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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - UPSC MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 for UPSC 2024 is part of UPSC preparation. The UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPSC exam syllabus.The UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 MCQs are made for UPSC 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 below.
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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 1

SACRED Portal, launched recently, is an online employment exchange platform for:  

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 1

SACRED stands for Senior Able Citizens for Re-Employment in Dignity (SACRED). The portal is developed by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. Citizens above 60 years of age can register on the portal and find jobs and work opportunities. The Employment Portal will serve not only the senior citizens seeking employment, but also the employers, the Self Help Groups (SHGs), the senior citizens gaining skills, and other agencies or individuals.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 2

Global Multi-dimensional Poverty Index is released by 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 2

Global Multidimensional Poverty Index 2021 was released by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty & Human Development Initiative (OPHI).

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 3

Consider the following statements

1. The Global Coral Reef Monitoring Network (GCRMN) is an operational network of the International Coral Reef Initiative

2. The GCRMN is a global network of scientists, managers, businessmen and organisations that monitor the condition of coral reefs throughout the world

3. India is a founding member of the International Coral Reef Initiative (ICRI)

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 3

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 4

With reference to ‘Pradhan Mantri – Mega Investment Textile Region and Apparel Parks (PM MITRA)’, consider the following statements

1. Parks will be developed in Master Developer (MD) model on Design-Build-Finance-Operate-Transfer (DBFOT) format

2. It is only available to those manufacturing companies who are not availing Textile PLI scheme benefits

3. State governments having ready availability of contiguous and dispute free land parcel of 500+ acres will be eligible for application under the Scheme

4. It comes under the Ministry of Textiles

Choose the correct answer using the code 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 4

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 5

Consider the following statements 

1. Furlough is granted to the prisoner to meet a specific exigency whereas Parole may be granted without any reason.

2. Period of furlough granted to a prisoner is treated as remission of his sentence whereas parole is a system of releasing a prisoner with suspension of the sentence.

3. Prisoner does not have an absolute legal right to claim parole unlike furlough

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 5

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 6

Nord Stream 2 pipeline runs across which sea 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 6

Nord Stream 2 is an export gas pipeline running from Russia to Europe across the Baltic Sea. NS2’s construction began in 2018 and is being implemented by the Nord Stream 2 AG project company.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 7

Manda Buffalo is an indigenous breed belonging to:  

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 7

The Manda buffaloes are resistant to parasitic infections, less prone to diseases and can live, produce and reproduce at low or nil input systems. These are found in the Eastern Ghats and plateau of Koraput region of Odisha. The small, sturdy buffaloes are used for ploughing in their native habitat of the Koraput, Malkangiri and Nabarangpur districts. There are around 1,00,000 buffaloes of this breed in the native tract mostly contributing to the family nutrition of households and assisting in all the agricultural operations in the undulated hilly terrain for generations. The average milk yield of these buffaloes is 2 to 2.5 litres in single milking with more than 8% fat. However, a few of those yield up to 4 litres.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 8

Consider the following statements regarding Transport and Marketing Assistance (TMA) for Specified Agriculture Products Scheme: 

1. It aims at providing financial assistance for the transport and marketing of agricultural products to boost exports. 

2. It is a scheme of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmer’s Welfare. 

3. The scheme provides 100% freight and marketing assistance for export of agricultural products by air as well as by sea. 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 8

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 9

Which of the following countries are part of the grouping called AUKUS, seen recently in news? 

1. UAE 

2. UK 

3. South Africa 

4. Australia 

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 9

AUKUS is a new trilateral security partnership for the Indo-Pacific between Australia, the U.K. and the U.S. (AUKUS). The grouping is security focused. A central feature of the partnership would involve a trilateral 18-month effort to help Australia acquire nuclear-powered submarines which are quieter, more capable and can be deployed for longer periods, needing to surface less frequently. The partnership would also involve a new architecture of meetings and engagements between the three countries and also cooperation across emerging technologies (applied AI, quantum technologies and undersea capabilities).

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 10

‘SMILE’, a scheme which is seen in news is related to 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 10

Union Social Justice and Empowerment said it had formulated an umbrella scheme, SMILE (Support for Marginalised Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise), that included two sub-schemes for the welfare of transgender persons and persons engaged in begging. The  scheme will cover rehabilitation, provision of medical facilities, counselling, education, skill development and economic linkages.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 11

Which of the following measures is/are likely to result in the current account surplus in the Balance of Payments (BoP)?

1. Increase in the remittances received from abroad.

2. Fall in global crude oil prices

3. External commercial borrowing

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 11

External commercial borrowing forms the component of capital account. Other measures would result in current account surplus.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 12

Consider the following statements regarding Geographical indication (GI).

1. GI is given primarily for an agricultural, natural or a manufactured product originating from a definitegeographical territory.

2. Geographical Indication cannot be licensed by someone not belonging to the group of authorizedproducers.

3. The registration of a geographical indication is valid for a period of 20 years.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 12

A geographical indication (GI) is a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin. It is given primarily for an agricultural, natural or a manufactured product (handicrafts and industrial goods) originating from a definite geographical territory. A geographical indication cannot be assigned or licensed to someone outside that place or not belonging to the group of authorized producers. The registration of a geographical indication is valid for a period of 10 years. It can be renewed from time to time for further period of 10 years each.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 13

Consider the following statements regarding Colocation facility w.r.t National Stock Exchange (NSE).

1. Colocation facility allows stock brokers to place their servers in the data centre of NSE.

2. The benefit of colocation is that it allows faster access to the price feed (buy/sell quotes) distributed bythe stock exchange.

3. Securities and Exchange Board of India (Sebi) recently banned the Colocation facility.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 13

In August 2009, NSE introduced the colocation facility, which allowed brokers to place their servers in the data centre of NSE. Of course, there was a charge for this service, and only the big brokers can afford it. The benefit of colocation is that it allows faster access to the price feed (buy/sell quotes) distributed by the stock exchange. That is because the broker’s server sits right next to the stock exchange’s server and so the data has to only travel a very short distance from the exchange server to the broker’s server. No, it is not illegal. World over, stock exchanges provide colocation facility to brokers who are willing to pay for it

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 14

Consider the following statements regarding Anti-Dumping Duty.

1. Countries carry out anti-dumping probes to determine whether their domestic industries have been hurt because of a surge in cheap imports.

2. Countries impose Anti-Dumping duties outside the regime of the World Trade Organization (WTO).

3. In India, Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR), under the Ministry of Finance conducts antidumping investigations.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 14

Countries carry out anti-dumping probes to determine whether their domestic industries have been hurt because of a surge in cheap imports. As a counter measure, they impose duties under the multilateral regime of the World Trade Organization (WTO). Dumping is a process wherein a company exports a product at a price that is significantly lower than the price it normally charges in its home (or its domestic) market. Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR) conducts anti-dumping investigations, under the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 and the rules made thereunder, on the basis of a duly substantiated application filed by the domestic industry alleging dumping of goods into the country causing injury to the domestic industry. The basic intent of anti-dumping measures is to eliminate injury caused to the domestic industry by the unfair trade practice of dumping and to create a level playing field for the domestic industry.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 15

Consider the following statements.

1. As per the present FDI policy, the FDI ceiling for public sector banks is less than 50% on government approval route.

2. As per the present rules, Global investors are not allowed to participate in initial public offering (IPO) of a company owned by the government.

3. A Red Herring Prospectus is a document filed by a company to SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) when it plans to raise money through initial public offering (IPO).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 15

The Cabinet approved changes to India’s foreign direct investment (FDI) policy to allow global investors to participate in the initial public offering of Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) shares expected to be launched soon. As per the present FDI policy, the FDI ceiling for public sector banks is 20% on government approval route. A Red Herring Prospectus, or offer document, is filed by a company to SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) when it plans to raise money from the public by selling shares of the company to investors. The document is very useful to investors because it provides detailed information about the company’s business operations, financials, promoters and the company’s objective for raising funds by filing an IPOs.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 16

Consider the following statements.

1. Generally in the Indian Economy, the GVA at constant prices is more than the GDP at constant prices.

2. Agriculture sector accounts for more than 20 percent in nominal Gross value added (GVA).

3. Among agriculture, Industry and mining sectors, the agricultural sector was the least impacted by the Covid-19 pandemic-related disruptions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 16

The agricultural sector was the least impacted by the pandemic-related disruptions. This sector now accounts for 18.8 per cent of GVA

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 17

Geographical Indication tags are typically given for

1. Foodstuffs

2. Agricultural products

3. Wines and spirit drinks

4. Industrial products

5. Handicrafts

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 17

The World Intellectual Property Organisation defines a GI as “a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin”. GIs are typically used for agricultural products, foodstuffs, handicrafts, industrial products, wines and spirit drinks. Darjeeling tea, Kullu shawl, Mysore agarbathi, champagne (France), Swiss watches etc are some of its examples. Internationally, GIs are covered as an element of intellectual property rights under the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property. They are also covered under the Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 18

Which of the following activities is/are promoted by Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)?

1. Initial Public Offering (IPO)

2. Currency Futures

3. Venture Capital Market

4. Insider trading

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 18

Initial public offering (IPO) is the process by which a private company can go public by sale of its stocks to general public. It is being promoted by SEBI. Currency futures are a transferable futures contract that specifies the price at which a currency can be bought or sold at a future date. Currency future contracts allow investors to hedge against foreign exchange risk. Thus, it is being promoted by SEBI. Start-up companies with a potential to grow need a certain amount of investment. Wealthy investors like to invest their capital in such businesses with a long-term growth perspective. This capital is known as venture capital and the investors are called venture capitalists. Thus, it is being promoted by SEBI. Insider trading is defined as a malpractice wherein trade of a company's securities is undertaken by people who by virtue of their work have access to the otherwise non- public information which can be crucial for making investment decisions. Thus, it is highly discouraged by the Securities and Exchange Board of India to promote fair trading in the market for the benefit of the common investor.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 19

Consider the following statements regarding Exchange Traded Funds (ETF).

1. ETFs are passive funds listed and traded on stock exchanges like shares.

2. In an ETF, one can buy and sell units at prevailing market price on a real time basis during market hours.

3. Here the fund manager selects stocks based on customers choice.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 19

Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs):

  • Typically, an ETF mirrors a particular index, which means the group of stocks in the ETF would be similar to those in the index that it is benchmarked to.
  • They are traded on stock exchanges like shares.
  • Usually, ETFs are passive funds where the fund manager doesn’t select stocks on your behalf. Instead, the ETF simply copies an index and endeavours to accurately reflect its performance.
  • In an ETF, one can buy and sell units at prevailing market price on a real time basis during market hours.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 20

Consider the following statements.

1. The policy of Import substitution aims to change the economic structure of the country by replacing foreign goods with domestic goods.

2. Import cover is the number of months of imports that could be paid for by a country’s Forex reserves.

3. RBI has declared that minimum two years of import cover is essential for the stability of Rupee.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 20

Import substitution is a strategy under trade policy that abolishes the import of foreign products and encourages for the production in the domestic market. The purpose of this policy is to change the economic structure of the country by replacing foreign goods with domestic goods. Post-Independence India adopted the policy of import substitution by imposing heavy tariffs on import duty. Import Cover measures the number of months of imports that can be covered with foreign exchange reserves available with the central bank of the country. Eight to ten months of import cover is essential for the stability of a currency.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 21

Consider the following statements with reference to Bengal British India Society:

  1. It was the second political public association to be formed in British India.
  2. It sent petitions urging upon the government for increasing employment of Indians in public offices and for judicial reforms.
  3. Ramgopal Ghosh was elected as the first president of the society.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 21
  • Bengal British India Society founded in Calcutta on 20 April 1843, was the second political public association to be formed in British India, the first being the zamindari association (1837). Hence statement 1 is correct. 
  • Unlike the introvert Zamindari Association, representing solely the interests of the landed aristocracy, the Bengal British India Society was an organisation dominated by a section of the Bengal intellectuals, particularly by the young Bengal group that boasted of their aristocracy of western education and intelligence. 
  • Its membership was open to all adults not 'under instruction in any public institution', paying subscription or donating to the society fund and 'conscientiously subscribing' to its aims and objects. But the members of the landed aristocracy studiously kept themselves aloof from it because of its open anti-landlord stance. 
  • Its Secretary had launched a trenchant attack on the permanent settlement and the zamindars and indigo planters from its platform and in the press 
  • Its first 15-member executive committee consisted of four Europeans and eleven Indians with George Thompson as President, GF Remfry and Ramgopal Ghosh as Vice-Presidents, Peary Chand Mitra as Secretary. Hence statement 3 is not correct. 
  • The Bengal British India Society sent petitions urging upon government for increasing employment of Indians in public offices and for judicial reforms. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
  • It is said that the appointment of Indians as Deputy Magistrates and reforms in the Registration itish India Society nor the Zamindari Association could achieve much, although in the growth of political parties in India they played pioneering roles. Both became weak by 1850.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 22

With reference to the partition of Bengal, consider the following statements:

  1. The official reason given for the decision to partition Bengal was to contain the extremist revolutionary terrorism in eastern India.
  2. It was decided that Assam and Orissa would be clubbed with Western Bengal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 22
  • The British government’s decision to partition Bengal had been made public in December 1903. 
  • The idea was to have two provinces: Bengal comprising Western Bengal as well as the provinces of Bihar and Orissa, and Eastern Bengal and Assam. Bengal retained Calcutta as its capital, while Dacca became the capital of Eastern Bengal. Hence statement 2 is not correct. 
  • The official reason given for the decision was that Bengal with a population of 78 million (about a quarter of the population of British India) had become too big to be administered. Hence statement 1 is not correct. 
  • It was also stated that partition would help in the development of Assam if it came under the direct jurisdiction of the government. 
  • This was true to some extent, but the real motive behind the partition plan was seen to be the British desire to weaken Bengal, the nerve centre of Indian nationalism. 
  • It was decided to annul the partition of Bengal in 1911 mainly to curb the menace of revolutionary terrorism.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 23

Which of the following statements are correct, with reference to the work done by Congress Ministries after the provincial elections of 1937?

  1. They repealed restrictions on the press and radical organizations.
  2. Power of the police was curbed and political prisoners including a large number of revolutionary terrorists were released.
  3. Agrarian legislation was passed dealing with tenancy rights and other protections to the peasant debtors.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 23

Congress ministries tried to improve the condition of the people within the narrow limits of the powers given to them under the Act of 1935. 

  • The Congress ministers reduced their own salaries drastically to Rs.500 per month. 
  • Most of them travelled second or third class on the railways. 
  • They promoted civil liberties, repealed restrictions on the press and radical organizations, permitted trade unions and Kisan (peasant) organizations to function and grow. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
  • The power of the police was curbed and political prisoners including a large number of revolutionary terrorists were released. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
  • Agrarian legislation was passed dealing with tenancy rights, security of tenure, rent reduction, and relief and protection to the peasant debtors. Hence, statement 3 is correct. 
  • The Congress government undertook Harijan uplift, and paid greater attention to primary, higher, and technical education and public health. 
  • Support was given to khadi and other village industries. Modern industries too were encouraged. 
  • Firm handling of the communal riots.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 24

Consider the following statements regarding service voters:

  1. They can cast their votes either through postal ballot or through a proxy voter appointed for them.
  2. The family (including children of voting age) of a service voter are deemed to be service voters and the voting facility is also available to them.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 24
  • Service voter is a voter having service qualification. According to the provisions of sub – section (8) of Section 20 of Representation of People Act, 1950, service qualification means – 
    • Being a member of the armed Forces of the Union ; or 
    • Being a member of a force to which provisions of the Army Act, 1950 (46 of 1950), have been made applicable whether with or without modification ; 
    • Being a member of an Armed Police Force of a State, and serving outside that state; or 
    • Being a person who is employed under the Government of India, in a post outside India. 
  • Postal voting is a type of voting in elections whereby Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot Papers (ETPB) are distributed to electors and returned by post, and in India, service voters are entitled to the same. A service voter may appoint any person as his / her proxy to give vote on his / her behalf and in his / her name at the polling station. The proxy shall have to be ordinary resident of that constituency. He need not be a registered voter but he / she must not be disqualified to be registered as a voter. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
  • The wife of a service voter shall, if she is ordinarily residing with him, be also deemed to be a service voter in the constituency specified by that person. A son / daughter / relative / servant etc. residing ordinarily with a service voter cannot be enrolled as service voter. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 25

"To protect monuments, places, and objects of artistic or historic interest ” is a provision made under:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 25
  • Directive Principles of State Policy - Article 49 - Protection of monuments and places and objects of national importance. 
    • It shall be the obligation of the State to protect every monument or place or object of artistic or historic interest, [declared by or under law made by Parliament] to be of national importance, from spoliation, disfigurement, destruction, removal, disposal or export, as the case may be. 
  • While “to value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture” is a prescribed duty of every citizen of India as per Article 51A(f) as a Fundamental Duty
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 26

Consider the following statements:

  1. The President can transfer a judge from one high court to another after consulting the Chief Ministers of the respective states.
  2. The transfer of judges from one high court to another is not subject to judicial review.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 26
  • The President can transfer a judge from one high court to another after consulting the Chief Justice of India. On transfer, he is entitled to receive in addition to his salary such compensatory allowance as may be determined by Parliament. Hence statement 1 is not correct. 
  • In 1977, the Supreme Court ruled that the transfer of high court judges could be resorted to only as an exceptional measure and only in public interest and not by way of punishment. Again in 1994, the Supreme Court held that judicial review is necessary to check arbitrariness in transfer of judges. But, only the judge who is transferred can challenge it. Hence statement 2 is not correct. 
  • In the Third Judges case (1998), the Supreme Court opined that in case of the transfer of high court judges, the Chief Justice of India should consult, in addition to the collegium of four senior most judges of the Supreme Court, the chief justice of the two high courts (one from which the judge is being transferred and the other receiving him). Thus, the sole opinion of the chief justice of India does not constitute the ‘consultation’ process.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 27

Which among the following are part of the specific instructions mentioned in Gandhiji's speech during the launch of the Quit India Movement on 8th August 1942?

  1. Government servants to resign immediately.
  2. Princes to accept the sovereignty of the Indian National Congress.
  3. Students to give up studies if they can remain firm till independence.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 27

The historic 8th August meeting at Gowalia tank in Bombay was convened to ratify the decision of the Congress Working Committee meeting at Wardha regarding the idea of struggle. Gandhiji in his popular speech gave the mantra of 'Do or Die and mentioned the specific instructions to various sections of society.
These instructions include:

  • Government servants would not yet to be asked to resign, but they should declare their allegiance to the Congress. 
  • Soldiers were also not to leave their posts, but they were to refuse to fire on their own people. 
  • The princes were asked to 'accept the sovereignty of their own people', instead of paying homage to a foreign power. 
  • The people of the princely states were asked to declare that they were part of the Indian nation and they would accept the leadership of the princes, if latter cast their lot with the people. 
  • Students were to give up their studies if they were sure that they could continue to remain firm till Independence was achieved. 
  • Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 28

Consider the following statements with reference to the vacancy in the President’s office:

  1. When the vacancy is caused by the expiration of the term of the sitting President, the Vice President discharge the function of the President.
  2. When the vacancy is caused by the resignation or removal, the newly elected President remains in the office for the remainder of the period for which predecessor would have continued.
  3. When the sitting President is unable to discharge his functions due to any reason and the office of Vice-President and Chief Justice of India are vacant, the Parliament appoint an acting President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 28
  • A vacancy in the President’s office can occur in any of the following ways: 
    • On the expiry of his tenure of five years. 
    • By his resignation. 
    • On his removal by the process of impeachment. 
    • By his death 
    • Otherwise, for example, when he becomes disqualified to hold office or when his election is declared void. 
  • When the vacancy is going to be caused by the expiration of the term of the sitting President, an election to fill the vacancy must be held before the expiration of the term. In case of any delay in conducting the election of new President by any reason, the outgoing President continues to hold office (beyond his term of five years) until his successor assumes charge. This is provided by the Constitution in order to prevent an ‘interregnum’. In this situation, the Vice-President does not get the opportunity to act as President or to discharge the functions of the President. Hence statement 1 is not correct. 
  • If the office falls vacant by resignation, removal, death or otherwise, then election to fill the vacancy should be held within six months from the date of the occurrence of such a vacancy. The newly-elected President remains in office for a full term of five years from the date he assumes charge of his office. Hence statement 2 is not correct. 
  • When a vacancy occurs in the office of the President due to his resignation, removal, death or otherwise, the Vice-President acts as the President until a new President is elected. Further, when the sitting President is unable to discharge his functions due to absence, illness or any other cause, the Vice President discharges his functions until the President resumes his office. In case the office of Vice-President is vacant, the Chief Justice of India (or if his office is also vacant, the senior most judge of the Supreme Court available) acts as the President or discharges the functions of the President. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 29

Who among the following does not participate in the election of the President?

  1. The elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.
  2. The nominated members of both the Houses of Parliament.
  3. The nominated members of the state legislative assemblies.
  4. The elected members of the state legislative councils.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 29
  • The President is elected not directly by the people but by members of electoral college consisting of: 
    • the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament; 
    • the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states; and o the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry. 
  • The electoral college does not include: 
    • the nominated members of both of Houses of Parliament, o the nominated members of the state legislative assemblies, 
    • the members (both elected and nominated) of the state legislative councils (in case of the bicameral legislature); and 
    • the nominated members of the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry do not participate in the election of the President. 
  • Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 30

 Consider the following statements about the language of the Courts:

  1. The Parliament has not made any provision for the use of Hindi in the Supreme Court.
  2. The Governor of a State without any consent or approval of the President can authorise the use of Hindi or any other official language of the State in the proceedings of the High Court of the State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 31 - Question 30

The constitutional provisions dealing with the language of the courts and legislation are as follows: 

  • Until Parliament provides otherwise, the following are to be in the English language only: 
    • All proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every high court. 
    • The authoritative texts of all bills, acts, ordinances, orders, rules, regulations and bye-laws at the Central and state levels. 
  • However, the Governor of a state, with the previous consent of the president, can authorise the use of Hindi or any other official language of the state, in the proceedings in the high court of the state, but not with respect to the judgements, decrees and orders passed by it. In other words, the judgements, decrees and orders of the high court must continue to be in English only (until Parliament otherwise provides). Hence statement 2 is not correct. 
  • The Parliament has not made any provision for the use of Hindi in the Supreme Court. Hence, the Supreme Court hears only those who petition or appeal in English. In 1971, a petitioner insisted on arguing in Hindi a habeas corpus petition in the Supreme Court. But, the Court cancelled his petition on the ground that the language of the Court was English and allowing Hindi would be unconstitutional. Hence statement 1 is correct.
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