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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - UPSC MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 1

Consider the following statements regarding Generalized System of Preferences (GSP)

1. The Generalized System of Preferences (GSP) is a preferential tariff system which provides tariffreduction on various products.

2. GSP cannot be imposed on developing country.

3. GSP comes under the purview of WTO.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 1

The Generalized System of Preferences, or GSP, is a preferential tariff system which provides tariff reduction on various products. The concept of GSP is very different from the concept of "most favored nation" (MFN). MFN status provides equal treatment in the case of tariff being imposed by a nation but in case of GSP differential tariff could be imposed by a nation on various countries depending upon factors such as whether it is a developed country or a developing country. Both the rules comes under the purview of WTO. GSP provides tariff reduction for least developed countries but MFN is only for not discriminating among WTO members.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 2

Consider the following statements regarding Advisory Board for Banking and Financial Frauds (ABBFF).

1. It has been constituted by RBI.

2. It conducts first level examination of all bank frauds.

3. It periodically carry out frauds analysis in the financial system and give inputs for any policy formulationrelated to the frauds to the RBI.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 2

The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) has expanded the ambit of an advisory board that conducts first level examination of large bank frauds to now cover all fraud cases involving amount of Rs 3 crore and above. Earlier Advisory Board for Banking and Financial Frauds (ABBFF) conducted initial examination in all large fraud cases (of above Rs 50 crore) before recommendations or references are made to investigative agencies such as Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) by the respective public sector banks (PSBs) and financial institutions. Officials of the level of general managers and above, whole-time directors, including former officials or former whole-time directors are under the ambit of the board. The board may also periodically carry out frauds analysis in the financial system and give inputs for any policy formulation related to the frauds to the RBI and to the CVC.

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 3

In an economy, the term for establishments having formal existence but with close to no operations or assetsis called as

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 3

A shell corporation/ Ghost company is a corporation without active business operations or significant assets. These types of corporations are sometimes used illegitimately, such as to disguise business ownership from law enforcement or the public. Shell corporations act as tax avoidance vehicles for legitimate businesses.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 4

Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Tax credit’?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 4

Tax credit is an amount that offsets the overall tax liability of a person. It is basically the sum that can be subtracted from the total payable tax by an individual. Tax credits are different from deductions as deductions are applicable indirectly, i.e. they help in reducing the base taxable amount of an individual, whereas tax credits directly reduce the amount of liability irrespective of the base tax liability of the tax player.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding Base Year.

1. The base year is a representative year which must not experience any abnormal incidents such asdroughts, floods, earthquakes etc.

2. It gives an idea about changes in purchasing power and allows calculation of inflation-adjusted growthestimates.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 5

The base year of the national accounts is chosen to enable inter-year comparisons. It gives an idea about changes in purchasing power and allows calculation of inflation-adjusted growth estimates. The base year prices are termed as at constant prices. This reduces all the data to a comparable benchmark, base year price. The base year is a representative year which must not experience any abnormal incidents such as droughts, floods, earthquakes etc.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 6

The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (ifany) paid to the farmers plus

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 6

The economic cost of food grains procured by the FCI is a total of MSP and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus the procurement incidentals and distribution cost. The procurement incidentals are the initial costs incurred during procurement of food grains. The distribution costs include freight, handling charges, storage costs in godowns, losses during transit etc.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 7

The most common chemicals used for cloud seeding are

1. Silver iodide

2. Potassium iodide

3. Dry ice

4. Sodium Chloride

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 7

The most common chemicals used for cloud seeding include silver iodide, potassium iodide and dry ice. After promising research, the use of hygroscopic materials, such as table salt (Sodium Chloride), is becoming more popular.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 8

Consider the following statements.

1. Irrawaddy dolphins are naturally found in coastal areas of South East Asia and West Asia.

2. Dolphin distribution in Chilika is considered to be the highest single lagoon population.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 8
  • Irrawaddy dolphins are found in coastal areas in South and Southeast Asia, and in three rivers: the Irrawaddy (Myanmar), the Mahakam (Indonesian Borneo) and the Mekong. It is an endangered species.
  • Dolphin distribution in Chilika is considered to be the highest single lagoon population.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 9

Which of the following regions of India is the natural habitat of the `Great Indian Hornbill’?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 9

The great Indian hornbill is one of the larger members of the hornbill family. It is found in the Indian subcontinent and Southeast Asia. It is naturally found in Western Ghats.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 10

Consider the following statements regarding Antarctic hairgrass and Antarctic pearlwort.

1. Antarctic hairgrass and Antarctic pearlwort are Antarctica’s native flowering plants.

2. They are spreading rapidly due to warming of summer air.

3. They are adapted to a very short growing season and are able to photosynthesise in snowy conditionswith air temperatures below 0-degree Celsius.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 10

Antarctica’s two native flowering plants are spreading rapidly as temperatures warm. The primary driver of change is warming summer air, according to the study. A secondary reason is there are fewer fur seals on the island, which trample on the plants. The spread of these species will cause changes in soil acidity, the bacteria and fungi in the soil, and in how organic matter decomposes. The plants are adapted to a very short growing season and are able to photosynthesise in snowy conditions with air temperatures below 0 C. Despite being able to reproduce quickly and in harsh climatic conditions, they are not good at competing with other non-native plants.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 11

Consider the following statements regarding Permafrost.

1. Permafrost is any ground that remains completely frozen for at least two years.

2. There is approximately twice as much carbon in permafrost than is currently in the Earth’s atmosphere.

3. They are located only in high latitudes around the Arctic and Antarctic regions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 11

Permafrost is any ground that remains completely frozen—32°F (0°C) or colder—for at least two years straight. These permanently frozen grounds are most common in regions with high mountains and in Earth’s higher latitudes—near the North and South Poles. Permafrost covers large regions of the Earth. Almost a quarter of the land area in the Northern Hemisphere has permafrost underneath. Although the ground is frozen, permafrost regions are not always covered in snow. Most permafrost is located in high latitudes (in and around the Arctic and Antarctic regions), but at lower latitudes alpine permafrost occurs at higher elevations. It can also be located in the Southern Hemisphere, just on mountain tops. Permafrost frequently occurs in ground ice, but it also can be presented in non-porous bedrock. Permafrost is formed from ice holding all different sorts of soil, sand, and rock combination together. There is approximately twice as much carbon in permafrost than is currently in the Earth’s atmosphere.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 12

Which of the following is/are e-wastes?

1. Lead

2. Cadmium

3. Beryllium

4. Mercury

5. Polyvinyl Chloride

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 12

E-waste broadly covers waste from all electronic and electrical appliances and comprises of items such as computers, mobile phones, digital music recorders/players, refrigerators, washing machines, televisions (TVs) and many other household consumer items. A computer contains highly toxic chemicals like lead, cadmium, mercury, beryllium, BFR, polyvinyl chloride and phosphor compounds.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 13

Gadgil Committee and Kasturi Rangan Committee, often seen in news, are related to:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 13

Both are related to the categorisation of the Western Ghats as Ecologically Sensitive Areas (ESA).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 14

Consider the following statements regarding Mangalajodi area.

1. Mangalajodi is recognised as globally important for the conservation of bird population, where the areais used for roosting and nesting by migratory birds.

2. It is located at the edge of the Kolleru Lake in Andhra Pradesh.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 14

The Odisha government has proposed to ban movement of mechanised fishing boats in Mangalajodi area on the banks of Chilika lake — an important bird area (IBA) — in order to provide winged guests an undisturbed ecosystem for six months ever year. Mangalajodi is recognised as globally important for the conservation of bird population. The area is used for roosting and nesting by migratory birds. However, it is not protected by any statutory rules and regulation. The area is 8.3 square km of marshy land with emergent vegetation. Source

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 15

Consider the following statements regarding tree transplantation.

1. All trees can be transplanted.

2. Trees like peepal and sheesham are tolerant to transplantation.

3. Any tree that has a tap root system can be transplanted without much effort.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 15

Not all trees can be transplanted. While peepal, ficus, semal and sheesham are tolerant to transplantation, trees such as dak, palash, arjun, shahtoot and jhilmil are not. Any tree that has a tap root system cannot be transplanted, as the root goes deep into the soil, and it is not possible to isolate it without damage.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 16

Consider the following statements regarding Echolocation.

1. Echolocation is a process for locating distant or invisible objects.

2. The technique uses sound waves.

3. Only animals can adapt to Echolocation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 16

A technique used by animals such as dolphins, whales and bats to navigate their surroundings can also be used by blind people to get around better and have greater independence and well-being, researchers at Durham University in the UK have shown. Using the method, called ‘echolocation’, animals emit sounds that bounce off objects and come back to them, providing information about what is around them. The same technique helps blind people locate still objects by producing clicking sounds from their mouth and hands.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 17

Consider the following statements regarding Community Reserve

1. Community Reserve is established under Environment Protection Act, 1986.

2. Any state government can declare community-owned forest area as “community reserve” if locals arewilling to participate in conservation efforts for same.

3. Community reserve receives same legal protection as National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 17

Community Reserves:

• Conservation reserves and community reserves in India are terms denoting protected areas of India which typically act as buffer zones to or connectors and migration corridors between established national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and reserved and protected forests of India.

• Such areas are designated as conservation areas if they are uninhabited and completely owned by the Government of India but used for subsistence by communities and community areas if part of the lands are privately owned.

• These protected area categories were first introduced in the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act of 2002 − the amendment to the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.

• It enables any state government to declare community-owned forest area as “community reserve” if locals are willing to participate in conservation efforts for same.

• Under it, community reserve receives same legal protection as National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 18

Which of the following are the functions of Central Zoo Authority?

1. Monitor and evaluate the existing zoos in India

2. Enforce standards and norms for upkeep and healthcare of animals in the Indian zoos.

3. Control the mushrooming of ill-conceived and ill planned zoos

4. Suggest ways and means for the improvement of zoos in the country

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 18

• The Central Zoo Authority with its headquarters in New Delhi was established in 1992,

• under the provisions of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 to oversee the functioning of zoos in the country with the view to enhance their role in conservation.

• The main objective of the Central Zoo Authority is to enforce minimum standards and norms for upkeep and healthcare of animals in the Indian zoos and to control the mushrooming of ill-conceived, ill planned zoos, to monitor and evaluate the existing zoos and to suggest ways and means for the improvement of zoos in the country so that they can be transferred into potent centers for ex-situ conservation of endangered wild fauna.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 19

Consider the following statements regarding Sea Snot.

1. Sea snot is a slimy layer of grey or green sludge in the sea.

2. It is formed when algae are overloaded with nutrients as a result of water pollution combined with theeffects of climate change.

3. If unchecked, it can collapse to the bottom and cover the sea floor, causing major damage to themarine ecosystem.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 19

‘Sea snot’, a slimy layer of grey or green sludge in the seas, which can cause considerable damage to the marine ecosystem. ‘Sea snot’ is marine mucilage that is formed when algae are overloaded with nutrients as a result of water pollution combined with the effects of climate change. The nutrient overload occurs when algae feast on warm weather caused by global warming. Water pollution adds to the problem. If unchecked, this can collapse to the bottom and cover the sea floor, causing major damage to the marine ecosystem.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 20

Consider the following statements regarding Icebergs.

1. An iceberg is a large piece of freshwater ice that has broken off a glacier or an ice shelf and is floatingfreely in open water.

2. The ocean currents influence the movement of icebergs.

3. Icebergs carry dust which fertilises ocean plankton.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 20

An iceberg is a large piece of freshwater ice that has broken off a glacier or an ice shelf and is floating freely in open (salt) water. Icebergs travel with ocean currents and either get caught up in shallow waters or ground themselves. On the other hand, there are some positives of an iceberg being stuck in the open ocean, since icebergs carry dust which fertilises ocean plankton, which draws up carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 21

In plants, DNA or deoxyribonucleic acid is present in which of the following organelle?
1. Mitochondria
2. Nucleus
3. Ribosome

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 21

DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is the hereditary material in humans and almost all other organisms. Nearly every cell in a person's body has the same DNA.
The information in DNA is stored as a code made up of four chemical bases: adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and thymine (T). Human DNA consists of about 3 billion bases, and more than 99 percent of those bases are the same in all people.
In eukaryotic cells, most DNA is located in the cell nucleus (though some DNA is also contained in other organelles, such as in the mitochondria and the chloroplast in plants). Nuclear DNA is organized into linear molecules called chromosomes. So, DNA is present only in mitochondria and the nucleus. So, options 1 and 2 are correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 22

With reference to pollen grains of flower, consider the following statements:
1. They are present in the female gametophytes.
2. They are rich in nutrients and are used as pollen tablets as food supplements.
3. They are well preserved as fossils because of the presence of sporopollenin.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 22

The pollen grains represent the male gametophytes. Pollen grains are generally spherical, measuring about 25-50 micrometres in diameter. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Pollen grains are rich in nutrients. It has become a fashion in recent years to use pollen tablets as food supplements. In western countries, many pollen products in the form of tablets and syrups are available in the market. So, statement 2 is correct.
It has a prominent two-layered wall. The hard outer layer called the exine is made up of sporopollenin, one of the most resistant organic materials known. It can withstand high temperatures and strong acids and alkali. No enzyme that degrades sporopollenin is so far known. Pollen grain exine has prominent apertures called germ pores where sporopollenin is absent. Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils because of the presence of sporopollenin. So, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 23

Consider the following statements regarding the properties of a colloid:
1. It is a heterogeneous mixture and is unstable.
2. The size of particles of a colloid is large and can be seen by naked eyes.
3. These are big enough to scatter a beam of light passing through it and make its path visible.
4. Fog, clouds, mist and coloured gemstone are some of the examples of colloid.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 23

A colloid is a heterogeneous mixture and quite stable So, statement 1 is not correct.
The size of particles of a colloid is too small to be individually seen by naked eyes. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Colloids are big enough to scatter a beam of light passing through thern and rnake their path visible. So, statement 3 is correct.
Common examples of colloids are-

So, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 24

With reference to the Nagar Van Scheme, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It aims to develop 200 urban forests across the country in the next ten years.
2. A minimum of 50 hectares of forests will be created in the city.
3. Warje urban forest in Pune will be considered as a role model for the Scheme.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 24

Fog, clouds, mist
Smoke, automobile exhaust
Shaving cream
Milk, face cream
Milk of magnesia, mud
Foam, rubber, sponge, pumice
Jelly, cheese, butter
Coloured gemstone, milky glass

  • The Government has announced the implementation of the Nagar Van Scheme on the occasion of World Environment Day (5th June). The theme of World Environment Day 2020 is 'Celebrating Biodiversity'-a concern that is both urgent and existential , but India has decided to focus on Nagar Van (Urban Forests) and the official theme.
  • The Nagar Van (Urban ·Forests) aims to develop 200 Urban Forests across the country in the next five years. So, statement 1 is not correct.
  • Under this Scheme, a minimum of 20 hectares of forests will be created in the city. These city forests will provide the city dwellers a wholesome natural environment for recreation and will contribute to the improvement of the city's environment by pollution mitigation, cleaner air, noise reduction, water harvesting and reduction of the heat island effect. So, statement 2 is not correct.
  • Warje Urban Forest in Pune (Maharashtra) will be considered as a role model for the Scheme. So, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 25

Consider the following statements about flora and fauna of a particular biome:
1. It consists of trees like beech, oak, maple and cherry.
2. Most animals are familiar vertebrates and invertebrates.
3. These are the most productive agricultural area on the Earth.

Q. Which of the following biomes has the above-defined characteristics?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 25

A biome is a large area characterized by its vegetation, soil, climate, and wildlife. There are five major types of biomes: aquatic, grassland, forest, desert, and tundra, though some of these biomes can be further divided into more specific categories, such as freshwater, marine, savanna, tropical rainforest, temperate rainforest, and taiga.

  • Tundra biome: Devoid of trees except for stunted shrubs in the southern part of tundra biome, ground flora includes lichen, mosses and sedges. The typical animals are reindeer, arctic fox, and polar bear. Reptiles and amphibians are almost absent. So, option (a) is not correct.
  • Temperate deciduous forest: The flora includes trees like beech, oak, maple and cherry. Most animals are familiar vertebrates and invertebrates. These are the most productive agricultural area on Earth. So, option (b) is correct.
  • e-Savannah: Grasses with scattered trees and fire-resisting thorny shrubs. The fauna includes antelopes, buffaloes, zebras, elephants and rhinoceros: the carnivores include lion, cheetah, hyena, and mongoose, and many rodents. So, option (c) is not correct. 
  • Grassland: Grasses dominate the vegetation. The fauna includes large herbivores like bison, antelope, cattle, prairie dog, wolves, and a richly diverse array of ground-nesting birds. So, option (d) is not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 26

Which of the following can be considered as supporting services provided by ecosystems?
1. Soil formation
2. Production of oxygen through photosynthesis
3. Air quality maintenance
4. Food and fibre
5. Nutrient cycling
6. Crop pollination

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 26

There are four kinds of ecosystem services:

  • Provisioning services
  • Regulating services
  • Cultural services
  • Supporting services
  1. Supporting services are those that are necessary for the production of all other ecosystem services. Erosion control, Soil formation, oxygen production through photosynthesis, Nutrient cycling, Water cycling, Crop pollination. So, option (a) is correct
  2. Cultural services are the non-material benefits people obtain from ecosystems through spiritual enrichment, cognitive development, reflection, recreation, and aesthetic experience.
  3. Regulating services are the benefits obtained from the regulation of ecosystem processes. Air quality maintenance, climate regulation, water regulation, storm protection, regulation of human diseases, biological control. So, options (b), (c) and (d) are not correct.
  4. Provisioning services are the products obtained from the ecosystem's food and fiber, fuel, genetic resources, ornamental resources, fresh water. So options (b), (c) are not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 27

Which of the following statements is not correct with regard to joint forest management?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 27

Joint Forest Management (JFM) is a partnership involving both the forest departments and local communities in natural forest management. The Government of India introduced the concept through the National Forest Policy of 1988.

  • In JFM, the local communities are involved in the planning of the conservation programme.
    The people have controlled access to the forest areas and are permitted to harvest the resources in a sustainable manner. In return, they act as the guardians of the forest. So, options (a), (b) and (d) are correct.
  • The key element in JFM is that communities can manage the use of forests by members and exclude non-members. The benefits to them are direct access and control on the use and sale of most NTFPs and a share in the income from timber and other intangible benefits from local ecosystem services - like water recharge, pollination, wildlife habitat, etc. Thus the involvement of communities in the conservation of forests and wildlife is of paramount interest.
  • So, option (c) is not correct.

Therefore, the answer is (c).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 28

With reference to Banni grasslands, consider the following statements:
1. These are located in the Saurashtra region.
2. The Maldharis are the region's nomadic pastoralist community.
3. It accounts for almost 45 percent of the pastures in Gujarat.

Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 28

Banni Grasslands Reserve or Banni grasslands form a belt of arid grassland ecosystem on the outer southern edge of the desert of the marshy salt flats of Rann of Kutch and spread over 3,847 square kilometers. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The Banni Grassland is inhabited by Sindhi speaking Maldhari (cattle breeders) who hail from the Jat, Mutwa, Hingora, Hingorja tribes. As per the Indian Forest Act of 1927, the Banni Grassland has been declared a protected forest since May 1955 So, statement 2 is correct. Banni grassland-once referred to as Asia's finest grassland-accounts for approximately 45 percent of the permanent pastures and 10 percent of the grazing ground available in the state of Gujarat. So, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore the correct answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 29

Consider the following statements regarding Mangroves for the Future (MFF):
1. It is a unique partner-led initiative to promote investment in coastal ecosystem conservation for sustainable development.
2. The International Union for Conservation of Nature and the United Nations Development Programme developed it in 2004.
3. India and Malaysia are both members of the initiative.
4. It works towards strengthening Integrated Coastal Management institutions and empower civil society.

Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 29

Mangroves for the Future (MFF) is a unique partner-led initiative to promote investment in coastal ecosystem conservation for sustainable development. It was former United States President Bill Clinton's vision that rebuilding in tsunami-hit areas should improve natural infrastructure and strengthen resilience against future natural disasters. So, statement 1 is correct.
In response to this vision, IUCN and the UNDP deveioped Mangroves for the Future in 2006. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Bangladesh, Cambodia, India, Indonesia, Maldives, Myanmar, Pakistan, Seychelles, Sri Lanka, Thailand, and Viet Nam are the member countries.
Outreach countries: Malaysia. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Objectives:-

  • Improve, share and apply knowledge to support the conservation, restoration and sustainable use of coastal ecosystems.
  • Strengthen Integrated Coastal Management institutions and empower civil society (including local communities) to engage in decision-making and management that conserves, restores and sustainably uses coastal ecosystems.
  • Enhance coastal governance at all levels (regional, national, provincial, district and community) to encourage integrated management programmes and investments that are ecologically and socio-economically sound, and promote human well-being and security. So, statement 4 is correct.

Therefore the correct answer is (b).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 30

With respect to keystone species, consider the following statements:
1. It determines the ability of a large number of other species in the community to survive.
2. Its disappearance may allow new and possibly invasive species to populate the habitat.

Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 28 - Question 30

A keystone species is a species that has a disproportionately large effect on its natural environment relative to its abundance, a concept introduced in 1969 by the zoologist Robert T. Paine. Keystone species play a critical role in maintaining the structure of an ecological community, affecting many other organisms in an ecosystem and helping to determine the types and numbers of various other species in the community. Keystone species have low functional redundancy. This means that if the species were to disappear from the Ecosystem, no other species would be able to fill its ecological niche. The Ecosystem would be forced to radically change, allowing new and possibly invasive species to populate the habitat. In this way, it determines the ability of a large number of other species in the community to survive. So, statements 1 and 2 is correct.
Pisaster ochraceus, commonly known as purple sea stars, are a major predator of mussels and barnacles on Tatoosh Island. With the sea stars gone, mussels took over the area and crowded out other species, including benthic algae that supported communities of sea snails, limpets, and bivalves. Lacking a keystone species, the tidal plain's biodiversity was cut in half within a year.

Therefore the correct answer is (c).

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