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Daily Current Affairs MCQ - July 31, 2021 - UPSC MCQ


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10 Questions MCQ Test - Daily Current Affairs MCQ - July 31, 2021

Daily Current Affairs MCQ - July 31, 2021 for UPSC 2024 is part of UPSC preparation. The Daily Current Affairs MCQ - July 31, 2021 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The Daily Current Affairs MCQ - July 31, 2021 MCQs are made for UPSC 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Daily Current Affairs MCQ - July 31, 2021 below.
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Daily Current Affairs MCQ - July 31, 2021 - Question 1

Which of the following are the salient features of Discovered Small Field (DSF) Bid Round-III?

1. Revenue Sharing Model

2. No upfront signature bonus

3. No cess

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ - July 31, 2021 - Question 1

Minister of Petroleum and Natural Gas launched the Discovered Small Field (DSF) Bid Round-III.

  • Under the bid round, 75 discoveries across 32 Contract areas in 11 basins/locations are being offered. Estimated Hydrocarbon in place of approximately 232 MMTOE of oil and oil equivalent gas are on offer.
  • In the earlier two rounds, 54 contracts were awarded to 27 companies including 12 new entrants.

The salient features of DSF policy are:

  • Revenue Sharing Model,
  • Single License for Conventional & Unconventional Hydrocarbons,
  • No upfront signature bonus,
  • Reduced Royalty rate in line with HELP,
  • no cess,
  • Full marketing and Pricing freedom for gas produced,
  • Exploration allowed during entire contract period, and
  • 100% participation from foreign companies/ joint ventures.
  • Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
Daily Current Affairs MCQ - July 31, 2021 - Question 2

With reference to the “creamy layer”, consider the following statements:

1. It is a concept that sets a threshold within which OBC reservation benefits are applicable.

2. While there is a 27% quota for OBCs in government jobs and higher educational institutions, those falling within the “creamy layer” cannot get the benefits of this quota.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ - July 31, 2021 - Question 2

A proposal to revise the criteria for defining the “creamy layer” among OBCs has been pending for years, and MPs have raised the issue during the ongoing Monsoon Session of Parliament.

  • It is a concept that sets a threshold within which OBC reservation benefits are applicable.
  • While there is a 27% quota for OBCs in government jobs and higher educational institutions, those falling within the “creamy layer” cannot get the benefits of this quota.
  • Based on the recommendation of the Second Backward Classes Commission (Mandal Commission), the government on August 13, 1990 had notified 27% reservation for Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs) in vacancies in civil posts and services that are to be filled on direct recruitment.
  • After this was challenged, the Supreme Court on November 16, 1992 (Indira Sawhney case) upheld 27% reservation for OBCs, subject to exclusion of the creamy layer.
  • Following the order in Indra Sawhney, an expert committee headed by Justice (retired) R N Prasad was constituted for fixing the criteria for determining the creamy layer.
  • In 1993, the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) listed out various categories of people of certain rank/status/income whose children cannot avail benefit of OBC reservation.
  • For those not in government, the current threshold is an income of Rs 8 lakh per year. For children of government employees, the threshold is based on their parents’ rank and not income.
  • Hence both statements are correct.
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Daily Current Affairs MCQ - July 31, 2021 - Question 3

India and which of the following country recently signed the Second Amendment to the Statement of Guiding Principles on Triangular Cooperation for global development?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ - July 31, 2021 - Question 3

India and the US signed the Second Amendment to the Statement of Guiding Principles on Triangular Cooperation for global development.

  • The SGP Agreement, signed in November 2014, underscores the contribution of India-US partnership to global stability and prosperity.
  • It provides a framework for promoting cooperation between the two countries to meet the developmental aspirations of partner countries, particularly in Asia and Africa.
  • This triangular cooperation with the US will complement India’s other ongoing and future development partnerships, capacity building and technical assistance with countries globally.

Second Amendment

  • The Second Amendment to the SGP Agreement extends the validity of the SGP Agreement up-to 2026.
  • It expands the scope of capacity building activities undertaken jointly by India and the United States under this framework.
  • It also provides a consultative mechanism for joint biannual monitoring and review of activities undertaken under the SGP.
  • Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
Daily Current Affairs MCQ - July 31, 2021 - Question 4

With reference to the Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Bill 2021, consider the following statements:

1. The commission shall consist of a full-time chairperson having experience of not less than 15 years in the field of environment protection and pollution control or having administrative experience of not less than 25 years.

2. The chairperson or a member, other than an ex officio member, shall hold office for a term of three years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier, and shall not be eligible for re-appointment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ - July 31, 2021 - Question 4

The Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Bill 2021 was introduced in the Lok Sabha by Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

  • The bill aims for the constitution of a commission for better coordination, research, identification and resolution of problems related to air quality in the national capital region and adjoining areas.
  • The commission shall consist of a full-time chairperson having experience of not less than 15 years in the field of environment protection and pollution control or having administrative experience of not less than 25 years.
  • The chairperson or a member, other than an ex officio member, shall hold office for a term of three years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier, and shall be eligible for re-appointment.
  • Adjoining areas refers to Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Punjab and Rajasthan where any source of pollution may cause adverse impact on air quality in the NCR.
  • Once passed, the bill will replace an ordinance issued in the recent past.
  • According to the new Bill, "the commission may impose and collect environmental compensation from farmers causing air pollution by stubble burning, at such rate and in such manner, as may be prescribed".

Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ - July 31, 2021 - Question 5

With reference to the 6th meeting of the BRICS Counter Terrorism Working Group, consider the following statements:

1. It was held under the Chairmanship of China.

2. The main outcome of the Working Group meeting was the finalisation of the BRICS Counter Terrorism Action Plan.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ - July 31, 2021 - Question 5

The 6th meeting of the BRICS Counter Terrorism Working Group was held virtually on 28th and 29th of July under the Chairmanship of India.

  • The main outcome of the Working Group meeting was the finalisation of the BRICS Counter Terrorism Action Plan containing specific measures to implement the BRICS Counter Terrorism Strategy adopted by BRICS Leaders in 2020.
  • The Action Plan is aimed at further strengthening result oriented cooperation between BRICS countries in areas such as preventing and combating terrorism, radicalisation, financing of terrorism, misuse of internet by terrorists, and curbing travel of terrorists.
  • The BRICS Counter Terrorism Action Plan is one of the key deliverables during India’s Chairship of BRICS and will be adopted at the meeting of BRICS National Security Advisors scheduled next month.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ - July 31, 2021 - Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT).

1. The NPT is a multilateral treaty aimed at limiting the spread of nuclear weapons.

2. Both India and Pakistan have not signed the treaty.

3. The Treaty does not affect the right of state parties to develop, produce, and use nuclear energy for peaceful purposes.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ - July 31, 2021 - Question 6

Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)

  • The NPT is a multilateral treaty aimed at limiting the spread of nuclear weapons including three elements: (1) non-proliferation, (2) disarmament, and (3) peaceful use of nuclear energy.
  • These elements constitute a “grand bargain” between the five nuclear weapon states and the non-nuclear weapon states.
  • The treaty was signed in 1968 and entered into force in 1970. As of August 2016, 191 states have adhered to the treaty.
  • Though North Korea, acceded in 1985 but never came into compliance, announced its withdrawal from the NPT in 2003. Four states—India, Israel, Pakistan, and South Sudan—have never signed the treaty.

Key provisions:

  • The Treaty defines nuclear weapon states (NWS) as those that had manufactured and detonated a nuclear explosive device prior to 1 January 1967. All the other states are therefore considered non-nuclear weapon states (NNWS).
  • The five nuclear weapon states are China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
  • The Treaty does not affect the right of state parties to develop, produce, and use nuclear energy for peaceful purposes.
Daily Current Affairs MCQ - July 31, 2021 - Question 7

Consider the following statements:

1. Minimum Support Price (MSP) may be both lower or higher than the prevailing market price of the particular crop.

2. All food grain procurement operations in India are undertaken by the Food Corporation of India (FCI).

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ - July 31, 2021 - Question 7

MSP can be anything that the government considers that the farmers should fairly get. This is to help them get fair remuneration for their produce and to motivate or demotivate them to produce a particular crop. Hence it can be either lower or higher than the market price. For e.g. if the government wishes to discourage rice farming, it would lower the MSP of rice.

The procurement system decentralization was started in 1997 where states play a very important role in the supply chain. Not all procurements are done by FCI. State cooperative agencies and other state-level distribution agencies also play a crucial role.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ - July 31, 2021 - Question 8

Nauka, a space laboratory was recently launched by

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ - July 31, 2021 - Question 8

Nauka, meaning “science” in Russian, is the biggest space laboratory Russia has launched to date. It was sent into orbit on July 21, and will take eight days to reach the International Space Station.

Daily Current Affairs MCQ - July 31, 2021 - Question 9

Consider the following statements:

1. Article 340 of the Indian Constitution deals with the appointment of a commission to investigate the conditions of backward classes.

2. The Justice Rohini Commission was appointed in 2017 for the sub-categorisation of Other Backward Classes (OBCs).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ - July 31, 2021 - Question 9
  • Article 340 of the Indian Constitution deals with the appointment of a commission to investigate the conditions of backward classes. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • It deals with the need to, inter alia, identify those "socially and educationally backward classes", understand the conditions of their backwardness, and make recommendations to remove the difficulties they face.
  • The Justice Rohini Commission was constituted in October 2017 under Article 340 of the Constitution.
    • It is considering the sub-categorization of OBC quota and if any particular community or group of communities are benefiting most from the OBC quota and how to iron out anomalies. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • The OBCs are granted 27% reservation in jobs and education under the central government.
      • The need for sub-categorisation arises out of the perception that only a few affluent communities among the over 2,600 included in the Central List of OBCs have secured a major part of this 27% reservation.
      • Sub-categorisation would ensure a more equitable distribution of opportunities in central government jobs and educational institutions.
Daily Current Affairs MCQ - July 31, 2021 - Question 10

Consider the following statements:

1. Jharkhand has the highest number of severely acute malnourished children in 2020.

2. The National Family Health Survey-5 suggested the decrease in malnutrition among children in 2019-20 from 2015-16.

3. The Sustainable Development Goal (SDG-2) aims to end all forms of hunger and malnutrition by 2030.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for Daily Current Affairs MCQ - July 31, 2021 - Question 10
  • The World Health Organisation (WHO) defines ‘severe acute malnutrition’ (SAM) by very low weight-for-height or a mid-upper arm circumference less than 115 mm, or by the presence of nutritional oedema.
  • An estimated 9,27,606 ‘severely acute malnourished’ children from six months to six years were identified across the country till November 2020.
  • States with SAM Children:
    • The most in Uttar Pradesh (3,98,359) followed by Bihar (2,79,427).
    • Maharashtra (70,665) > Gujarat (45,749) > Chhattisgarh (37,249) > Odisha (15,595) > Tamil Nadu (12,489) > Jharkhand (12,059) > Andhra Pradesh (11,201) > Telangana (9,045) > Assam (7,218) > Karnataka (6,899) > Kerala (6,188) > Rajasthan (5,732).
    • Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • The Sustainable Development Goal (SDG 2: Zero hunger) aims to end all forms of hunger and malnutrition by 2030, making sure all people – especially children – have access to sufficient and nutritious food all year round. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • National Family Health Survey-4 (NFHS-4), 2015-16 suggests that prevalence of severe acute malnutrition among children was at 7.4%.
  • The National Family Health Survey (NFHS)-5 suggests that malnutrition increased among children in 2019-20 from 2015-16 in 22 states and UTs. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
    • Stunted: Around 13 states and UTs out of the 22 surveyed recorded a rise in percentage of children under five years who are stunted in comparison to 2015-16.
    • Wasted: 12 states and UTs recorded a rise in the percentage of children under five years who are wasted.
    • Severely wasted and underweight: 16 states and UTs recorded a rise in the percentage of children under five years who are severely wasted and underweight in 2019-20.
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