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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - UPSC MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 1

Consider the following statements about Vinayak Damodar Savarkar:

1. In Pune, Savarkar founded the “Abhinav Bharat Society”.

2. He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shri Krishna.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 1
  • S1: In Pune, Savarkar founded the “Abhinav Bharat Society”.
  • S2: Lala Lajpat Rai wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shri Krishna.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 2

Consider the following statements about Bomb Cyclone:

1. It is a mid-latitude cyclone that intensifies rapidly.

2. It has high pressure at its center.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 2
  • S1: It is a mid-latitude cyclone that intensifies rapidly.
  • S2: It has low pressure at its center, weather fronts and an array of associated weather, from blizzards to severe thunderstorms to heavy precipitation.
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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 3

Consider the following statements regarding Polar vortex.

1. The polar vortex is a large area of high pressure and cold air surrounding the Earth’s North and South poles.

2. The polar vortex spins in the stratosphere.

3. During winter in the Northern Hemisphere, the polar vortex will become less stable, sending cold Arctic air southward over the United States.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 3
  • The polar vortex is a large area of low pressure and cold air surrounding the Earth’s North and South poles. The term vortex refers to the counter-clockwise flow of air that helps keep the colder air close to the poles.
  • The polar vortex spins in the stratosphere, a layer of the atmosphere 10-48 km above the ground and above the troposphere, where most familiar weather patterns develop.
  • Often during winter in the Northern Hemisphere, the polar vortex will become less stable and expand, sending cold Arctic air southward over the United States.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 4

The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution was added to the Constitution by

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 4
  • Popularly known as the anti-defection law.
  • It specifies the circumstances under which changing of political parties by legislators invites action under the law.
  • It was added to the Constitution by the 52nd Amendment Act.
  • It includes situations in which an independent MLA, too, joins a party after the election
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 5

With reference to Sea of Marmara, consider the following statement:

1. It is an inland sea located entirely within the borders of Turkey.

2. It connects the Black Sea to the Sea of Azov.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 5

• Sea of Marmara is an inland sea located entirely within the borders of Turkey.

• The Bosporus and Dardanelles straits, also known as the Turkish Straits or the Black Sea Straits, connect the Aegean Sea and the Black Sea via the Sea of Marmara

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 6

Consider the following statements about International Court of Justice (ICJ):

1. It was established in 1945 by the United Nations charter.

2. It consists of a panel of 15 judges elected by the UN General Assembly and Security Council for five-year terms.

3. It is the only principal UN organ not located in New York City.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 6
  • S1: ICJ was established in 1945 by the United Nations charter and started working in April 1946.
  • S2: The ICJ consists of a panel of 15 judges elected by the UN General Assembly and Security Council for nine-year terms. No more than one judge of each nationality may be represented on court at the same time, and judges collectively must reflect the principal civilizations and legal systems of the world.
  • S3: Seated in the Peace Palace in The Hague, Netherlands, the ICJ is the only principal UN organ not located in New York City.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 7

Consider the following statements:

1. 28th February is celebrated as National Science Day (NSD) in India.

2. NSD is celebrated to commemorate discovery of the ‘Raman Effect’.

3. The first National Science Day was celebrated on February 28, 1935.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 7
  • 28th February is celebrated as National Science Day (NSD) in India.
  • NSD is celebrated to commemorate discovery of the ‘Raman Effect’, which led to Sir C.V. Raman winning the Nobel Prize.
  • The first National Science Day was celebrated on February 28, 1987.
  • Theme: ‘Integrated Approach in Science and Technology for a Sustainable Future’.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 8

'Operation Ganga' is an initiative launched by the government of India to bring backIndians stranded in

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 8

• The Government of India has launched a ‘multi-pronged’ initiative named ‘Operation Ganga’.

• It is an evacuation mission to bring back all the Indian nationals who are currently stranded in Ukraine.

• There were around 20,000 Indians including students stuck in Ukraine

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 9

In Buddhism, Avalokiteśvara is

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 9

• In Buddhism, Avalokiteśvara is a bodhisattva who embodies the compassion of all Buddhas.

• Avalokiteshwara means one who can see all. He represents infinite compassion and mercy. He is the most popular Bodhisattva of all. He represents the ideal of welfare in which he postpones his own transformation into Buddha to help others.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 10

Which of these water bodies witnesses sun rise at the earliest?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 10

Caspian sea lies the easternmost among all of the options. Black Sea lies to the

west of Caspian Sea

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 11

With reference to International Criminal Court (ICC), consider the following statements:

1. It is the first and only permanent international court with jurisdiction to prosecute individuals for the international crimes of genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes and the crime of aggression.

2. India is not a party to Rome Statute along with US and China.

3. It headquarters at The Hague, the Netherlands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 11
  • The International Criminal Court (ICC), located in The Hague, is the court of last resort for prosecution of genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity.
  • It is the first permanent, treaty based, international criminal court established to help end impunity for the perpetrators of the most serious crimes of concern to the international community.
  • Its founding treaty, the Rome Statute, entered into force on July 1, 2002.
  • India is not a party to Rome Statute along with US and China.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 12

Consider the following statements about S-400 missile system:

1. It is designed by Russia.

2. It can engage all types of aerial targets.

3. It can target ballistic missiles from 4000 km away.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 12

• S1: The S-400 Triumf is a mobile, surface-to-air missile system (SAM) designed by Russia.

• S2: The S-400 is capable of taking down multiple aerial targets including stealth fighter jets, bombers, cruise and ballistic missiles, and even unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs)

• S3: S-400 has an operational range of 400 km, while the S-500 can target

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 13

Consider the following statements about Artemis Program:

1. It is a United States-led international human spaceflight program.

2. Its primary goal is to return humans to the Mars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 13
  • Artemis stands for Acceleration, Reconnection, Turbulence and Electrodynamics of Moon’s Interaction with the Sun.
  • It is NASA’s next mission to the Moon.

Objective:

  • To measure what happens when the Sun’s radiation hits our rocky moon, where there is no magnetic field to protect it.
  • Artemis was the twin sister of Apollo and goddess of the Moon in Greek mythology.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 14

Consider the following statements about Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC):

1. It is an intergovernmental body of the United Nations responsible for advancing knowledge on human-induced climate change.

2. It was established in 1988 by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 14
  • It is an intergovernmental body of the United Nations responsible for advancing knowledge on human-induced climate change.
  • It was established in 1988 by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
  • Headquarter: Geneva, Switzerland.
  • Function: To provide policymakers with regular assessments of the scientific basis of climate change, its impacts and future risks, and options for adaptation and mitigation.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 15

Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseasinvestors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselvesdirectly?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 15

Participatory Notes are Overseas Derivative Instruments that have Indian stocks as their underlying assets. They allow foreign investors to buy stocks listed on Indian exchanges without being registered. The instrument gained popularity as FIIs, to avoid the formalities of registering and to remain anonymous, started betting on stocks through this route.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 16

Consider the following statements:

1. The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway in Egypt.

2. It connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea through the Isthmus of Corinth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 16

The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway in Egypt, connecting the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea through the Isthmus of Suez and dividing Africa and Asia. The canal is part of the Silk Road that connects Europe with Asia.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 17

Which of the following best describes/ describe the aim of ‘National Mission on use of Biomass in coal based thermal power plants’ of the Government of India?

1. To reduce the level of co-firing from present 5% to lower levels

2. To facilitate overcoming the constraints in supply chain of bio mass pellets andagro- residue

3. Incorporating environmental benefits and costs into the Union and State Budgetsthereby implementing the ‘green accounting’

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 17

• Objectives of the mission:

  • o level of co-firing from present 5% to higher levels to have a larger share of carbon neutral power generation from the thermal power plants.
  • To take up R&D activity in boiler design to handle the higher amount of silica, alkalis in the biomass pellets.
  • S2: To facilitate overcoming the constraints in supply chain of bio mass pellets and agro- residue and its transport upto to the power plants.
  • To consider regulatory issues in biomass co-firing.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 18

Consider the following statements:

  1. Resignation or death of incumbent Prime Minister automatically dissolves the Council of Ministers.
  2. According to the Constitution, the Council of Ministers is responsible to the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 18

The Prime Minister enjoys the following powers as head of the Union Council of Ministers: 

  • He recommends persons who can be appointed as Ministers by the President. 
  • He allocates and reshuffles various portfolios among the Ministers. 
  • He can ask a Minister to resign or advice the President to dismiss him in case of a difference of opinion, but according to Article 75, they are individually responsible to the President. So, statement (2) is not correct. 
  • He can bring about the collapse of the Council of Ministry by resigning or death in the office. So, statement (1) is correct. Therefore, the answer is b.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 19

The authorisation for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India is approved by the

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 19

The Consolidated Fund of India (Article 266) is a Fund to which all receipts are credited and all payments are debited. In other words, (a) all revenues received by the Government of India;(b) all loans raised by the government by the issue of treasury bills, loans or ways and means of advances; (c) all money received by the government in repayment of loans forms the Consolidated Fund of India. All the legally authorised payments on behalf of the Government of India are made out of this Fund. No money out of this Fund can be appropriated (issued or drawn) except in accordance with a Parliamentary law. Therefore, the correct answer is b.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 20

Which of the following statements regarding the Speaker of Lok Sabha is not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 20

The Speaker is the guardian of powers and privileges of the members, the House as a whole and its Committees. She is vested with vast, varied and vital responsibilities and enjoys great honour, high dignity and supreme authority within the House. Therefore to ensure her independence and impartiality, she is provided with the following: 

  1. According to Article 93, the Speaker is provided with security of tenure. She can be removed only by a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha by an absolute majority (i.e., a majority of the total members of the House). So, option a is correct. 
  2. According to Article (97), Her salaries and allowances are fixed by Parliament. They are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and thus are not subject to the Annual vote of Parliament. So, option d is correct. 
  3. Her work and conduct cannot be discussed and criticised in the Lok Sabha except on a substantive motion. So, option b is not correct. 
  4. She cannot vote in the first instance. She can only exercise a casting vote in the event of a tie. This makes the position of the Speaker impartial. So, option c is correct. Therefore, the answer is b.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 21

Consider the following statements:

  1. The President can appoint a Judge of the Supreme Court as the acting Chief Justice of India.
  2. The Supreme Court's seat can be placed in another place/places as the President of India may decide.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 21

The President can appoint a Judge of the Supreme Court as an acting Chief Justice of India when:

  • The office of Chief Justice of India is vacant; or 
  • The Chief Justice of India is temporarily absent; or 
  • The Chief Justice of India is unable to perform the duties of his office. So, statement (1) is correct. 

The Constitution, under Article 130, declares Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court. But, it also authorises the Chief Justice of India to appoint other place or places as the seat of the Supreme Court. He can decide in this regard only with the approval of the President. So, statement (2) is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is a.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 22

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Council of States, unlike the House of People, is not subjected to dissolution.
  2. The Constitution prescribes a 6-year term for the members of the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 22

According to Article 83, dealing with duration of Rajya Sabha: The Rajya Sabha (first constituted in 1952) is a continuing chamber, that is, it is a permanent body and not subject to dissolution. However, one-third of its members retire every second year. Their seats are filled up by fresh elections and presidential nominations at the beginning of every third year.
So, statement (1) is correct. The Constitution has not fixed the term of office of members of the Rajya Sabha and left it to the Parliament. Accordingly, the Parliament in the Representation of the People Act (1951) provided that the term of office of a member of the Rajya Sabha shall be six years. So, statement (2) is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is a

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 23

Which of the following provisions have been made by the Constitution to safeguard and ensure the independent and impartial functioning of the Supreme Court?

  1. Mode of appointment of the Judges
  2. Security of tenure of the Judges
  3. Expenses made from the Consolidated Fund of India
  4. Staff is appointed after consultation with Chief Justice of India
  5. Jurisdiction cannot be changed by the Parliament

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 23

The Constitution has made the following provisions to safeguard and ensure the independent and impartial functioning of the Supreme Court:

  • Mode of Appointment: The President appoints the Supreme Court judges in consultation with the members of the Judiciary itself. So, option (1) is correct. 
  • Security of Tenure: They can be removed from office by the President only in the manner and on the grounds mentioned in the Constitution. So, option (2) is correct. 
  • Expenses Charged on Consolidated Fund: The salaries, allowances and pensions of the Judges and the staff, and all the administrative expenses of the Supreme Court are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. So, option (3) is correct. 
  • Freedom to appoint its Staff: The Chief Justice of India can appoint officers and servants of the Supreme Court without any Executive interference. So, option (4) is correct. 
  • Its Jurisdiction cannot be curtailed: The Parliament is not authorised to curtail the jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court. However, Parliament can extend the same. So, option (5) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is d.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 24

The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 24

Article 249: Power of Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List in the national interest (1) Notwithstanding anything in the foregoing provisions of this Chapter, if the Council of States has declared by resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest that Parliament should make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the State List specified in the resolution, it shall be lawful for Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India with respect to that matter while the resolution remains in force (2) A resolution passed under clause (1) shall remain in force for such period not exceeding one year. (3) A law made by Parliament under clause (1) will cease to have an effect on the expiration of a period of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force. Therefore, the correct answer is d.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 25

Consider the following statements:

  1. The President can summon a session of Parliament at such a place as he thinks fit.
  2. There is no minimum number of days between two sessions prescribed in the Constitution.
  3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 25

Article 85(1) of the Constitution empowers the President to summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit. So, statement (1) is correct. But, the maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament cannot be more than six months. So, statement (2) is not correct, and statement (3) is correct. In other words, the Parliament should meet at least twice a year. There are usually three sessions in a year, viz, 

  1. The Budget Session (February to May); 
  2. The Monsoon Session (July to September); and 
  3. The Winter Session (November to December). 

A 'session' of Parliament is the period spanning between the first sitting of a House and its prorogation (or dissolution in the case of the Lok Sabha). During a session, the House meets every day to transact business. The period spanning between the prorogation of a House and its reassembly in a new session is called 'recesses. Therefore, the correct answer is b.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 26

Consider the following statements regarding tribunals in India:

  1. The Constitution originally provides for the setting up of tribunals for grievance redressal.
  2. The 44th Constitutional Amendment provided for the setting up of tribunals for matters other than administrative matters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 26

The original Constitution did not contain provisions with respect to tribunals. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added a new Part XIVA to the Constitution. This part is entitled as 'Tribunals' and consists of only two Articles – Article 323 A dealing with administrative tribunals and Article 323 B dealing with tribunals for other matters. So, both statements (1) and (2) are not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is d.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 27

Consider the following statements with reference to Adjournment of Parliament:

  1. It terminates both the sittings as well as the sessions of a House.
  2. The power to adjourn solely lies with the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 27

A sitting of Parliament can be terminated by adjournment or adjournment sine die or prorogation or dissolution (in the case of the Lok Sabha). 

  1. An adjournment suspends the work in a sitting for a specified time, which may be hours, days or weeks. So, statement (1) is not correct. 
  2. Adjournment sine die means terminating a sitting of Parliament for an indefinite period. 

In other words, when the House is adjourned without naming a day for reassembly, it is called adjournment sine die. The power of adjournment as well as adjournment sine die lies with the Presiding Officer of the House. So, statement (2) is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is d.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 28

With reference to the Supreme Court of India, consider the following statements:

  1. Its jurisdiction is smaller than that of the Federal Court of Appeal established under the Government of India Act, 1935.
  2. Its present sanctioned strength is 34, including the Chief Justice of India.
  3. A Judge of the Supreme Court has to make and subscribe an oath or affirmation before the Chief Justice of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 28

The Supreme Court of India was inaugurated on January 28, 1950. It succeeded the Federal Court of India, established under the Government of India Act of 1935. However, the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is greater than that of its predecessor. So, statement (1) is not correct. At present, the Supreme Court consists of thirty-four Judges (one Chief Justice and thirty three other Judges).
In 2019, the Union notified an increase in the number of Supreme Court Judges from thirty-one to thirty-four, including the Chief Justice of India after the Parliament passed a law to this effect. So, statement (2) is correct. A person appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court has to make and subscribe an oath or affirmation before the President, or some person appointed by him for this purpose. So, statement (3) is not correct. Therefore, the answer is c.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 29

Consider the following statements:

  1. A Minister from Lok Sabha can participate in the proceedings of Rajya Sabha.
  2. A Minister who is not a member of either House can participate in a joint session only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 29

In addition to the members of a House, every Minister and the Attorney General of India have the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House, any joint sitting of both the Houses and any Committee of Parliament of which he is a member, without being entitled to vote. There are two reasons underlying this constitutional provision:

  1. A Minister can participate in the proceedings of a House, of which he is not a member. In other words, a Minister belonging to the Lok Sabha can participate in the proceedings of the Rajya Sabha and vice-versa. So, statement (1) is correct.
  2. A Minister, who is not a member of either House, can participate in the proceedings of both the Houses. It should be noted here that a person can remain a Minister for six months, without being a member of either Houses of Parliament. So, statement (2) is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is a.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 30

Consider the following statements in the context of the Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts:

  1. t consists of not more than 15 members of the Lok Sabha.
  2. It scrutinises appropriation and finance accounts of the government.
  3. It examines the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 26 - Question 30

Financial Committee is a type of Standing Committee, consisting of Public Accounts Committee, Estimate Committee and Committee on Public Undertakings. Public Account Committee: This Committee was set up first in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1919. At present, it consists of 22 members (15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha). So, statement (1) is correct. The members are elected by the Parliament every year according to the principle of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. Thus, all parties get due representation in it. The term of office of the members is one year. A Minister cannot be elected as a member of the Committee. The Chairman of the Committee is appointed from amongst its members by the Speaker. Since 1967, a convention has developed whereby the Chairman of the Committee is selected invariably from the Opposition. The function of the Committee: 

  1. To examine the Annual Audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG), those are laid before the Parliament by the President. The CAG submits three audit reports to the President, namely, audit report on appropriation accounts, audit report on finance accounts and audit report on public undertakings. So, statement (3) is correct. 
  2. To examine the appropriation accounts and the finance accounts of the Union government and any other accounts laid before the Lok Sabha. The appropriation accounts compare the actual expenditure with the expenditure sanctioned by the Parliament through the Appropriation Act, while the finance accounts show the annual receipts and disbursements of the Union Government. So, Statement (2) is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is d.
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