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UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - UPPSC (UP) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern)

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UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 1

Consider the following- 

1. Article 30 identifies two types of minorities - religious and linguistic.

2. Any educational institution maintained by the state cannot deny admission only on the basis of religion, race, caste, or language.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 1

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key-Points

Cultural and educational rights (Article 29-30):

  • Article 29 (1): Any section of the citizens residing in the territory of India or any part thereof having a distinct language, script, or culture of its own shall have the right to conserve the same.

  • Article 29 (2): No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste, language, or any of them.

​Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • Article 30 (1): All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Article 30 (2): The State shall not, in granting aid to educational institutions, discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a minority, whether based on religion or language.

 

Additional Information

Other Fundamental Rights:

  • Right to equality- Article 14-18

  • Right to freedom- Article 19-22

  • Right against exploitation- Article 23-24

  • Right to freedom of religion- Article 25-28

  • Right to constitutional remedies- Article 32

 

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 2

Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister.

2. The resignation or death of an incumbent Prime Minister automatically dissolves the council of ministers.

Which of the above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 2
The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key-Points

  • In the scheme of the parliamentary system of government provided by the constitution, the President is the nominal executive authority (de jure executive) and Prime Minister is the real executive authority (de facto executive).

  • In other words, the president is the head of the State while the Prime Minister is the head of the government.

Important Points

  • The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Article 75 says only that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the president.

  • However, this does not imply that the president is free to appoint anyone as the Prime Minister.

  • In accordance with the conventions of the parliamentary system of government, the President has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister.

  • But, when no party has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha, then the President may exercise his personal discretion in the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister.

  • In such a situation, the President usually appoints the leader of the largest party or coalition in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister and asks him to seek a vote of confidence in the House within a month.

  • Before the Prime Minister enters upon his office, the president administers to him the oaths of office and secrecy.

  • The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds office during the pleasure of the president.

  • POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF THE PRIME MINISTER

  • ​He recommends persons who can be appointed as ministers by the president. The President can appoint only those persons as ministers who are recommended by the Prime Minister.

  • He allocates and reshuffles various portfolios among the ministers.

  • He can ask a minister to resign or advise the President to dismiss him in case of difference of opinion.

  • He is the principal channel of communication between the President and the council of ministers.

  • He advises the president with regard to the appointment of important officials like attorney general of India, Comptroller and Auditor General of India, chairman and members of the UPSC, election commissioners, chairman and members of the finance commission and so on.

  • He can recommend dissolution of the Lok Sabha to the President at any time.

  • He is the chairman of the NITI Ayog (which succeeded the planning commission), National Integration Council, InterState Council, National Water Resources Council and some other bodies.

  • The resignation or death of an incumbent Prime Minister automatically dissolves the council of ministers and thereby generates a vacuum. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 3

Which of the following global conventions was formed to regulate the import and export of hazardous chemicals?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 3
The correct answer is the Rotterdam convention.

Key-Points

Rotterdam Convention:

  • It was signed in 1998 and came into effect in 2004.

  • It is a multilateral environmental agreement to promote shared responsibilities in relation to the importation of hazardous chemicals.

Other Options:

The Montreal Protocol:

  • The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer (the Montreal Protocol) is an international agreement made in 1987.

  • The Montreal Protocol is widely considered as the most successful environment protection agreement. It sets out a mandatory timetable for the phase-out of ozone-depleting substances.

Tokyo Convention:

  • This convention acts on on-board aircraft.

  • This convention is applicable to offences against penal law and to any acts jeopardizing the safety of the persons or property on board civilian aircraft while in flight and engage the international air navigation.

The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.

  • It is an international treaty that aims to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

  • The Kyoto Protocol was adopted in Kyoto, Japan.

  • It was adopted on 11th December 1997 and came into force on 16th February 2005.

  • Its first commitment period was between 2008 and 2012.

  • The second commitment period of the Kyoto Protocol was agreed in 2012 (ends in 2020).

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 4

The Ministry of Minority Affairs is organised the 24th “Hunar Haat” in which city?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 4
The correct answer is Lucknow
  • The Ministry of Minority Affairs organized the 24th “Hunar Haat” at Avadh Shilpgram, Lucknow (Uttar Pradesh) from 22nd January to 04th February 2021.

Key-Points

  • It was organized with the theme of “Vocal for Local”.

  • On 23 January 2021, Uttar Pradesh Chief Minister Shri Yogi Adityanath inaugurated the “Hunar Haat”.

Additional Information

  • Lucknow is the capital city of Uttar Pradesh. Lucknow is popularly known as the "City of Nawabs".It is also known as the Golden City of the East, Shiraz-i-Hind, and The Constantinople of India.

  • Kanpur is a major industrial town of Uttar Pradesh, the northern state of India. This town is situated on the south bank of river Ganga.

  • Agra is a city on the banks of the river Yamuna in the northern state of Uttar Pradesh, India. Agra is one of the most populous cities in Uttar Pradesh and the 24th most populous city in India.

  • Prayagraj is one of the oldest cities in India. It is crowned in ancient scriptures as ‘Prayag’ or ‘Teerthraj’ and is considered the holiest of pilgrimage centers of India.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 5

Match the list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given bellow of the list:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 5
The correct answer is A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1.

Key-Points

  • Chedi Janapada, covering parts of Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra, was one of the original 16 Mahajanapadas.
  • The Chedi had two distinct settlements of which one was in the mountains of Nepal and the other in Bundelkhand near Kaushambi.
  • Chedis lay near Yamuna midway between the kingdom of Kurus and Vatsas.
  • Suktimati of Mahabharata was the capital of Chedi.

Additional information

  • Vatsa was one of the sixteen Mahajanapadas of Uttarapath in ancient India.
  • The Vatsa country is connected to the area of modern Allahabad in Uttar Pradesh at the confluence of the Ganges and Yamuna rivers.
  • Kaushambi had a monarchical form of government with its capital. Udayan was the ruler of Vatsa in the time of the sixth-fifth century BCE, Buddha.
  • The Malla Janapada is mentioned in the Anguttara Nikaya. The name 'Malla' is named after the 'Malla dynasty' who was the ruler of Mahajanapada at that time.
  • It is noteworthy that both Mahavir Swami and Gautam Buddha had chosen Malla Mahajanapada for their nirvana.
  • Shursen Mahajanapada was the famous district of North-India with its capital at Mathura. The region was probably named after Shatrughna, the ruler of Madhurapuri (Mathura), Shatrughan after the slaying of Lavanasura.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 6

Which of the following is a Unitary feature of the government?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 6
The correct answer is All India Services.
  • Except Option 2, others are Federal features. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Key-Points

Unitary features

  • Union of States

  • Power to form new States and to change existing boundaries

  • Unequal Representation in the Legislature

  • Single Constitution

  • Single citizenship

  • Emergency provisions

  • All India Services

Additional Information

Federal features

  • Distribution of Powers

  • Supremacy of the Constitution

  • Written Constitution

  • Rigidity

  • Independent Judiciary

  • Bicameral Legislature

  • Dual Government Polity

  • Division of Power

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 7

Which of the following bird sanctuaries was first established in Uttar Pradesh?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 7
The correct answer is Nawabganj Bird Sanctuary

Key-Points

  • Nawabganj bird sanctuary was first established in Uttar Pradesh.

  • The Nawabganj Bird Sanctuary nestles in the tranquil lush green stretch on 224.6 hectares of Unnao district in Uttar Pradesh.

  • The sanctuary is located on NH-25 (Lucknow-Kanpur HighWay) about 43 Km. away from Lucknow, in Nawabganj Tehsil of the district- Unnao, Uttar Pradesh.

  • In the year 2015, the name of Nawabganj Bird Sanctuary was changed to Shaheed Chandra Shekhar Azad Bird Sanctuary.

Additional Information

  • Hastinapur Wildlife Sanctuary was established in 1986. It is named after the ancient city of Hastinapur. More than 350 species of birds are found here.

  • Mahavir Swami Sanctuary is situated 125 km from Jhansi and 33 km from Lalitpur. The sanctuary is spread over an area of 5.4 km2.

  • National Chambal Sanctuary is a tri-state protected area in northern India for the protection of the Critically Endangered gharial, the red-crowned roof turtle, and the Endangered Ganges river dolphin.

  • It is located on the Chambal River near the tripoint of Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, it was first declared in Madhya Pradesh in 1978.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 8

Which pain killer given to cattle is responsible for the near extinction of vultures in India?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 8
The correct answer is Diclofenac.

Key-Points

  • Diclofenac is an anti-inflammatory drug that was used by farmers to ease the pain of cattle.

  • It is toxic to vultures even in small doses, causing kidney failure.

  • It results in uric acid accumulating in the birds' blood and crystallizing around their internal organs-a condition called visceral gout.

  • In 2014, the European Medicines Agency acknowledged that vultures are at risk of consuming residues of the drug in dead livestock.

  • The drug was banned for veterinary use in India on March 11, 2006.

  • It is pertinent to note that India’s three vulture species saw an unprecedented decline of 97 to 99.9 per cent between 1992 and 2007 owing to ingesting diclofenac through cattle carcasses.

  • This was the fastest decline of any bird species ever reported anywhere in the world.

Additional Information

  • Ibuprofen- It is a medication in the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug class. It is used for treating pain, fever, and inflammation.

  • Acetaminophen- It is a medication used to treat pain and fever. It is also known as Paracetamol.

  • Aspirin- It is also known as acetylsalicylic acid. It is a medication used to reduce pain, fever, or inflammation.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 9

Which one of the following symptoms appears in plants because of Manganese deficiency?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 9
The correct answer is younger leaves become pale with green veins.
  • Manganese is a micronutrient that is absorbed in plants in the form of manganese ions (Mn2+).

Key-Points

  • It stimulates various enzymes involved in photosynthesis, respiration and nitrogen metabolism.

  • The most important function of manganese is in the splitting of water to liberate oxygen during photosynthesis.

  • Manganese has moderately low phloem mobility in plants, and as a result, symptoms of Mn deficiency first of all develop in younger leaves.

  • Younger leaves turn yellow and undergo interveinal chlorosis i.e. the loss of chlorophyll leading to yellowing in leaves.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 10

Swadeshi movement was the result of the partition of Bengal. Which of the following statements is/are correct concerning the Swadeshi Movement?

1. Bande Mataram became the theme song of this movement.

2. It aimed at boycotting foreign-made goods and adopting Indian goods as an alternative.

3. The Shivaji and Ganpati festivals were organized by Tilak to deliver the Swadeshi message to the masses.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 10
The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key-Points

  • The Swadeshi movement was the result of the partition of Bengal.

  • After the partition of the Bengal Swadeshi and Boycott Movement was adopted as a means of integration.

  • It was aimed at self Reliance, self-determination, and self-help.

  • Tilak called it Bahiskar Yoga.

  • Vande Mataram became the theme song of this movement. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

  • Swadeshi movement. along with the Boycott Movement aimed at boycotting foreign-made goods and adopting Indian goods as an alternative. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

  • Boycott and public burning of foreign clothes, picketing of shops selling foreign goods were adopted.

  • The Shivaji and Ganpati festivals were organized by Tilak to deliver the Swadeshi message to the masses. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

  • The National College of Bengal was founded with Aurobindo Ghosh as its principal.

  • The national education council was established in August 1906.

  • It also changed the character of the Indian National Congress.

  • The Congress split into moderates and extremists at the Surat session, which weakened the Swadeshi Movement.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 11

Which of the following words were added to the preamble of the Indian constitution through amendment of the constitution?

1. Socialist

2. Secular

3. Integrity

4. Fraternity

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 11
​The Constitution of India begins with a Preamble. The Preamble contains the ideals, objectives, and basic principles of the Constitution.
  • The salient features of the Constitution have evolved directly and indirectly from these objectives which flow from the Preamble.

  • Preamble presents the intention of its framers, the history behind its creation, and the core values and principles of the nation.

  • In 1946, Objective Resolution was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru, describing the constitutional structure.

  • In 1947 (22nd January), it was adopted, it shaped the Constitution of India, and its modified version is reflected in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.

  • The idea of the Preamble was borrowed from the Constitution of the USA.

  • The objectives stated by the Preamble are to secure justice, liberty, equality to all citizens, and promote fraternity to maintain unity and integrity of the nation.

  • The term ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’, and ‘Integrity’ were added to the preamble through 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. The Preamble has been amended only once so far, in 1976.

  • Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity of the nation was present in the preamble of the constitution when it was adopted.

Key-Points

  • The Preamble does not incorporate the Fundamental Rights of the citizens of India.

  • In the historic case of Kesavananda Bharati (1973), the Supreme Court held that Preamble is a part of the constitution and can be amended under article 368, subject to the condition that no amendment is done to the "Basic features".

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 12

Which Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Municipalities?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 12
The correct answer is the 12th Schedule.
UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 13

Which among the following countries has not received the vaccines under the 'Vaccine Maitri' programme of the Government of India, as of March 2021?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 13
The correct answer is China.

Key-Points

  • Iran, Bahamas, and Benin received 'Made in India' Covid-19 vaccines on 11 March 2021 under the 'Vaccine Maitri' programme of the Government of India.

  • India's Vaccine Maitri programme aims to aid poor countries amidst global pandemic.

  • Under the 'Vaccine Maitri' programme, Afghanistan received 4,68,000 doses of the Made in India Covid-19 vaccine on March 9, 2021.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 14

Which of the following will organize the sixth edition of its annual National Entrepreneurship Summit ‘Start-O-Sphere’ in March 2021?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 14
The correct answer is Indian Institute of Management, Kozhikode.
  • The Indian Institute of Management, Kozhikode will organize the sixth edition of its annual National Entrepreneurship Summit ‘Start-O-Sphere’ on March 6-7, 2021.

  • The event is organized by IIMK Entrepreneurship Cell (E-Cell) team with the support of IIMK LIVE, its business incubator.

  • The event aims to support start-ups by providing them an opportunity to network, get mentored, and funded.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 15

Which among the following does NOT touch the Caspian Sea?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 15
The correct answer is Iraq.
  • Iraq does not touch the Caspian Sea.

Key-Points

  • The Caspian Sea is the largest lake in the World.

The Caspian Sea touches the following countries:

  • Russia
  • Iran
  • Kazakhstan
  • Turkmenistan
  • Azerbaijan

Additional Information

  • The capital of Azerbaijan is Baku.
  • The capital of Iran is Tehran.
  • Capital of Kazakhstan in Nur - Sultan.
  • Capital of Iraq - Baghdad

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 16

The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 16
The correct answer is to create autonomous regions in tribal areas.

Objectives of Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act:

  • To extend the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution to Scheduled Areas, identified by the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.

  • To guarantee self-governance through traditional Gram Sabhas for people living in the Scheduled Areas of India.

  • To provide tribal control and rights over the natural resources and conserve their identity and culture.

  • The act brought a positive development in the lives of tribal communities who have earlier suffered tremendously.

  • The tribal areas are found in ten Indian states, thus the provisions of Panchayats extended through the PESA Act find a place in these Fifth Schedule Areas.

Key-Points

  • The law came into force on 24 Dec 1996 on the recommendations of the Dilip Singh Bhuria committee.

  • Scheduled Areas earlier were not covered under the Panchayati Raj Act (73rd Constitutional Amendment).

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 17

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 17
The correct answer is A.

Key-Points

  • The Tharus live in both India and Nepal. In the Indian Terai, they live mostly in Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, and Bihar.

  • Various Tribes in West Bengal are Bhutia, Mru, Garo, Lohara, Oraon, Munda.

  • The three major tribes of Meghalaya are Khasis, Jaintias, and Garos.

  • Kol people are a tribe in Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh, who migrated there from central India around five centuries ago.

  • Tribes of Rajasthan include Bhils, Minas, Damor, Dhanka, Kathodi, Koli, Nayaka, etc.

  • The maximum concentration of Munda population is found in Jharkhand.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 18

Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 18
The Correct Answer is Option 4 i.e. ​Rowlatt Satyagraha: First mass strike.

Historical events:

  • Rowlatt Satyagraha of March 1919 was the first mass strike when Gandhiji called for a mass protest at all India levels. Hence Option 4 is Correct.

  • The Champaran Satyagraha of April 1917 was the first Civil Disobedience by Gandhi.

  • The Ahmedabad Mill Strike of March 1918 is considered the first hunger strike when he himself undertook a fast unto death to strengthen the mill workers’ resolve.

  • Kheda Satyagraha of 1918 was the first NonCooperation movement when Gandhiji asked the farmers not to pay the taxes.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 19

Who among the following is known as the 'friend, philosopher and guide' of the members of Parliament ?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 19
The correct answer is Comptroller and Auditor General.

Key-Points

  • CAG has been described as a friend, philosopher, and guide to the Public Accounts Committee(PAC). The members of the PAC are the members of Parliament.

Important Point

  • The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an independent office of CAG.

  • He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.

  • He is the guardian of the public purse.

  • He is appointed by the president of India.

  • He holds office for a period of 6 years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.

  • He audits

  • Consolidated Fund of India

  • Expenditure of Contingency Fund of India

  • Public Account of India

  • He is responsible only to the Parliament.

Additional Information

  • Public Accounts Committee

  • The Public Accounts Committee consists of a total of 22 members.

  • Out of these 22 members, 15 are from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha.

  • The term of office of PAC is one year.

  • Members are elected by parliament every year with a proportional representation system.

  • Function - To examine the annual audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG), which are laid before the Parliament by the President.

  • The Public Accounts Committee was introduced in 1921 after its first mention in the Government of India Act, 1919.

  • A Minister can not be a member of the Public Accounts Committee.

Mistake Points

  • CAG is fulfilling the role of Auditor General and not of a Comptroller.

  • Many departments are authorized to withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund of India without specific permission from the CAG.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 20

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R) Assertion (A) : The executive powers of the state are exercised to ensure the compliance of the law of the parliament and the laws applied in the state.

Reason (R) : The government of India can give necessary direction to the states by using its executive powers.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Codes:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 20
The correct answer is Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

  • The executive powers of the state are exercised to ensure the compliance of the law of the parliament and the laws applied in the state. It is a true statement.

  • The government of India can give the necessary direction to the states by using its executive powers. It is also the correct explanation.

  • Article 256 carries the heading' Obligation of States and the Union' which provides that "the executive power of every 'State shall be so exercised as to ensure compliance with the laws made by Parliament and existing laws which apply in that State, and the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of such directions to a State as may appear to the Government of India to be necessary for that purpose'.

  • Article 257 carries the heading 'Control of The Union over States in certain cases'.

  • Hence R is the correct explanation on the basis of the constitution of the country.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 21

Constitution confers executive power of a subject in the Concurrent list to which among the following?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 21
The correct answer is the State Government.

Key-Points

  • In respect of matters on which both the Parliament and the state legislatures have the power of legislation (i.e., the subjects enumerated in the Concurrent List), the executive power rests with the states except when a Constitutional provision or a parliamentary law specifically confers it on the Centre.

  • The Constitution confers executive power of a subject in the Concurrent List to the State Government.

Additional Information

Concurrent List:

  • There are 52 (Originally 47) items currently on the list: This includes items which are under the joint domain of the Union as well as the respective States. However, given that there can be conflict when it comes to laws passed by Parliament and state legislatures on the same subject, the Constitution provides for a central law to override state law.

Union List:

  • The Union List is a list of 100 (Originally 97) numbered items as provided in the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India. The Union Government or the Parliament of India has exclusive power to legislate on matters relating to these items.

State List:

  • The State List is a list of 61 (Originally 66) items in the Schedule Seven to the Constitution of India. The respective state governments have exclusive power to legislate on matters relating to these items.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 22

Which of the following forms a part of PM-AASHA ?

1. Price Support Scheme

2. Price Deficiency Payment Scheme

3. Pilot of Private Procurement & Stockist Scheme

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 22
The correct answer is All of the above.

Key-Points

Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay SanraksHan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA)

  • PM-AASHA is an umbrella scheme to ensure Minimum Support Price (MSP) to farmers. Following are the key components of the Scheme:

  • Price Support Scheme (PSS)

  • In Price Support Scheme PSS, physical procurement of pulses, oilseeds and Copra will be done by Central Nodal Agencies with a proactive role of State governments.

  • Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS)

  • Under PDPS, direct payment of the difference between the MSP and the selling/model price will be made to pre-registered farmers selling his produce in the notified market yard through a transparent auction process.

  • All payment will be done directly into the registered bank account of the farmer.

  • This scheme does not involve any physical procurement of crops.

  • Pilot of Private Procurement & Stockist Scheme (PPPS)

  • In addition to PDPS, it has been decided that for oilseeds, states have the option to roll out Private Procurement Stockist Scheme (PPSS) on pilot basis in selected district/APMC(s) of district involving the participation of private stockists.

  • Wheat, paddy and coarse grains are procured under the existing schemes of Department of Food and Public Distribution and Cotton is procured under the existing schemes of Ministry of Textiles.

  • It is helping farmers in getting increased MSP which provides adequate returns over the cost of production.

Important Points

  • Government fixes MSP for 22 mandated crops which are paddy, jowar, bajra, maize, ragi, arhar, moong, urad, groundnut-in-shell, soyabean, sunflower, sesamum, niger seed, cotton, wheat, barley, gram, masur(lentil), rapeseed/mustard, safflower, jute and copra.

  • In addition, MSP of Toria and de-husked coconut are also fixed on the basis of the MSPs of rapeseed/mustard and copra respectively.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 23

Prime Minister Narendra Modi will inaugurate ‘Maitri Setu’ between India and which of the following countries in March 2021?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 23
The correct answer is Bangladesh.

Key-Points

  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi will inaugurate ‘Maitri Setu’ between India and Bangladesh on 9 March 2021.

  • The ‘Maitri Setu’ has been built over the Feni river connecting Sabroom in India with Ramgarh in Bangladesh.

  • The construction of the 1.9 km long bridge was taken up by the National Highways and Infrastructure Development Corporation Ltd at a project cost of Rs. 133 crore.

Bangladesh:

  • Capital - Dhaka.

  • Currency - Bangladeshi Taka.

  • President - Abdul Hamid.

  • Prime Minister - Sheikh Hasina.

  • National Sport - Kabaddi.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 24

Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?

1. National Development Council

2. Planning Commission

3. Zonal Councils

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 24
The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES:

  1. The bodies/institutions that find a place in the Constitution of India, are termed as Constitutional Bodies.
  2. The table mentioned below contains the names of the Constitutional Bodies and the Article in which they are mentioned:

NON-CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES:

The institutions that do not find place in the Constitution and are established after passing an act of Parliament.

Following are the Non-Constitutional Bodies:

  • Central Bureau of Investigation
  • Central Information Commission
  • Central Vigilance Commission
  • Lokpal and Lokayuktas
  • NITI Aayog
  • National Development Council
  • National Disaster Management Authority
  • National Human Right Commission
  • National Investigation Agency
  • State Human Right Commission

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 25

The source of the Sanskrit phrase 'Satyameva Jayate' lies in the ______.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 25
The correct answer is Mundaka Upanishad.

Key-Points

Mundaka Upanishad:

  • Mundaka Upanishad is one of the types of Upanishad.

  • The word Upanishad means sitting down near someone and denotes a student sitting near his guru to learn.

  • These are one of four genres of texts that together constitute each of the Vedas, the sacred scriptures of most Hindu traditions.

  • Mundaka Upanishad is embedded in the Atharva Veda.

  • The Mundaka Upanishad contains three Mundakams (parts), each with two sections.

  • The first Mundakam defines the science of "Higher Knowledge" and "Lower Knowledge".

  • The second Mundakam describes the nature of the Brahman, the Self, the relation between the empirical world and the Brahman.

  • Satyamev Jayte is taken from this Upanishad.

Additional Information

Agam Literature:

  • Agam literature consists of many texts, which are the sacred books of the Jain religion.

  • They are written in the Ardha-magadhi, a form of Prakrit language.

Tripitaka:

  • The Tripiṭaka is the traditional term for the Buddhist scriptures.

  • After the death of Lord Buddha, his teachings were compiled by his disciples at a council of “elders” or senior

  • monks at Vesali.

  • These compilations were known as Tipitaka.

  • Pitaka means baskets to hold different types of

  • texts.

  • The Vinaya Pitaka included rules and regulations for those who joined the Sangha or monastic order.

  • The Sutta Pitaka included Buddha’s teachings.

  • The Abhidhamma Pitaka dealt with philosophical matters.

Bible:

  • The Bible is the sacred scriptures of Judaism and Christianity.

  • The arrangements of the Jewish and Christian canons differ considerably.

  • The Christian Bible consists of the Old Testament and the New Testament.

  • The Hebrew Bible includes only the books known to Christians as the Old Testament.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 26

Consider the following statements regarding the International Solar Alliance.

1. India has been re-elected as the President of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) and Russia as the Co-President for a term of four years.

2. This was the fourth Assembly of the International Solar Alliance.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 26
The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2.

In News -

  • The Third Assembly of the International Solar Alliance has been attended by 34 ISA Members ministers. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Important Points

  • India has been re-elected as the President of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) and France as the Co-President for a term of two years. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

  • The assembly also approved the initiatives of the ISA Secretariat in institutionalizing ISA’s engagement with the private and public corporate sector through the Coalition for Sustainable Climate Action (CSCA).

  • The assembly witnessed the conferment of the Visvesvaraya award which recognizes the countries with a maximum floating solar capacity in each of the four regions of ISA.

  • The awards went to Japan for the Asia Pacific region and the Netherlands for Europe and Other regions.

  • In the wake of the global pandemic, ISA set up ISA CARES, an initiative dedicated to the deployment of solar energy in the healthcare sector in LDC/SIDS ISA Member countries.

  • The initiative aims to solarize one primary health sector in each district of the target Member countries.

Additional Information

  • The ISA is an initiative that was launched by the Prime Minister of India and the President of France on 30 November 2015 at Paris, France on the side-lines of the COP-21.

  • The First Assembly of the ISA was held in October 2018 in Greater Noida, India.

  • The Second Assembly of the ISA was convened in 2019 at New Delhi.

  • The Third Assembly of the ISA will be convened from 14 to 16 October 2020 in virtual mode.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 27

In which country is the highest mountain peak of Africa Kilimanjaro located?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 27
The correct answer is Tanzania.

Key-Points

  • The highest mountain peak of Africa Mount Kilimanjaro is located in Tanzania.

  • It is located 5,895 metres (19,341 ft) above sea level.

  • It is located 4,900 metres (16,100 ft) above its plateau base.

Mount Kilimanjaro consists of three principal extinct volcanoes namely:

  1. Kibo (centre).

  2. Mawensi (east).

  3. Shira (west).

  • Kibo is the youngest and highest volcanic cone of Kilimanjaro.

  • Mount Kilimanjaro is the 4th most topographically prominent peak on Earth.

  • Hans Meyer and Ludwig Purtscheller in 1889 were the first people known to have reached the summit.

Additional Information

  • Mount Kinangop is a mountain in Kenya.

  • Mafinga Central is a mountain located on the border of Zambia and Malawi.

  • Mount Adaklu is a mountain located in Ghana.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 28

'BIMSTEC' is a sub-regional group comprising of seven countries of South Asia and SouthEast Asia headquartered at

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 28
The correct answer is Dhaka.
  • The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a regional organization, which comprises seven member states in South Asia and Southeast Asia.

Important Points

  • 'BIMSTEC' is a sub-regional organisation that came into being on June 6, 1997, on account of the Bangkok Declaration. It is headquartered in Dhaka, Bangladesh.

  • It comprises seven member countries: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Myanmar and Thailand.

  • In order to promote and stimulate trade and investment, the BIMSTEC Free Trade Area Framework Agreement (BFTAFA) has been signed by all member nations.

  • Initially, the economic bloc was formed with four Member States with the acronym ‘BIST-EC’ (Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand Economic Cooperation).

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 29

Who among the following has written the book titled "Voices of Dissent”?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 29
The correct answer is Romila Thapar.
  • Historian Romila Thapar has written the book titled "Voices of Dissent”.
  • Penguin Random House India and Seagull Books have come together to publish the book titled "Voices of Dissent".
  • The book will be released on October 19.
  • In this historical essay, Romila Thapar explores dissent, including its articulation and public response to its particular forms, with a special focus on recent protests in the country.

UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 30

Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Act made the President bound by the advice of the council of ministers headed by the prime minister?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC GS I Practice Test - 14 (Old Pattern) - Question 30
The correct answer is the 42nd constitutional Amendment.
  • The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 (During the Indira Gandhi Government) made the president bound by the advice of the council of ministers headed by the prime minister.

Key-Points

  • He was not only bound to act according to the advice of his council of ministers but also be liable to impeachment for violation of the Constitution if he refused to act by the advice.

  • The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 (During Janata Party Government) authorized the President to require the council of ministers to reconsider such advice.

  • However, he ‘shall’ act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsiderations.

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