrial areas offer employment opportunities. A large number of people make their way into these areas—examples: Mumbai in India and Osaka in Japan.

Important Point

List of top 10 most populous countries:

  1. China

  2. India

  3. United States

  4. Indonesia

  5. Pakistan

  6. Nigeria

  7. Brazil

  8. Bangladesh

  9. Russia

  10. Mexico

Additional Information

  • Demography: The scientific study of human populations, their sizes, compositions, distributions, densities, growth, and other characteristics.

  • Population Distribution: The patterns of settlement and dispersal of a population.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 22

Which of the following Central Asian countries does NOT share its border with China?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 22
The correct answer is Uzbekistan.

Important Point

  • The Republic of China is a country of East Asia.
    • It is the largest of all Asian countries and has the largest population of any country in the world.
    • Occupying nearly the entire East Asian landmass, it covers approximately one-fourteenth of the land area of Earth.
  • Among the major countries of the world, China is surpassed in area by only Russia and Canada, and it is almost as large as the whole of Europe.
  • China has the largest number of neighbors (14) sharing its 22,000km land borders, namely: North Korea, Russia, Mongolia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Afghanistan, Pakistan, India, Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar, Laos, and Vietnam.

Mistake Point

  • Uzbekistan is surrounded by five countries: Kazakhstan to the north; Kyrgyzstan to the Saltwaterast; Tajikistan to the southeast; Afghanistan to the south, Saltwater Freshwater. AndFreshwater Turkmenistan to the south-west.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 23

The Bhakra Nangal Dam is built across the River

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 23
The correct answer is Sutlej.

Bhakra Nangal Dam:

  • It is a dam on the Sutlej River in Bilaspur, Himachal Pradesh.
  • It is 226 meters tall.
  • It is the largest dam in India.
  • It is a concrete gravity dam with an installed capacity of 1,325 MW.
  • It is a joint venture of three state governments - Rajasthan, Haryana, and Punjab.

Important Point

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 24

Chilka Lake is a

(FreshwaterFreshwaterr lake

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 24
The correct answer is Saltwater lake.

Key-Points

  • Chilika is Asia’s largest and world’s second-largest lagoon.

  • It spreads over the Puri, Khurda, and Ganjam districts of Odisha on the east coast of India, at the mouth of the Daya River.

  • It is the largest wintering ground for migratory birds on the Indian subcontinent.

  • In 1981, it was designated the first Indian wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention.

  • Nalbana Bird Sanctuary or Nalbana Island is the core area of Chilika Lake.

  • Satapada, a Sea Mouth Island where Chilika Lake meets the Bay of Bengal, is home to the Irrawaddy dolphins.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 25

Which of the following are possible causes for monsoon delay in India

1. El Nino

2. Cyclonic Formation

3. Westerly Disturbances

4. Madden Julian Oscillation

Which of the factors given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 25
The correct answer is 1, 2, 3 and 4
  • The Madden-Julian Oscillation MJO is a moving low-pressure disturbance of clouds that intensifies over three regions - the eastern Indian Ocean, south of the maritime continent, and the western Pacific Ocean. It transfers a part of its energy to the underlying ocean. Due to its low-pressure nature, it triggers cyclone formation over the Indian Ocean, which increases temperature and a decrease in pressure, which eventually leads to a delay in monsoon. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • When Cyclones formed on the sea surface, the sea surface gets warmer, and the temperate difference between land and sea is reduced. This is the major cause of weakening monsoon winds and delaying it. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • In El Nino, sea surface temperature (SST) of the Pacific Ocean rises off the coast of Peru in South America, which reduces the development of high pressure on the Indian ocean and weakens the monsoon. Hence statement 3 is correct.

  • Western disturbances lead to lowering the temperature of landmass for a long time, hence at Tibet plateau, low pressure occurs, hence delay in monsoon. Hence statement 3 is correct.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 26

Trees like ebony, mahogany, rosewood, rubber, and cinchona are found in which type of forest?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 26
The correct answer is ​Tropical Evergreen Forests.

Key-Points

  • On the basis of certain common features such as predominant vegetation type and climatic regions, Indian forests can be divided into the following groups: TYPES OF FORESTS
  • ​​Tropical Evergreen and Semi-Evergreen forests
  • Tropical Deciduous forests
  • Tropical Thorn forests
  • Montane forests
  • Littoral and Swamp forests.

  • Tropical Evergreen Forests
  • These forests are restricted to heavy rainfall areas of the Western Ghats and the island groups of Lakshadweep, Andaman, and Nicobar, upper parts of Assam, and Tamil Nadu coast.
  • They are at their best in areas having more than 200 cm of rainfall with a short dry season.
  • The trees reach great heights up to 60 metres or even above.
  • Since the region is warm and wet throughout the year, it has luxuriant vegetation of all kinds — trees, shrubs, and creepers, giving it a multilayered structure.
  • There is no definite time for trees to shed their leaves.
  • As such, these forests appear green all the year-round.
  • Some of the commercially important trees of this forest are ebony, mahogany, rosewood, rubber, and cinchona.
  • The common animals found in these forests are elephant, monkey, lemur, and deer.
  • One-horned rhinoceroses are found in the jungles of Assam and West Bengal.
  • Besides these animals, plenty of birds, bats, sloth, scorpions, and snails are also found in these jungles.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 27

With reference to the gold mines in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Gold reserves are highly scarce in India.

2. Some gold mines in India are very deep, which makes commercial extraction expensive.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 27
The correct answer is 2 only.,Key-Points
  • India currently produces hardly 0.4% of its gold consumption despite having 9% of global gold reserves under its landmass. So, statement 1 is NOT correct.

  • Though private entrepreneurs have come forward for reconnaissance, hardly less than 1% of them have come up to the mining stage. This is mainly for want of the latest technology, high-risk capital, etc.

  • The government is also formulating a new mining policy to boost the exploration of gold and diamond deposits and cut down the country's over-dependence on imports.

  • Gold mines at Kolar in Karnataka are among the deepest in the world, making mining this ore a very expensive process. So, statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Geological Survey of India has identified gold deposits in over 100 places across the country, most of them being in the southern state of Karnataka.

  • India plays a dominant role in the processing and consumption of gold and diamonds.

  • But mining of gold and diamond in India is amongst the lowest in the world.

  • Gold is purchased from countries like Switzerland, South Africa, Australia, UAE, etc.

  • The Indian government has asked GSI to explore additional reserves of gold and diamonds in Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, West Bengal, Rajasthan, Bihar, and Chhattisgarh.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 28

Which of the following areas is the original habitat of the 'Toda tribe'?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 28
The correct answer is Nilgiri Hills.

Key-Points

  • Nilgiri Hills

    • Nilgiri Hills is the native area of the Toda tribe.

    • Nilgiri hills are located in South India.

    • Part of western ghats, spread in Karnataka, Kerela, and Tamil Nadu.

    • The highest peak of the Nilgiri hills is being Doddabetta.

Additional Information

  • Jaunsar Hills

    • Jaunsar-Bawar is a hilly region in the Garhwal division of Uttarakhand.

    • It is located in the northwest of the Dehradun district.

  • Garo Hills

    • Garo Hills are part of the Garo-Khasi range in Meghalaya, India.

    • It is inhabited mainly by tribal dwellers, the majority of whom are Garo people.

    • Cherrapunji, one of the wettest places in India, is in this range (East-Khasi).

    • Meghalaya’s most famous Living Root Bridges is also in these ranges.

  • Jaintia Hills

    • Jaintia Hills is an administrative district in the state of Meghalaya in India

    • Jaintia Hills is a mountainous region that was mainly part of Assam and Meghalaya.

    • Due to heavy rainfall in the Garo-Khasi-Jaintia range, it has a tropical moist Evergreen Forest.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 29

National Highway‐1 connects:‐

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 29
  • National Highway 1 goes from Delhi to Amritsar.

  • The NH1 starts from Delhi, passes through places like Panipat, Ambala, Ludhiana, Jalandhar, and goes up to Attari near Amritsar.

  • The NH1 is amongst the oldest national highways and hold its importance for two reasons:

  • It connects Delhi with the India-Pakistan border (Attari).

  • In Medieval times, it was part of the Grand Trunk road built by Sher Shah Suri.

  • The National Highway 1 covers a total distance of 456 km.

The National Highways Authority of India is an agency under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. It constructs and maintains the highways in India.

It was formed in 1988 and is headquartered in New Delhi.

It was created through the National Highways Authority of India Act, 1988.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 30

Which state in India has the lowest population?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 10 (Old Pattern) - Question 30
The correct answer is Sikkim.
  • According to the Census 2011, Sikkim is the state with the lowest population in India.

  • Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state in India; its population is more than the population of Brazil.

Key-Points

  • Based on the Census 2011, the key points are:

    • State with the highest population density: Bihar.

    • State with the lowest population density: Arunachal Pradesh.

    • State with the highest population: Uttar Pradesh.

    • State with the lowest population: Sikkim.

    • State with the highest sex ratio: Kerala.

    • State with the lowest sex ratio: Haryana.

    • State with the highest literacy rate: Kerala.

    • State with the lowest literacy rate: Bihar.

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