UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 24 - UPSC MCQ

The State government is required to appoint a State Finance Commission once every five years. So, statement 1 is not correct. This Commission would examine the financial position of the local government bodies in the State. It would also review the distribution of revenues between the State and local governments on the one hand and between rural and urban local governments on the other. This innovation ensures that allocating funds to the rural and urban local bodies will not be a political matter. So, statements 2 and 3 are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is c. 

Union List
Union Legislature alone can make laws on these matters.
It includes subjects like: 

• Defense
• Atomic Energy
• Foreign Affairs
• War and Peace
• Banking
• Railways
• Post and Telegraph
• Airways
• Ports 
• Foreign Trade
• Currency & Coinage

State List
Normally only the State Legislature can make laws on these matters.
It includes subjects like:

• Agriculture 
• Police 
• Prison 
• Local Government 
• Public Heath 
• Land 
• Liquor 
• Trade and Commerce 
• Livestock and Animal Husbandry 
• State Public Services

Concurrent List- 
Both the Union and State Legislature alone can make laws on these matters.
it includes subjects like: 

• Education 
• Transfer of Property other than Agricultural land 
• Forests 
• Trade Unions 
• Adulteration 
• Adoption and Succession
  Residuary Powers - Union Legislature alone has the power to legislate on such matters. It includes all other matters not mentioned in any of the Lists. Example- Cyber Laws
  Therefore, the correct answer is b.

The Constitution of India provides for a single integrated judicial system. This means that unlike some other federal countries of the world, India does not have separate State courts. The judiciary structure in India is pyramidal with the Supreme Court at the top, High Courts below them and district and subordinate courts at the lowest level. So, statement 2 is correct. Powers of High Court:

• Can hear appeals from lower courts.
• Can issue writs for restoring Fundamental Rights. So, statement 1 is not correct.
• Can deal with cases within the jurisdiction of the State.
• Exercises superintendence and control over courts below it.

The Supreme Court of India possesses advisory jurisdiction. This means that the President of India can refer any matter that is of public importance or that which involves interpretation of the Constitution to the Supreme Court for advice. However, the Supreme Court is not bound to give advice on such matters, and the President is not bound to accept such advice. High Courts do not have advisory jurisdiction. So, statement 3 is not correct. Therefore, the answer is b. 

Judiciary advanced the theory of basic structure in the famous case of Kesavananda Bharati in 1973. This
ruling has contributed to the evolution of the Constitution in the following ways:

• It has set specific limits to the Parliament's power to amend the Constitution. It says that no amendment can violate the basic structure of the Constitution;
• It allows the Parliament to amend any and all parts of the Constitution (within this limitation); and
• It places the Judiciary as the final authority in deciding if an amendment violates basic structure and what constitutes the basic structure.

Kesavananda Bharti's case implied that the Parliament could only amend the Constitution and not rewrite it. The power to amend is not a power to destroy. Hence, the Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution, including the Fundamental Rights but without affecting the 'basic structure' of the Constitution. So, statement (1) is not correct.
The Supreme Court upholds the harmony and balance between the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles in the Minerva Mills case. So, the Basic structure doctrine also applies to the Directive Principles of State Policy. So, statement (2) is also not correct.
Therefore, the answer is d. 

Article 30 (1): All religious and linguistic minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. So, statement (1) is not correct. Recently in the TIVlA Pai Foundation case, the Supreme Court held that the state is well within its rights to introduce a regulatory regime in the "national interest" to provide minority educational institutions with well-qualified teachers in order for them to "achieve excellence in education." It said Article 30(1) (right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice) was neither absolute nor above the law. So, statement (2) is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is d.

Based on various unitary features of the Indian constitution, some political scholars have called Indian federalism 'Quasi-federal' that is a federal arrangement with strong unitary bias. Replying to critics of the Constitution, Ivor Jennings has described it as a "federation with a strong centralising tendency," and Granville Austin called the Indian federalism a "cooperative federalism." Similarly, Supreme Court has reinstated the federal character of the Indian Constitution in SR Bommai case judgement by declaring federalism as part of the 'Basic Structure.' The fact that under the scheme of our Constitution, greater power is conferred upon the Centre vis-a-vis the States does not mean that the States are mere appendages of the Centre. The States have an independent constitutional existence. The fact that during an emergency and in certain other eventualities, their powers are overridden is not destructive of the essential federal feature of the Constitution. They are exceptions, and the exceptions are not a rule. So, statement (1) is correct. According to Pratap Bhanu Mehta, the following trends in the working of the Indian political system reflects its federal spirit: 

• Territorial disputes between States, for example, between Maharashtra and Karnataka over Belgaum; " Disputes between States over sharing of river water, for example, between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu over Cauvery Water; 
• The emergence of regional parties and their coming to power in States like Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, etc. So, statement (2) is correct; 
• The creation of new States to fulfil the regional aspirations, for example, Mizorarn or recently Jharkhand, etc. So, statement (3) is correct; 
• The demand of the States for more financial grants from the Centre to meet their developmental needs;
• Assertion of autonomy by the States and their resistance to the interference from the Centre;
• Supreme Court's imposition of several procedural limitations on the use of Article 356 (President's Rule in the States) by the Centre; so, statement (4) is correct.
  Therefore, the correct answer is d.

Constitutionalism means limited Government. Constitutionalism is primarily based on the notion of people's sovereignty, which is to be exercised - in a limited manner - by a representative government. So, statement (1) is correct. Fundamental Rights are enforceable directly through writ jurisdiction of SC and HC and hence can act as limitations on the acts of Government. So, statement (2) is not correct. The rule of !aw safeguards constitutionalism. Only when the supremacy of the rule of law is established can supremacy of the Constitution exist. So, Statement (3) is correct. Directive Principles of State Policy are not enforceable, hence cannot contribute to the rule of law. Fundamental Duties are, in fact, constraints/limitations on the part of citizens, not on the Government. So, statements (4) and (5) are not correct. Judicial review and Independent Judiciary ensure the check and balance on the arbitrary power of Government. So, statement (6) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is d.

Federalism is a system of Government in which States or Provinces share power with a national government. Cooperative federalism refers to a concept where various States cooperate amongst themselves and with the Centre to achieve growth, development of the States and the nation. Article 1 defines the Indian federation as a 'union of States' where no State has the right to secede and the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement by the States. So, statement d is correct. In India, there is an unequal division of power between the Centre and the States as provided under the Seventh Schedule, Emergency Provisions, etc. So, statement a is not correct. It is not a result of an agreement among the States like the US Federal system. Elements of federalism were introduced into modern India by the Government of India Act of 1919, which separated powers between the Centre and the provincial legislatures. So, statement bis not correct. In coming together as a Federation, independent (and not dependent) States come together to form a larger unit. Here, States enjoy more autonomy as compared to the holding together kind of federation. Example: USA, Australia, Switzerland. So, statement c is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is d. 

Secularism is defined as the principle of separation of State from religious institutions. Secularism calls for a doctrine where all religions are given equal status, recognition and support from the State. It can also be defined as a doctrine that promotes the separation of State from religion. Indian Constitution does not uphold any particular religion as the official religion of the State and gives equal respect to all religions or protects all religions equally. So, statement b is correct. Article 25 (2) allows the interference of the state in religious matters for social reforms and welfare. So, statement c is not correct. India's secularism is more inclusive and positive. It supports all religions and cultures. Muslims are given Haj subsidy, the State spends and helps arrange Kumbh Mela, Amarnath Yatra, etc. So, statement d is not correct. India's model of Secularism is based on the principle of distance model rather than the strict separation of religion and State. So, statement a is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is b. 

The term 'equality' means the absence of special privileges to any section of the society and the provision of adequate opportunities for all individuals without any discrimination. The Preamble secures to all citizens of India equality of status and opportunity. Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the National Awards-Bharat Ratna, Pad ma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Sri. It ruled that these awards do not amount to 'titles' within the meaning of Article 18 that prohibits only hereditary titles of nobility. Therefore, they are not violative of Article 18 as the theory of equality does not mandate that merit should not be recognized. So, statement (2) is not correct. Affirmative action !ike reservation creates a level playing field and hence promotes equality. So, statement (1) is not correct. Extreme poverty goes against the ideals of economic equality. So, statement (4) is correct. The rule of equality is not absolute and there is a certain constitutional exception under Article 361, which includes the immunity to foreign sovereigns, ambassadors, diplomats and UNO and its agencies. So, statement {3) is not correct. Therefore the correct answer is c. 

In 1973, a landmark judgement ensued in the Kesavananda Bharati case, where the SC held that no part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, was beyond the Parliament's amending power except the "basic structure of the Constitution". Not all of the Fundamental Rights are part of the 'basic structure doctrine. Rather, on a case to case basis, the courts pronounce the features in the basic structure of the Constitution. So, statement {1) is not correct. The Fundamental Rights mentioned in the Constitution of India are not permanent/sacrosanct or have a transcendental position and they can be abolished by the Parliament e.g., the Forty-Fourth Amendment of 1978 deleted the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights. So, statement {2) is not correct. Fundamental Rights can be suspended during a national emergency under Articles 358 and 359 of the Constitution. So, statement (3) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is a.

The Indian Constitution is federal and envisages a dual polity {Centre and States). It provides for only single citizenship, that is, Indian citizenship. There is no separate state citizenship, although other federal States like the USA and Switzerland adopted the system of double citizenship. In the USA, each person is a citizen of the USA and the particular State. Thus he enjoys dual sets of rights-one set conferred by the national Government and another by the state government. So, statements (1) and (2) are correct. In India, all citizens, irrespective of the State in which they are born or reside enjoy the same political and civil rights of citizenship all over the country and no discrimination is made between them. However, this general rule of the absence of discrimination is subject to some exceptions, viz, 

• The Parliament (under Article 16) can prescribe residence within a State or Union Territory as a condition for certain employments or appointments in that State or Union Territory, or local authority or other authority within that State or Union Territory. 
• The Constitution (under Article 15) prohibits discrimination against any citizen on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth and not on the ground of residence. This means that the State can provide special benefits or give preference to its residents in matters that do not come within the purview of the rights given by the Constitution to the Indian citizens. For example, a State may offer concession in fees for education to its residents. So, Statement (4) is not correct. Like the Canadian Constitution, the India Constitution has introduced the system of single citizenship, and provided uniform rights (except in few cases) to the people of India. It is to promote the feeling of fraternity and unity among them and to build an integrated Indian nation. So, statement (3) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is a. 

Public Acts, Records, and Judicial Proceedings Under the Constitution, the jurisdiction of each State is confined to its own territory. Hence, it is possible that the acts and records of one State may not be recognized in another State. To remove any such difficulty, the Constitution contains the 'Full Faith and Credit' clause, which lays down the following: 

• Full faith and credit is to be given throughout the territory of India to public acts, records and judicial proceedings of the Centre and every State. So, Statement (1) is correct. 
• The manner in which and the conditions under which such acts, records and proceedings are to be proved and their effect determined would be as provided by the laws of Parliament. 
• Final judgments and orders of civil courts in any part of India can execute anywhere within India. The rule applies only to civil judgments and not to criminal judgments. in other words. it does not require the courts of a State to enforce the penal laws of another State. So, Statement (2) is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is a.

Parliamentary legislation in the State field is allowed when Rajya Sabha passes a resolution as per Article 249. Suppose the Rajya Sabha declares that it is necessary in the national interest that Parliament should make laws with respect to GST or a matter in the State List. In that case, the Parliament becomes competent to make laws on that matter. Such a resolution must be supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting. The resolution remains in force for one year; it can be renewed any number of times but not exceeding one year at a time. The laws cease to have an effect on the expiration of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force. This provision does not restrict the power of a State Legislature to make laws on the same matter. But, in case of inconsistency between State law and Parliamentary law, the latter prevails. So, Statements (1) and (2) are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is c.

In the scheme of the parliamentary system of Government provided by the Constitution, the Governor is the nominal executive authority (de jure executive), and the Chief Minister is the real executive authority (de facto executive). So statement (2) is not correct. Article 164 only says that the Governor shall appoint the Chief Minister and the Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister. According to the constitution, the Chief Minister may be a member of any of the two Houses of the State Legislature. So statement (1) is not correct. The term of the Chief Minister is not fixed and she holds office during the Governor's pleasure. However, this does not mean that the Governor can dismiss them at any time. So statement (3) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is a.

Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation Ltd (TRIFED), Ministry ofTribal Affairs, Government of India has launched two interesting competitions, Be the Brand Ambassador of Tribes India and Be a 'Friend' of TRIBES INDIA Contest in association with MyGov.in, the citizen-government engagement platform. These competitions have been launched with the sole objective of promoting tribal craft, culture and lifestyle. Through these innovative contests, awareness about tribal heritage, arts, crafts can be enhanced among the general public. With more knowledge and awareness about tribal heritage, it is hoped that citizens will also contribute to overall tribal empowerment by purchasing more tribal products. "Be the Brand Ambassador of Tribes India" is inviting stories featuring any tribal product (s) from customers across the country. The stories should highlight his/ her experience in using the product and provide details of the product and the place/ shop from where it was purchased. The requirement is that the stories are short videos ranging from 30 seconds to 5 minutes. So, only option c is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is c.

• The Government has launched 'Aahaar Kranti,' a mission dedicated to spreading awareness about nutrition. 
• The mission is to spread the message of the need for a nutritionally balanced diet and understand the importance of accessibility to all local fruits and vegetables. So, statement (1) is correct. ~ Vijnana Bharati (Vibha) and Global Indian Scientists' and Technocrats' Forum (GIST) have come together to launch the mission with the motto of Uttam Aahaar Uttam Vichaar or 'Good Diet-Good Cognition.' So, statement (2) is not correct. 
• The 'Aahaar Kranti' movement is designed to address the particular problem being faced by India and the world called 'hunger and diseases in abundance'. Studies estimate that India produces as much as two times the amount of calories that it consumes. However, many in the country are still malnourished. The root cause of this strange phenomenon is a lack of nutritional awareness in all sections of our society. So, statement (3) is correct. 
• There is a need for a nutritionally balanced diet also in the context of the current COVID-19 pandemic. A healthy body would be able to handle the infection much better with more excellent immunity and higher resilience. 
• The movement proposes addressing the current situation of hunger in abundance by working to rouse the people to the values of India\ traditional diet, the healing powers of local fruits and vegetables, and the miracles of a balanced diet. It will renew the focus on nutritionally balanced diets - (Uttam evam santulit aahaar) replete in locally sourced fruits and vegetables. 
• The program will focus on training teachers, who, in turn, will pass on the message to the multitudes of students, and through them to their families and finally the society at large. Such a strategy was adopted to eradicate polio and it turned out to be a grand success. Therefore, the correct answer is c.

• Startup India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS) has been approved for the next four years, starting from 2021-22. It will be implemented with effect from 1st April 2021. 
• It aims to provide financial assistance to startups for proof of concept, prototype development, product trials, market entry and commercialization. So, statement (1) is correct. 
• Rs. 945 Crores corpus will be divided over the next four years for providing seed funding to eligible startups through eligible incubators across India. The scheme is expected to support about 3600 startups 
• Nodal Department: Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade. So, statement (2) is correct. " The SISFS will Secure seed funding, Inspire innovation, Support transformative ideas, Facilitate implementation, and Start a startup revolution. 
• The Scheme will create a robust startup ecosystem, particularly in Tier 2 and Tier 3 towns of India, which are often deprived of adequate funding. Therefore, the correct answer is d.

Compulsory Licensing allows governments to license third parties (that is, parties other than the patent holders) to produce and market a patented product or process without the consent of patent owners. The demand for compulsory licenses for the manufacture of an affordable generic version of Remdesivir has been raised. Chapter XVI of the Indian Patents Act 1970 and the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights discuss compulsory licensing. So, statement (1) is correct. Any time after three years from the date of sealing of a patent, an application for the compulsory license can be made, provided: " Reasonable requirements of the public have not been satisfied; 

• The patented invention is not available to the public at a reasonably affordable price. 
• Patented inventions are not carried. The TRIPS agreement does not specifically list the reasons that might be used to justify compulsory licensing.
  However, the Doha declaration confirms that the countries are free to determine a national emergency. So, statement (2) is not correct. The first ever license was issued on 9 March 2012 in India for treatment of liver and kidney cancer. Therefore, the correct answer is a.

• Recently, the Supreme Court sought a reply from the Centre on a PIL (Public Interest Litigation) seeking gender and religion-neutral uniform grounds of succession and inheritance for citizens in the country. A UCC refers to a single law applicable to all citizens of India in matters such as marriage, divorce, custody, adoption and inheritance.
• A UCC is intended to replace fragmented personal laws, which currently govern interpersonal relationships and related matters within different religious communities.
• Article 44 of the Constitution lays down that the ‘State shall endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code for the citizens throughout the territory of India.’ So, statement (1) is not correct.
• Goa at present, is the only State in India with a Uniform Civil Code. The Portuguese Civil Code of 1867,which continues to be implemented after India annexed Goa in 1961, applies to all Goans, irrespective of their religious or ethnic community. So, statement (2) is not correct.
• The Parliament does not have exclusive jurisdiction over personal laws. “Personal laws” are mentioned in the Concurrent List. So, statement (3) is correct.
  Therefore, the correct answer is d.

Recently, United Nations General Assembly unanimously approved the resolution sponsored by India to declare 2023 as the International! Year of Millets. In 2018, India had proposed to celebrate 2023 as the International Year of Millets at the Food and Agriculture Organization.
India is the largest producer of millets in the world, with a 41.0% global market share. India produced 11.5 million tonnes of millets in 2020. During 2017-18, the maximum area under millets was in Rajasthan, followed by Maharashtra and Karnataka. Major Millets grow in Kharif season (July to October): Pearl millet/bajra, finger millet/ragi (cereals), and jowar are Kharif crops.

Challenges to millet production
A disproportionate focus on rice and wheat: While almost a third of all major food grains in India constituted millets during 1950-51, this reduced to only around 15% by 2018-19. Also, the area under millet declined from 37 million ha in 1965-66 to 14.72 million ha in 2016-17. So, option (3) is correct.
Low productivity: Most of the millets are grown in arid and semi-arid regions, which are rainfall- dependent due to less profitability. Adequate inputs are not used while sowing. So, option (2) is correct.
The lower or near absence of production support, in terms of input supply and subsidy (seed and nutrients), irrigation support, and marketing support, and lack of modern technology when compared to the help enjoyed by other crops. So, option (1) is correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is c.

Members of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) will hold a joint anti-terrorism exercise this year. The decision to have the joint exercise “Pabbi-Anti-Terror- 2021” was announced during the 36th meeting of the Council of the Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) held in Tashkent Uzbekistan, on March 18, 2021. The multinational military exercise will be organized in Pakistan by the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO), of which India is a member.
Therefore, the correct answer is c

• Project DANTAK was established on April 24, 1961, as a result of the visionary leadership of Bhutan’s King and then Prime Minister Jawahar Lal Nehru. So, option c 1s correct. Identifying the utmost importance of connectivity in spurring Bhutan’s socio-economic development and growth, DANTAK was tasked to construct the pioneering motorable roads in the Kingdom. Over the years, DANTAK has met the myriad infrastructure requirements in Bhutan in accordance with the vision of Them Kings and the aspirations of the people in a symbiotic manner. Some other notable projects executed by the project include Paro Airport, Yonphula Airfield, Thimphu ~Trashigang Highway, Telecommunication & Hydro Power Infrastructure, Sherubtse College, Kanglung and India House Estate.
• The medical and education facilities established by DANTAK in far-flung areas were often the first in those locations. The food outlets along the road introduced the Bhutanese to Indian delicacies and developed a sweet tooth in them. The famous Takthi Canteen midway between Phuentsholing and Thimphu has been a compulsory stop for travellers.
• As DANTAK celebrates six decades in Bhutan, the project reaffirms its commitment to support the march of Bhutan towards realizing the dreams of His Majesty Druk Gyalpo, the plans of the Royal Government of Bhutan and the aspirations of the people of the kingdom.
  Therefore, the correct answer is c.

Mucormycosis (previously called zygomycosis) is a serious but rare fungal infection caused by a group of molds called mucormycetes. These molds live throughout the environment. So, statement 1 is not correct. Mucormycosis mainly affects people who have health problems or take medicines that lower the body's ability to fight germs and sickness. It most commonly affects the sinuses or the lungs after inhaling fungal spores from the air. It can also occur on the skin after a cut, burn, or other type of skin injury. So, statements 2 and 3 are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is b.

National strategic plan and mission Sampark was launched on World AIDS Day, 2017. The National Strategic Plan on AIDS/HIV and Sexually Transmitted Infections (SIT), 2017-24 was released. The plan will pave a roadmap for achieving the target of 90:90:90 but also strive along with partners towards fast track strategy of ending the AIDS epidemic by 2030. The mission Sam park was to bring people living with HIV who have left treatment back to the Anti-Retro Viral Treatment (ART). 
Therefore, the correct answer is a. 

Quantum Technology is based on the principles of quantum theory, which explains the nature of energy and matter on the atomic and subatomic levels. It concerns the control and manipulation of quantum systems to achieve information processing beyond the limits of the classical world. Its principles will be used to solve extremely complex problems in computing, communications, sensing, chemistry, cryptography, imaging and mechanics. This key ability makes quantum computers extremely powerful compared to conventional computers when solving certain problems like finding prime factors of large numbers and searching large databases. The mission wi!I function under the Department of Science & Technology (DST). It will address the ever increasing technological requirements of society and take into account the international technology trends. Therefore, the correct answer is b.

The Ministry of Science & Technology has inaugurated an Alignment and Awareness Event for the publicity of the DSIR-PRISM Scheme. So, option bis correct. PRISM stands for Promoting Innovations in Individuals, Start-ups and MSMEs. It is an initiative of the Department of Scientific and Industrial Research (DSIR). It is aimed at transforming an individual innovator into a successful technopreneur by promoting, supporting, and funding implementable and commercially viable innovations created for society. Under the initiative, an Indian innovator- student, professional and common citizen - is provided technical, strategic, and financial assistance by DSIR for idea development, prototype development and pilot scaling, and patenting. The program is implemented across various sectors from energy to healthcare to waste management and others. Therefore, the correct answer is b.

The Union Minister of Education has launched Nano Sniffer, the world's first Micro sensor-based Explosive Trace Detector (ETD). It is developed by Nano Sniff Technologies and an IIT Bombay incubated startup. So, statement (1) is correct. Nano Sniffer is a 100% Made in india product in terms of research, development & manufacturing. It can detect explosives in less than 10 seconds and it also identifies and categorises explosives into different classes. It detects all classes of military, conventional and homemade explosives. It gives visible & audible alerts with a sunlight-readable colour display. So, statement (2) is correct. Nano Sniffer provides trace detection of the nano-gram quantity of explosives & delivers results in seconds. It can accurately detect a wide range of military, commercial and homemade explosives threats. Further analysis of the algorithms also helps in the categorization of explosives into the appropriate class. Therefore, the correct answer is c.

A rare disease is a disease that affects a smaller percentage of the population compared to other diseases and its prevalence is very low. So, statement (1) is not correct. Delhi High Court directed the Centre to set up a Rare Diseases Committee, a Rare Diseases Fund, and finalize and notify the National Health Policy for Rare Diseases on or before 31st March 2021. Hence, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has approved the National Rare Disease Policy 2021. Aim of the policy: 

• To increase focus on indigenous research and local production of medicines. 
• To lower the cost of treatment of rare diseases. 
• To screen and detect rare diseases early at early stages, which will in turn help in their prevention. 

The policy has categorized rare diseases into three groups: 

• Group 1: Disorders amenable to one-time curative treatment. 
• Group 2: Those requiring long-term or lifelong treatment. 
• Group 3: Diseases for which definitive treatment is available, but challenges are to make an optimal patient selection for benefit, very high cost and lifelong therapy. So, statement (2) is not correct Centers of Excellence: 
• The policy aims to strengthen tertiary health care facilities to prevent and treat rare diseases by designating eight health facilities as 'Centers of Excellence.' These will also be provided one-time financial support of up to Rs. 5 crores for up-gradation of diagnostics facilities. So, statement (3) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is c.

Electrical and electronic waste (e-waste) contains multiple toxic metals. However, there is currently a lack of exposure data for metals on workers in formal recycling plants. A recent study by CSE evaluates workers' exposure to metals, using biomarkers of exposure in combination with monitoring of personal air exposure. 
Following is the list of toxic metal exposure found: 

1. Beryllium 
2. Cadmium 
3. Chromium 
4. Cobalt, 
5. Indium, 
6. Lead, 
7. Mercury 
8. Vanadium
   Therefore, the correct answer is b.