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General Awareness Test- 6 - CAT MCQ


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20 Questions MCQ Test - General Awareness Test- 6

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General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 1

Which of the following Articles of Constitutional Bodies is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 1
  • Article 324 defines a constitutional body election commission. It conducts elections of center and State government (President, V ice President, Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assembly, State Legislative Council).
  • Article 280 defines the Finance Commission which divides the tax between State and Central government.
  • Article 148 defines the CAG which is also known as a watchdog of the Public Purse.
  • Article 76 defines the Attorney General of India who is the first lawyer of the Government of India.
  • Attorney General of India works on the Pleasure of the President.

Hence, the correct option is (D).

General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 2

Which of the following statements with regards to Champaran Satyagraha is correct?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 2
  • Gandhi used the technique of civil disobedience (and NOT hunger strike) for the first time in India during Champaran Satyagraha.
  • It was during the Ahmedabad Mill strike that Gandhi used the technique hunger strike for the first time in India. So, Option (A) is not correct.
  • Gandhi was requested by Rajkumar Shukla, a local man, to look into the problems of the farmers in the context of indigo planters of Champaran in Bihar.
  • The European planters had been forcing the peasants to grow indigo on 3/20 part of the total land (called tinkathia system). So, Option (B) is correct.
  • Important leaders associated with Champaran movement include Rajendra Prasad, Mazharul-Haq, Mahadeo Desai, Narhari Parekh, J.B. Kripalani, Brajkishore Prasad, Anugrah Narayan Sinha, Ramnavmi Prasad and Shambhusharan Varma.

Hence, the correct option is (B).

General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 3

With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations, or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 3
  • The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
  • Enforcement of decrees and orders of Supreme Court: The Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it, and any decree so passed or orders so made shall be enforceable throughout the territory of India in such manner as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament and, until provision in that behalf is so made, in such manner as the President may by order prescribe.
  • Hence, the correct option is (B).
General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 4

The Hornbill Festival is one of the important festivals celebrated in _________.

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 4
  • Hornbill Festival is one of the most important festivals of Nagaland.
  • It takes place from 1st to 7th December every year.
  • It is done by the Naga Troops.
  • Hence, the correct option is (B).
General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 5

Which of the following statements about Mahatma Gandhi's Satyagraha is/are correct?

  1. It was during the course of his campaign against racialism in South Africa that Gandhiji first applied Satyagraha

  2. The two vital ingredients of Satyagraha are 'truth' and 'non-violence'

  3. The Satyagraha resists evil by inflicting suffering on himself and not by inflicting suffering in the opponent

  4. In India, Satyagraha was first tried by Gandhiji in Champaran

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 5
  • Satyagraha term was developed by Mahatma Gandhi.
  • The term was developed during the struggles for human rights (Racialism) in South Africa and later in Indian National Movement. So statement 1 is correct.
  • According to him, Truth (Satya) means to love and agraha means firmness (another word for force).
  • He described the Indian National Movement as Satyagraha because of a force derived from truth and non-violence (love). So statement 2 is correct.
  • He described that while pursuing the truth, one must follow patience.
  • Patience is another term for self-suffering.
  • So, the doctrine of truth means or suppressing evils by suffering on oneself not by inflicting on the opponent. So statement 3 is correct.
  • Gandhiji's first major movement in India was Champaran Satyagraha.
  • The issue involved the cultivators who were forced by the Europeans to cultivate indigo on 3/20 th of their holdings (tinkathia system).
  • As a result of this movement, the Government appointed a commission for inquiry and nominated Gandhiji as one of its members.
  • The commission concluded that the tinkathia system needed to be abolished and peasants should be compensated for illegal enhancement of their dues.
  • In the end, after the compromise, Gandhiji agreed that they refund only 25% of the money they had taken illegally from the peasants.

Hence, the correct option is (D).

General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 6

With which of the following events of Indian National Struggle, did the Mappila Revolt merge with?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 6
  • The Mappilas were the Muslim tenants inhabiting the Malabar region where most of the landlords were Hindus.
  • The Mappilas had expressed their resentment against the oppression of the landlords during the nineteenth century also.
  • The Mappila tenants were particularly encouraged by the demand of the local Congress body for a government legislation regulating tenant-landlord relations.
  • Soon, the Mappila movement merged with the ongoing Khilafat agitation. So, Option D is correct.
  • The leaders of the Khilafat-Non-Cooperation Movement like Gandhi, Shaukat Ali, and Maulana Azad addressed Mappila meetings.

Hence, the correct option is (D).

General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 7

Who wrote 'Ramayana' grantha?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 7
  • Ramayana is the most important Sanskrit epics of ancient India.
  • The epic, traditionally ascribed to the Maharishi Valmiki, narrates the life of Rama, a legendary prince of Ayodhya city in the kingdom of Kosala.
  • It consists of nearly 24,000 verses, divided into five kaṇḍas: the ayodhyakaṇḍa, the araṇyakaṇḍa, the Kiskindhakand, the Sundarkanda, and the laṅkākāṇḍa, and about 500 Sargas (chapters).
  • The Ramayana Grantha depicts the duties of relationships, portraying ideal characters like the ideal father, the ideal servant, the ideal brother, the ideal husband, and the ideal king.

Hence, the correct option is (D).

General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 8

Consider the following statements regarding Karbi Anglong Autonomous Council (KAAC).

  1. It is an autonomous district council, protected under the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

  2. The entire political discourse in this constituency comprising two districts of Karbi Anglong and West Karbi Anglong revolves around the demand for granting of “Autonomous State” status to the region.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 8
  • The surrendered militants comprised cadres from five outfits — Karbi People’s Liberation Tiger (KPLT), People’s Democratic Council of Karbi Longri (PDCK), Karbi Longri NC Hills Liberation Front (KLNLF), Kuki Liberation Front (KLF) and United People’s Liberation Army (UPLA).
  • Insurgency by Karbi — a major ethnic community of Assam — has had a long history in Assam since the late 1980s.
  • These outfits originated from a core demand of forming a separate state.
  • Today, the Karbi Anglong Autonomous Council (KAAC) is an autonomous district council, protected under the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. So statement 1 is correct.
  • The entire political discourse in this constituency — comprising three districts of Karbi Anglong, West Karbi Anglong (split from the former in 2016) and Dima Hasao — revolves around the demand forGranting of “Autonomous State” status to the region and (So statement 2 is not correct)
  • More autonomy and power to the KAAC and the North Cachar Hills Autonomous Council (which administers over Dima Hasao district).

Hence, the correct option is (A).

General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 9

Consider the following statements:

1. Any sector is granted 'infrastructure' status by the Department of Heavy Industry.

2. Department of Heavy Industry comes under the Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 9

Financial Ministry comprises of five departments-

  • Department of Economic Affairs- This department prepares the budget, manages forex management, inflation, and price control.

  • Department of Financial Services- It covers the functioning of banks, FIs, Insurance companies, and Pension System.

  • Department of Expenditure- It implements recommendations of the Financial commission and Pays commission.

  • Department of Revenue- CBDT and CBIC come under this department.

  • Department of Investment and Public Asset Management- It sees the management of the central government including disinvestment in CPSEs.

Hence, the correct option is (B).

General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 10

President of India, Ram Nath Kovind, has inaugurated the world’s largest Stadium in which of the following states on February 24, 2021?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 10
  • President Ramnath Kovind inaugurated the Narendra Modi Stadium, the world’s largest cricket stadium in Motera, Gujarat on February 24, 2021.
  • Motera stadium was renamed as the Narendra Modi Stadium.
  • It is the largest cricket stadium in the world and the second-largest stadium overall, with a seating capacity of 132,000 viewers.
  • The stadium has been in over 63 acres and is well-equipped with all the modern facilities and technologies required for present-day cricket.
  • The stadium was constructed in the year 1983 and was first renovated in 2006.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 11

NIRVIK Scheme, recently in news is related to -

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 11
  • The Finance Minister announced the NIRVIK scheme in the Union Budget 2020-21.
  • It will provide high insurance cover for exporters and reduce premium for small exporters.
  • To achieve higher export credit disbursement, a new scheme NIRVIK is being launched which provides for high insurance cover, reduction in premium for small exporters and simplified procedures for claim, settlement.
  • Under the Scheme, also called the Export Credit Insurance Scheme (ECIS), the insurance guarantee could cover up to 90% of the principal and interest.
  • The Export Credit Guarantee Corporation (ECGC) cover will also provide additional comfort to banks as the credit rating of the borrower is enhanced to AA rated account. Enhanced cover will ensure that Foreign and Rupee export credit interest rates will be below 4% and 8% respectively for exporters.
  • Under ECIS, insurance cover percentage has also been enhanced to 90% from the present average of 60% for the both principal and interest.
  • The Export Credit Corporation currently provides credit guarantee of up to 60 percent loss. The development assumes significance as exporters have raised concerns over availability of credit.

Hence, the correct option is (C).

General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 12

Who among the following was the first permanent President of the Constituent Assembly of India?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 12

The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan.

  • It held its first meeting on December 9, 1946.

  • The Muslim League boycotted the meeting and insisted on a separate state of Pakistan.

  • The Meeting was attended by 211 members.

  • Following the French practice, Dr Sachchidananda Singh was elected as the temporary President of the Assembly as he was the oldest member.

  • Later, Dr Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent President of the Assembly.

  • H.C. Mookerjee and V.T. Krishnamachari were elected as the Vice-Presidents of the Assembly.

  • Dr B. R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.

As Dr Rajendra prasad was the permanent President of the Assembly, thus, we will say that the first President of the Constituent Assembly of India is Dr Rajendra Prasad.

Hence, the correct option is (B).

General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 13

Which Indian state produces the largest quantity of Pulses?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 13
  • Madhya Pradesh was the largest producer of pulses among other Indian states in the financial year 2018.
  • Wheat, Jau, Jwar, Bajra, Maize, and Pulses are the food crops of Rajasthan.
  • India is the largest producer (25% of global production), the consumer (27% of world consumption), and the importer (14%) of pulses in the world.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 14

Eat Right Movement has been launched by which among the following?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 14
  • Eat Right Movement was launched by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI).
  • The movement aims to cut down salt/sugar and oil consumption by 30% in three years.
  • It also aims to engage and enable citizens to improve their health and well-being by making the right food choices.
  • This movement is aligned with the government’s flagship public health programmes such as POSHAN Abhiyaan, Anemia Mukt Bharat, Ayushman Bharat Yojana and Swachh Bharat Mission.
  • FSSAI has put in place robust regulatory measures under three major pillars: Eat Safe, Eat Health and Eat Sustainably for the programme.
  • FSSAI has prescribed a limit for Total Polar Compounds (TPC) at 25% in cooking oil to avoid the harmful effects of reused cooking oil.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 15

Which country won the Road Safety World Series final in March 2021?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 15
  • In cricket, India Legends defeated Sri Lanka Legends by 14 runs in the final of the Road Safety World Series to clinch the title at Shaheed Veer Narayan Singh International Stadium in Raipur, Chhattisgarh on 21 March 2021.
  • Sachin Tendulkar, captain of the India Legends, finished the tournament as the third-highest run-getter in the tournament.
  • He scored 234 runs.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 16

Which of the following measures, generally invoked by the government, help contain price rise in certain food commodities?

  1. Invoking Essential Commodities Act.

  2. Zero export duty on those food crops.

  3. Promoting futures and forward trading in those food commodities to stabilize food prices.

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 16
  • Invoking Essential Commodities Act against hoarding traders and stockist reduces hoarding and increases supply in the market thus reducing prices. So, statement 1 is correct.
  • Prices rise when production falls short of demand. Zero duty on exports would further reduce domestic supply. So, statement 2 is NOT correct.
  • Futures and forward trading in times of price rise further destabilizes food prices by speculation. The government recently suspended such trading in view of rising pulse prices. So, statement 3 is NOT correct.

Hence, the correct option is (D).

General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 17

With reference to “Blockchain Technology”, consider the following statements:

1. It is a public ledger that everyone can inspect, but which no single user controls.

2. The structure and design of the blockchain are such that all the data in it are about cryptocurrency only.

3. Applications that depend on the basic features of blockchain can be developed without anybody’s permission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 17

Blockchain Technology-

  • It is referred to as Distributed Ledger Technology.

  • It facilitates the process of recording transactions and tracking assets in a business network.

  • It is ideal for delivering the information in business because it provides immediate, shared, and completely transparent information stored on an immutable ledger that can be accessed only by permission network members.

  • With the shared ledger, transactions are recorded only once, eliminating the duplication of effort.

  • No participant can change or tamper with a transaction after it’s been recorded to the shared ledger.

  • The blocks form a chain of data as the ownership changes hands. So, it has no single user control. So statement 1 is correct.

  • The blocks confirm the exact time and sequence of transactions, and the blocks link securely together to prevent any block from being altered.Each additional block strengthens the verification of the previous block and So the entire blockchain is formed.

  • The verification of each block make the blockchain tamper-evident and builds a ledger of transactions that network members can trust.

  • The applications that depend on the basic features of the blockchain can be developed without asking anybody for permission or paying anyone. So statement 3 is correct.

  • Since blockchain operates through a decentralized platform requiring no central supervision, it is used in voting, banking, messaging app, internet advertising, etc. So, it is not restricted to cryptocurrency. So statement 2 is not correct.

Hence, the correct option is (D).

General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 18

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Finance Commission of India?

1. The eligibility of members of the Finance Commission is determined by the President.

2. The First Finance Commission was constituted in 1951.

3. The President of India constitutes the Finance Commission every 5 years.

4. Chairman of Finance Commission submits his report to the Parliament of India.

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 18

The President of India constitutes the Finance Commission every 5 years. So, Statement 3 is correct.

The first Finance Commission was constituted in 1951. So, Statement 2 is correct.

The eligibility of members of the Finance Commission is determined by the Parliament of India. So, Statement 1 is incorrect.

Chairman of Finance Commission submits his report to the President of India. So, Statement 4 is incorrect.

Composition: Chairman and 4 members.

  • ​They make recommendations on

  • net proceeds distribution between union and state.

  • grant-in-aid from CFI (Consolidated Fund of India).

  • Principles and measures needed for augmentation of CFS (Consolidated Fund of State).

Resources to panchayats and municipalities.

Any other matter referred to the commission by President in the interest of sound finance.

Procedure and powers are defined by parliament law.

Hence, the correct option is (B).

General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 19

Lord Curzon formed Police commission under the leadership of _______.

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 19

Lord Curzon (1899-1905):

  • He formed a Police commission in 1902 under the leadership of Sir Andrew Fraser.

  • It recommended a separate Training center for officers and constables.

  • It introduced provincial police service and also at the same time to make Indian Army modern fighting force then Commander-in-chief Lord Kitchener made reform in the Indian Military.

  • He passed the Calcutta Corporation Act in the year 1899.

  • According to the act, it increased the number of official members and decreased the strength of elected official members.

  • As official members were mostly British Subjects it caused resentment in the Indian public.

  • He was the Viceroy who passed a law for protecting Ancient Indian monuments.

  • He passed the law in 1904 made the destruction of Ancient Monuments as an offense and directed officials to collect and preserve ancient monuments.

  • British viceroy in India, Lord Curzon, carried out Partition of Bengal, (1905) despite strong Indian nationalist opposition.

  • The government announced the partition in January 1904.

  • Bengal was divided into two new provinces 'Bengal' (which comprises western Bengal and the province of Bihar and Orissa) and Eastern Bengal and Assam, with Dacca as the capital of the latter.

Hence, the correct option is (B).

General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 20

Which of the following Union Territories has a Chief Minister?

Detailed Solution for General Awareness Test- 6 - Question 20
  • There are 3 Union Territories which has a Chief Minister.
  • Delhi, Puducherry have a Chief Minister.

Hence, the correct option is (C).

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