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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - UPSC MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 1

Consider the following statements about African Union (AU):

1. It is a continental union consisting of more than 71 countries of the continent of Africa.

2. Its secretariat is located in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 1

• The African Union (AU) is a continental union consisting of 55 countries of the continent of Africa, with exception of various territories of European possessions located in Africa.

• The bloc was founded on 26 May 2001 in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia and launched on 9 July 2002 in South Africa.

• The intention of the AU is to replace the Organisation of African Unity (OAU), established on 25 May 1963 in Addis Ababa by 32 signatory governments.

• The AU’s secretariat, the African Union Commission, is based in Addis Ababa.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 2

Consider the following pairs:

Regions sometimes mentioned in news: Country

1. Addis Ababa : Mauritius

2. Bamako : Mali

3. Rabat : Burkina Faso

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 2

• Addis Ababa: Ethiopia

• Bamako: Mali

• Rabat: Morocco

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 3

Consider the following statements about UNCITRAL:

1. It is a subsidiary body of the U.N. General Assembly (UNGA)

2. It has been adopted by 49 countries, including Singapore.

3. It is responsible for helping to facilitate international trade and investment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 3

• United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL) is a subsidiary body of the U.N. General Assembly (UNGA) responsible for helping to facilitate international trade and investment.

• It has been adopted by 49 countries, including Singapore, UK, US and South Africa.

• UNCITRAL allows foreign professionals and creditors direct access to domestic courts and enables them to participate in and commence domestic insolvency proceedings.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 4

Consider the following statements about MGNREGA:

1. It was introduced in 2005 as a social measure that guarantees “the right to work”.

2. A minimum of 110 job seekers shall apply to sanction a new work under MGNREGA.

3. It mandates Gram Sabhas to recommend the works that are to be undertaken.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 4
  • The scheme was introduced in 2005 as a social measure that guarantees “the right to work”.
  • The key tenet of this social measure and labour law is that the local government will have to legally provide at least 100 days of wage employment in rural India to enhance their quality of life.
  • The act mandates Gram sabhas to recommend the works that are to be undertaken and at least 50% of the works must be executed by them.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 5

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the benefits of Food Fortification?

1. It is a safe method of improving nutrition among people.

2. It does not require any changes in food habits and patterns of people.

3. It does not alter the characteristics of the food.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 5
  • Since the nutrients are added to staple foods that are widely consumed, this is an excellent method to improve the health of a large section of the population, all at once.
  • Fortification is a safe method of improving nutrition among people. The addition of micronutrients to food does not pose a health risk to people.
  • It does not require any changes in food habits and patterns of people. It is a socio-culturally acceptable way to deliver nutrients to people.
  • It does not alter the characteristics of the food—the taste, the feel, the look.
  • It can be implemented quickly as well as show results in improvement of health in a relatively short period of time.
  • This method is cost-effective especially if advantage is taken of the existing technology and delivery platforms.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 6

With reference to National Policy on Biofuels (NBP) -2018, consider the following statements:

1. The Policy envisages an indicative target of blending 20% ethanol in diesel by 2030.

2. The Policy categorises biofuels as “Basic Biofuels” and “Advanced Biofuels”.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 6

• S1: The National Policy on Biofuels-2018 approved by the Government envisages an indicative target of 20% blending of ethanol in petrol and 5% blending of bio-diesel in diesel by 2030.

• S2: The Policy categorises biofuels as “Basic Biofuels” viz. First Generation (1G) bioethanol & biodiesel and “Advanced Biofuels” – Second Generation (2G) ethanol, Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) to drop-in fuels, Third Generation (3G) biofuels, bio-CNG etc. to enable extension of appropriate financial and fiscal incentives under each category.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 7

Among Indian States, which one of following has largest area under forests in 2021?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 7

Among Indian States, Madhya Pradesh with 11% of India’s total forest cover, had the largest area under forests in 2021, followed by Arunachal Pradesh (9%), Chhattisgarh (8%), Odisha (7%) and Maharashtra (7%).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 8

Consider the following statements about Bharat Net:

1. It was originally launched in 2005 as the National Optical Fibre Network (NOFN) andrenamed as Bharat-Net in 2012.

2. It seeks to provide connectivity to 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats (GPs) through opticalfibre.

3. It is a flagship mission implemented by Bharat Broadband Network Ltd. (BBNL).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 8
  • Bharat Net Project was originally launched in 2011 as the National Optical Fibre Network (NOFN) and renamed as Bharat-Net in 2015.
  • It seeks to provide connectivity to 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats (GPs) through optical fibre.
  • It is a flagship mission implemented by Bharat Broadband Network Ltd. (BBNL).
  • The objective is to facilitate the delivery of e-governance, e-health, eeducation, e-banking, Internet and other services to rural India.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 9

“Production Gap Report” is released by which of the following?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 9
  • The United Nations Environment Programme’s (UNEP) latest Production Gap Report has revealed that 15 of the top fossil fuel producing countries, including India, are not prepared to meet the requirements of the 2015 Paris Climate Agreement.
  • Paris Agreement seeks to keep global warming “well below 2 degrees” above preindustrial levels.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 10

Bovine Mastitis is caused by:

1. Virus

2. Fungus

3. Bacteria

Select the correct answer using the code below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 10
  • Bovine Mastitis is a common infectious disease, which affects farm productivity due to fall in milk quality, thus impacting income-generating activities.
  • It is a potentially fatal mammary gland infection, which is most common in dairy cattle worldwide.
  • Mastitis is caused by microorganisms ranging from virus, mycoplasma, fungus and bacteria. Physical injury to the mammary region, poor hygiene and/or trauma, also cause this condition.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 11

Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and High Court to punishpeople for their respective contempt.

2. The Contempt of Courts Act of 1971 defines the power of the High Court to punishcontempts of its subordinate courts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 11
  • Article 129 and 215 of the Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and High Court respectively to punish people for their respective contempt.
  • Section 10 of The Contempt of Courts Act of 1971 defines the power of the High Court to punish contempts of its subordinate courts.
  • The Constitution also includes contempt of court as a reasonable restriction to the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19, along with elements like public order and defamation.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 12

Recently, a new scheme PM-DevINE launched to fund infrastructure and social development projects in which one of the following regions of India?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 12

Prime Minister’s Development Initiative for North-East (PM-DevINE):

  • New scheme PM-DevINE launched to fund infrastructure and social development projects in the North-East.
  • An initial allocation of Rs. 1,500 crore made to enable livelihood activities for youth and women under the scheme.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 13

Consider the following statements ‘Nal Se Jal’ Yojana:

1. It aims to provide piped drinking water to every rural home by 2024.

2. It is a component of the government’s Jal Jivan Mission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 13

• Launched in 2019.

• Nodal Agency: Ministry of Jal Shakti

• Aim: To provide piped drinking water to every rural home by 2024

• It is a component of the government’s Jal Jivan Mission.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 14

Consider the following statements about Jal Jeevan Mission:

1. It is under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.

2. It was launched in 2021.

3. It envisages supply of 55 litres of water per person per day to every rural household.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 14
  • JJM envisages supply of 55 litres of water per person per day to every rural household through Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) by 2024.
  • It is under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
  • It was launched in 2019
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 15

Consider the following pairs:
River Source of river/origin

1. Godavari River Trimbak

2. Krishna River Mahabaleshwar

3. Kaveri River Bangrabalige valley

4. Penna Nandi Hills

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 15
  • Krishna, the fourth largest river in India, rises in western Maharashtra state in the Western Ghats range near the town of Mahabaleshwar and flows through Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
  • Cauvery rises at Talakaveri in the Brahmagiri range in the Western Ghats and flows through Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
  • Penna originates in Nandi Hills in the Chikballapur district and flows through Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh.
  • Godavari which is the third largest river in India originates in the Western Ghats near Thriambak Hills in the Nasik district of Maharashrta and flows through Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Orissa.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 16

Consider the following statements:

1. An IFSC caters to customers outside the jurisdiction of the domestic economy.

2. Currently, GIFT-IFSC is the maiden international financial services centre in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 16

• An IFSC caters to customers outside the jurisdiction of the domestic economy.

• Such centres deal with flows of finance, financial products and services across borders.

• Currently, GIFT-IFSC is the maiden international financial services centre in India.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 17

Consider the following statements about Singapore International Arbitration Centre(SIAC):

1. It is a not-for-profit international arbitration organization.

2. It administers arbitrations under its own rules of arbitration only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 17

It is a not-for-profit international arbitration organisation based in Singapore, which administers arbitrations under its own rules of arbitration and the United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL) Arbitration Rules.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 18

Consider the following statements about Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC):

1. It is the legal tender issued by a central bank in a digital form.

2. It is exchangeable one-to-one with the fiat currency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 18

• A Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC), or national digital currency, is simply the digital form of a country’s fiat currency. Instead of printing paper currency or minting coins, the central bank issues electronic tokens. This token value is backed by the full faith and credit of the government.

• Four major use cases of CBDC in the Indian context:

  • ‘Fit-for-purpose’ money used for social benefits and other targeted payments in a country. For such cases, the central bank can pay intended beneficiaries pre-programmed CBDC, which could be accepted only for a specific purpose.
  • CBDCs could be used for faster cross-border remittance payments. International collaboration among the major economies of the world, including India, could help create the necessary infrastructure and arrangements for CBDC transfer and conversion.
  • Payment instruments could be made available for payment transactions to be made via CBDC. Furthermore, universal access attributes of a CBDC could also include an offline payment functionality.
  • Instant lending to micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs) in India can be possible with the help of CBDC.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 19

With reference to the governance of ‘public sector banking in India, consider the following statements:

1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.

2. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 19
  • S1: Capital infusion has not been steady, therefore statement 1 is wrong.
  • One of the desired objectives of consolidation of banks is the streamlining of banking operations and reduce their NPA burden. Thus, Statement 2 is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 20

Consider the following statements:

1. The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act,2006.

2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.

3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides anddeclares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 20
  • The phrase ‘critical wildlife habitat’ is defined only in the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, and NOT in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
  • Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 21

Consider the following statements:
1. The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the August Offer 1940.
2. The representatives of each community (Muslims, Sikhs and general) were to be elected by members of that community in the provincial legislative assembly.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 21

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan Supplementary notes: Constituent Assembly  Demand for constituent assembly was finally accepted in principle by the British Government in what is known as the ‘August Offer’ of 1940. In 1942, Sir Stafford Cripps, a member of the cabinet, came to India with a draft proposal of the British Government on the framing of an independent Constitution to be adopted after World War II. The Cripps Proposals were rejected by the Muslim League which wanted India to be divided into two autonomous states with two separate Constituent Assemblies. Finally, a Cabinet Mission was sent to India. While it rejected the idea of two Constituent Assemblies, it put forth a scheme for the Constituent Assembly which more or less satis fi ed the Muslim League.  The Constituent Assembly was thus constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan  Seats allocated to each British province were to be divided among the three principal communities—Muslims, Sikhs and general (all except Muslims and Sikhs), in proportion to their population.  The representatives of each community were to be elected by members of that community in the provincial legislative assembly and voting was to be by the method of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.  The representatives of princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the princely states.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 22

Which of the following are the unitary features of the Indian Constitution?
1. Integrated judiciary
2. Appointment of governor by centre
3. Emergency Provisions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 22

Option (d) is correct 
Supplementary notes: Unitary features of Indian Constitution  Constitution of India establishes a federal system of government. It contains all the usual features of a federation, viz., two governments, division of powers, written Constitution, supremacy of Constitution, rigidity of Constitution, independent judiciary and bicameralism.  However, the Indian Constitution also contains a large number of unitary or nonfederal features, viz., a strong Centre, single Constitution, single citizenship, flexibility of Constitution, integrated judiciary, appointment of state governor by the Centre, all-India services, emergency provisions etc.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 23

Consider the following statements with respect to Government of India Act 1935:
1. It provided for the establishment of a Federal Public Service Commission.
2. It abolished the Dyarchy in the provinces and introduced Provincial autonomy in its place.
3. It extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for depressed classes, women and labour.
4. It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct election in the country.

Which of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 23

Statement 4 is incorrect: Government of India Act of 1919 introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct election in country. Supplementary notes: Government of India Act of 1935.  The Act marked a second milestone towards a completely responsible government in India. It was a lengthy and detailed document having 321 Sections and 10 Schedules. 
Features of the Act:  It provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units. The Act divided the powers between the Centre and units in terms of three lists— Federal List (for Centre, with 59 items), Provincial List (for provinces, with 54 items) and the Concurrent List (for both, with 36 items). Residuary powers were given to the Viceroy. However, the federation never came into being as the princely states did not join it.  It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ in its place. The provinces were allowed to act as autonomous units of administration in their defined spheres. Moreover, the Act introduced responsible Governments in provinces, that is, the governor was required to act with the advice of ministers responsible to the provincial legislature. This came into effect in 1937 and was discontinued in 1939.  It provided for the adoption of dyarchy at the Centre. Consequently, the federal subjects were divided into reserved subjects and transferred subjects. However, this provision of the Act did not come into operation at all.  It introduced bicameralism in six out of eleven provinces. Thus, the legislatures of Bengal, Bombay, Madras, Bihar, Assam and the United Provinces were made bicameral consisting of a legislative council (upper house) and a legislative assembly (lower house). However, many restrictions were placed on them.  It further extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for depressed classes (scheduled castes), women and labour (workers).  It abolished the Council of India, established by the Government of India Act of 1858. The secretary of state for India was provided with a team of advisors. It extended the franchise. 10 percent of the total population got the voting right. It provided for the establishment of a Reserve Bank of India to control the currency and credit of the country. It provided for the establishment of not only a Federal Public Service Commission but also a Provincial Public Service Commission and Joint Public Service Commission for two or more provinces. It provided for the establishment of a Federal Court, which was set up in 1937.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 24

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Constitution of India?
1. It specifies how the government will be constituted.
2. It does not lay down limits on the powers of the government.
3. It provides a standard to examine and evaluate any law and action.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 24

Statement 2 is incorrect: It lays down limits on the powers of the government and tells us what the rights of the citizens are. Supplementary notes: The Constitution of India  The Constitution of a country is a set of written rules that are accepted by all people living together in a country. The Constitution is the supreme law that determines the relationship among people living in a territory (called citizens) and also the relationship between the people and government.  It draws a structure that defines fundamental political principles, forms the framework, procedures, powers, and duties of government institutions and lays out Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Duties of citizens  It generates a degree of trust and coordination that is necessary for different kinds of people to live together.  It specifies how the government will be constituted, who will have power to take which decisions.  It lays down limits on the powers of the government and tells us what the rights of the citizens are.  It expresses the aspirations of the people creating a good society.  It provides a standard to examine and evaluate any law and action of government, to find out whether it is good or bad.  The Constitution of India is the longest written constitution of any sovereign country in the world. Dr. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar is the chief architect of the Indian Constitution.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 25

Consider the following statements:
1. The demand for a constituent assembly was accepted in principle by British government in August Offer of 1940 2. The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 25

Both statements are correct Supplementary notes: Making of Constitution  In 1934 the idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was put forward for the first time by M. N. Roy, a pioneer of communist movement in India. In 1935, the Indian National Congress (INC), for the first time, officially demanded a Constituent Assembly to frame the Constitution of India.  In 1938, Jawaharlal Nehru, on behalf the INC declared that ‘the Constitution of free India must be framed, without outside interference, by a Constituent Assembly elected on the basis of adult franchise.  The demand was finally accepted in principle by the British Government in what is known as the ‘August Offer’ of 1940. In 1942, Sir Stafford Cripps, a member of the cabinet, came to India with a draft proposal of the British Government on the framing of an independent Constitution to be adopted after World War II.  The Cripps Proposals were rejected by the Muslim League which wanted India to be divided into two autonomous states with two separate Constituent Assemblies.  Finally, a Cabinet Mission was sent to India in 1946. While it rejected the idea of two Constituent Assemblies, it put forth a scheme for the Constituent Assembly which more or less satisfied the Muslim League. The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 26

Consider the following statements about sources of Indian Constitution:
1. Fundamental rights and suspension of fundamental rights during emergency has been borrowed from the US Constitution.
2. The South African Constitution is the source of the procedure of amendment of the Indian constitution.
3. The Australian Constitution is the source of the First Past the Post system of election.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 26

Statement 1 is incorrect: Suspension of fundamental rights during emergency has been taken from Weimar Constitution of Germany. Statement 3 is incorrect: First Past the Post system of election is borrowed from the UK Constitution. Supplementary notes: Sources of Indian constitution  US Constitution Fundamental rights, independence of judiciary, judicial review, impeachment of the president, removal of Supreme Court and high court judges and post of vice president.  Weimar constitution  Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency South African Constitution  Procedure for amendment of the Constitution and  Election of members of Rajya Sabha.  Australian Constitution Concurrent List, freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse, and joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 27

Consider the following statements:
1. Objective resolution was unanimously adopted by the constituent assembly on January 22, 1947
2. Constituent Assembly rati fi ed the India’s membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949. ​
3. National flag was adopted by constituent assembly on July 22, 1947.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 27

All statements are correct Supplementary notes: Key dates related to Constituent Assembly  On December 13, 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic ‘Objectives Resolution’ in the Assembly. It laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure.  This Resolution was unanimously adopted by the Assembly on January 22, 1947. It influenced the eventual shaping of the constitution through all its subsequent stages. Its modi fi ed version forms the Preamble of the present Constitution.  In addition to the making of the Constitution and enacting of ordinary laws, the Constituent Assembly also performed the following functions:  It ratified India's membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949.  It adopted the national flag on July 22, 1947. It adopted the national anthem on January 24, 1950. It adopted the national song on January 24, 1950. It elected Dr Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India on January 24, 1950.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 28

Which of the following statements about Committees of the Constituent Assembly is/ are correct?
1. The Provincial Constitution Committee was chaired by Sardar Patel.
2. The Committee for Negotiating with States was chaired by Jawaharlal Nehru.
3. Rules of Procedure Committee was chaired by J B Kripalani.

Select the correct answer using codes below

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 28

Statement 3 is incorrect: Rules of Procedure Committee was chaired by Dr Rajendra Prasad. Supplementary notes: Major Committees of Constituent AssemblyUnion Powers Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru  Union Constitution Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru  Provincial Constitution Committee – Sardar Patel  Drafting Committee – Dr. B.R. Ambedkar  Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas – Sardar Patel. This committee had the following fi ve sub-committees:  Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee – J.B. Kripalani  Minorities Sub-Committee – H.C. Mukherjee  North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam Excluded & Partially Excluded Areas Sub-Committee – Gopinath Bardoloi  Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (Other than those in Assam) SubCommittee – A.V. Thakkar  Rules of Procedure Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad  States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States) – Jawaharlal Nehru  Steering Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 29

Consider the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly:
1. It has been criticised that the Constituent Assembly was a one-party body in an essentially one-party country.
2. Critics have said that the Constituent Assembly was not a sovereign body.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 29

Both statements are correct Supplementary notes: Criticism of Constituent Assembly The critics have criticized the Constituent Assembly on various grounds:  Not a Representative Body: The critics have argued that the Constituent Assembly was not a representative body as its members were not directly elected by the people of India on the basis of universal adult franchise.  Not a Sovereign Body: The critics maintained that the Constituent Assembly was not a sovereign body as it was created by the proposals of the British Government. Further, they said that the Assembly held its sessions with the permission of the British Government.  Time Consuming: According to the critics, the Constituent Assembly took an unduly long time to make the Constitution. They stated that the framers of the American Constitution took only four months to complete their work. In this context, Naziruddin Ahmed, a member of the Constituent Assembly, coined a new name for the Drafting Committee to show his contempt for it. He called it a “Drifting Committee”.  Dominated by Congress: The critics charged that the Constituent Assembly was dominated by the Congress party. Granville Austin, a British Constitutional expert, remarked: ‘The Constituent Assembly was a one-party body in an essentially one-party country. The Assembly was the Congress and the Congress was India’  Lawyer–Politician Domination: It is also maintained by the critics that the Constituent Assembly was dominated by lawyers and politicians. They pointed out that other sections of the society were not sufficiently represented. This, to them, is the main reason for the bulkiness and complicated language of the Constitution.  Dominated by Hindus: According to some critics, the Constituent Assembly was a Hindu dominated body. Lord Viscount Simon called it ‘a body of Hindus’. Similarly, Winston Churchill commented that the Constituent Assembly represented ‘only one major community in India

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 30

Consider the following statements:
1. H.V.R. Iyengar served as the Secretary to the Constituent Assembly
2. MN Roy was appointed as the constitutional advisor to the Constituent Assembly
3. S.N. Mukerjee was the chief draftsman of the constitution in the Constituent Assembly.

Which of the above statements is /are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 27 - Question 30

Statement 2 is incorrect: Sir B.N. Rau was appointed as the constitutional advisor (Legal advisor) to the Constituent Assembly. Supplementary notes: Personalities related to Constituent Assembly  Sir B.N. Rau was appointed as the constitutional advisor (Legal advisor) to the Constituent Assembly.  H.V.R. Iyengar was the Secretary to the Constituent Assembly.  S.N. Mukerjee was the chief draftsman of the constitution in the Constituent Assembly.  Prem Behari Narain Raizada was the calligrapher of the Indian Constitution. The original constitution was handwritten by him in a flowing italic style.  The original version was beautified and decorated by artists from Shantiniketan including Nand Lal Bose and Beohar Rammanohar Sinha. Beohar Rammanohar Sinha illuminated, beautified and ornamented the original Preamble calligraphed by Prem Behari Narain Raizada.  The calligraphy of the Hindi version of the original constitution was done by Vasant Krishan Vaidya and elegantly decorated and illuminated by Nand Lal Bose.

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