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Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - UPSC MCQ


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25 Questions MCQ Test - Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1

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Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 1

Consider the following statements regarding West Nile Virus.

  1. The West Nile Virus is a mosquito-borne, RNA virus.
  2. It is a flavivirus related to the viruses that cause Japanese encephalitis, and yellow fever.
  3. Birds are the reservoir host of the virus.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 1

The West Nile Virus is a mosquito-borne, single-stranded RNA virus. It is a flavivirus related to the viruses that cause St. Louis encephalitis, Japanese encephalitis, and yellow fever.

Culex species of mosquitoes act as the principal vectors for transmission. It is transmitted by infected mosquitoes between and among humans and animals, including birds, which are the reservoir host of the virus.

“Mosquitoes become infected when they feed on infected birds, which circulate the virus in their blood for a few days. The virus eventually gets into the mosquito’s salivary glands. During later blood meals (when mosquitoes bite), the virus may be injected into humans and animals, where it can multiply and possibly cause illness.”

Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 2

Consider the following statements.

  1. Urea is a chemical fertiliser that artificially provides nitrogen, a major nutrient required by plants.
  2. The efficiency of liquid nano urea is more than double the efficiency of conventional urea.
  3. Liquid nano urea provide a targeted supply of nutrients to crops, as they are absorbed by the stomata found on the epidermis of leaves.

Which of the above statement sis/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 2

Prime Minister inaugurated the country’s first liquid nano urea plant at Kalol.
liquid nano urea is essentially urea in the form of a nanoparticle. Urea is a chemical nitrogen fertiliser, white in colour, which artificially provides nitrogen, a major nutrient required by plants.
The product has been developed at IFFCO’s Nano Biotechnology Research Centre (NBRC) at Kalol.
While conventional urea has an efficiency of about 25 per cent, the efficiency of liquid nano urea can be as high as 85-90 per cent. Conventional urea fails to have the desired impact on crops as it is often applied incorrectly, and the nitrogen in it is vaporised or lost as gas. A lot of nitrogen is also washed away during irrigation.
Liquid nano urea is sprayed directly on the leaves and gets absorbed by the plant. Fertilisers in nano form provide a targeted supply of nutrients to crops, as they are absorbed by the stomata, pores found on the epidermis of leaves.

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Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 3

The Forest Rights Act (FRA) identifies which of the following types of rights of the forest-dwelling communities.

  1. Title rights
  2. Use rights
  3. Forest management rights
  4. Relief and development rights

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 3

The act identifies four types of rights:

  1. Title rights:
    It gives FDST (Forest Dwelling Scheduled Tribe) and OTFD (other traditional forest dwellers) the right to ownership to land farmed by tribals or forest dwellers subject to a maximum of 4 hectares.
    Ownership is only for land that is actually being cultivated by the concerned family and no new lands will be granted.
  2. Use rights:
    The rights of the dwellers extend to extracting Minor Forest Produce, grazing areas, to pastoralist routes, etc.
  3. Relief and development rights:
    To rehabilitation in case of illegal eviction or forced displacement and to basic amenities, subject to restrictions for forest protection
  4. Forest management rights:
    It includes the right to protect, regenerate or conserve or manage any community forest resource which they have been traditionally protecting and conserving for sustainable use.
Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 4

Consider the following statements regarding Consumer Protection Act, 2019.

  1. In India, fake reviews of products on e-commerce websites pose a threat to the consumer rights under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
  2. The right to be informed is a consumer right under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019
  3. Every e-commerce entity is required to provide information regarding country of origin of a product.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 4

The Union government recently said that it plans to develop a framework to curb fake reviews of products on e-commerce websites after studying the “best practices available globally”. 

Due to fake and misleading reviews, the right to be informed, which is a consumer right under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 is violated.”

In India, fake reviews pose a threat to the consumer rights under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. The Act states that the consumers have a right to be “informed about the quality, quantity, potency, purity, standard and price of goods, products or services”
The Consumer Protection Act,2019 comes in to force from today i.e. 20th July 2020.
Under this act every e-commerce entity is required to provide information relating to return, refund, exchange, warranty and guarantee, delivery and shipment, modes of payment, grievance redressal mechanism, payment methods, security of payment methods, charge-back options, etc. including country of origin which are necessary for enabling the consumer to make an informed decision at the pre-purchase stage on its platform.

Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding Commonwealth of Nations.

  1. The Commonwealth of Nations is a political association of member states, almost all of which are former territories of the British Empire.
  2. The current Commonwealth of Nations was formally constituted by the Balfour Declaration, which established the member states as “free and equal”.
  3. The head of the Commonwealth is currently Queen Elizabeth II, who is the longest-serving monarch in British history.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 5

The Commonwealth of Nations, simply referred to as the Commonwealth, is a political association of 54 member states, almost all of which are former territories of the British Empire.

It was originally created as the British Commonwealth of Nations through the Balfour Declaration at the 1926 Imperial Conference, and formalised by the United Kingdom through the Statute of Westminster in 1931. The current Commonwealth of Nations was formally constituted by the London Declaration in 1949, which modernised the community and established the member states as “free and equal”.
The head of the Commonwealth is currently Queen Elizabeth II. Queen Elizabeth II is the longest-serving monarch in British history and the year 2022 celebrates her 70th year on the throne.

Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 6

Consider the following statements.

  1. Hypertension and diabetes are the biggest causes of kidney damage in India.
  2. Under the Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Act, organs can be harvested from deceased donors or from living relatives of the recipient.
  3. According to the law in India, Livers, pancreas, lungs and Kidneys can be harvested from living donors.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 6

Under the Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Act, 1994, amended in 2011 and 2014, organs can be harvested from deceased donors or from living relatives of the recipient (children, siblings, spouse, or grandparents, and grandchildren). The Act also allows unrelated donors such as relatives other than close ones, long-term friends, or in-laws, but prohibits any financial exchange.

Although livers, pancreas, or lungs can be harvested from living donors, the rackets mainly target the kidney as it is the most in demand.

The kidney can survive longer outside of the body — 24 to 36 hours — than the lungs (4-5 hour) and the liver (8-12).

What causes kidney failure?
The most common cause is hypertension and diabetes. Other causes include certain hereditary diseases, infections, and autoimmune diseases. “High blood pressure and diabetes are the biggest causes of kidney damage in India, leading to 50% of kidney failures. Obesity is also a big risk factor because it increases the risk of diabetes and hypertension.

Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 7

Consider the following statements regarding Aerosols.

  1. Aerosols are solid particles suspended in a gaseous environment.
  2. Aerosols are only situated in the lower layers of the atmosphere (< 1.5 km) since aerosol sources are located on the terrestrial surface.
  3. They affect the atmospheric chemical composition.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 7

Aerosols:

  • Aerosols are defined as a combination of liquid or solid particles suspended in a gaseous or liquid
  • In the atmosphere, these particles are mainly situated in the low layers of the atmosphere (< 1.5 km) since aerosol sources are located on the terrestrial surface.
  • certain aerosols can still be found in the stratosphere, especially volcanic aerosols ejected into the high-altitude layers.
  • The origin of atmospheric aerosols is either natural or the result of anthropogenic activities

Effects of aerosols:

  • They affect the atmospheric chemical composition.
  • They can reduce visibility.
  • They have important impacts on air quality and human health (e.g., aerosols can cause damage to heart and lungs).
  • They serve as nuclei for cloud droplets or ice crystals in ice clouds.
Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 8

The total market value of all finished goods and services produced within a country in a set time period is

Detailed Solution for Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 8

GDP is the total market value of all finished goods and services produced within a country in a set time period.
GNI is the total income received by the country from its residents and businesses regardless of whether they are located in the country or abroad.

GNP includes the income of all of a country’s residents and businesses whether it flows back to the country or is spent abroad. It also adds subsidies and taxes from foreign sources.

Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 9

Consider the following statements

  1. The Laffer Curve is an economic concept that states that inflation and unemployment have a stable and inverse relationship.
  2. The Phillips curve is an economic concept developed to show the relationship between tax rates and the amount of tax revenue collected by governments.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 9

The Phillips curve is an economic concept developed by A. W. Phillips stating that inflation and unemployment have a stable and inverse relationship.

The Laffer Curve is a theory developed by supply-side economist Arthur Laffer to show the relationship between tax rates and the amount of tax revenue collected by governments. The curve is used to illustrate Laffer’s argument that sometimes-cutting tax rates can increase total tax revenue.

Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 10

Consider the following statements.

  1. Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) is the statutory body mandated to collect Aadhaar data.
  2. To prevent misuse of biometric data, one can lock it from the UIDAI website, so that they can no longer be used for authentication.
  3. The Virtual Identity (VID) is a temporary 12-digit random number that can be used in lieu of Aadhaar number whenever authentication is necessary.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 10

The UIDAI, the statutory body mandated to collect Aadhaar data.

Locking biometrics: If you are worried about misuse of your Aadhaar biometric data, you can also lock it from the UIDAI website. When you lock your biometrics (fingerprint, iris, and face), they can no longer be used for authentication. 
Use VID: The Virtual Identity, or VID, is a system of “Limited KYC” (Know Your Customer). This hides the Aadhaar number from the authenticating agency, while still confirming the identity of the user. This is a 16-digit number, but temporary in nature. So, unlike the permanent 12-digit Aadhaar number, the VID is valid only for some time.

Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 11

Consider the following statements regarding Gait analysis.

  1. Gait analysis is a technique in medical care which is used to evaluate and diagnose conditions that affect a person’s walking and posture.
  2. Gait analysis techniques can be used by forensic sciences experts to identify suspects in criminal cases.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 11

Gait is defined as a manner of walking or moving on foot. Gait analysis is a technique in podiatry medical care and the treatment of the foot, which is used to evaluate and diagnose conditions that affect walking and posture.

The analysis can help experts zero in on the source of an injury or pain that determines the way in which an individual stands or walks. It can also be used by physiotherapists for treatment, and in athletics training so that athletes can perform better and in greater comfort.

Gait analysis techniques have now been borrowed by forensic sciences experts to identify suspects in criminal cases. For the analysis, experts compare the gait of a person seen in CCTV footage from the crime spot with a sample of the suspect’s walk. Using computer software, the two images are compared.
In India, police have relied on the gait test in a few other cases previously.
The degree of uniqueness of a person’s gait compared with other, more precise parameters used to establish identity, such as fingerprints or a DNA test, is yet to be established.

Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 12

Mauna Loa Atmospheric Baseline Observatory, recently seen in news is located in

Detailed Solution for Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 12

Carbon dioxide measured at the Mauna Loa Atmospheric Baseline Observatory, Hawaii, run by the US National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), peaked for 2022 at 421 parts per million in May.

Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 13

Consider the following statements regarding Sustainable Electronics Recycling International (SERI).

  1. SERI is the UNEP backed organization focused exclusively on minimizing the environmental and health risks posed by used and end-of-life electronics.
  2. R2 (Responsible Recycling) Standard is created for the electronics recycling industry by SERI.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 13
  • SERI is the only multi-stakeholder, collaborative nonprofit organization in the world focused exclusively on minimizing the environmental and health risks posed by used and end-of-life electronics.
  • SERI works to create a world where electronic products are reused and recycled in a way that results in resource preservation, the well-being of the environment, and the health and safety of workers and communities.
  • Recognizing the environmental, economic, and social benefits of reuse, the R2 Standard was written in a way that allows for more opportunities to extend the useful life of electronic devices.
Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 14

Consider the following statements.

  1. Hate Speech refers to an incitement to hatred primarily against a group of persons defined in terms of race, ethnicity and gender.
  2. At present there are no provisions in the Indian Penal Code to penalize hate speech.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 14

Hate Speech as defined by the 267th report of the Law Commission of India is “an incitement to hatred primarily against a group of persons defined in terms of race, ethnicity, gender, sexual orientation, religious belief and the like”.

Under Indian Penal Code:

  • Sections 153A and 153B of the IPC: Punishes acts that cause enmity and hatred between two groups.
  • Section 295A of the IPC: Deals with punishing acts which deliberately or with malicious intention outrage the religious feelings of a class of persons.
  • Sections 505(1) and 505(2): Make the publication and circulation of content which may cause ill-will or hatred between different groups an offence.
Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 15

Consider the following statements.

  1. Alzheimer’s Disease which is an age-related disease, is the main and major cause of dementia.
  2. Dementia is a group of symptoms that affect memory and thinking and interfere with daily life.
  3. Currently there is no treatment to reduce the symptoms of dementia.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 15

Dementia is a group of symptoms that affect memory and thinking and interfere with daily life. Alzheimer’s Disease is the main and major cause of dementia. Treatments to reduce the symptoms and progression of dementia can be clinical, or methods such as practising yoga, breathing exercises, brisk walking and listening to tuneful music. It is an age-related disease, affecting over 55 million people across the world. The National Health Portal of India says that as per the Census 2011, dementia affects 2.7% of the 65 million Indian Senior Citizens over 65 years of age.

Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 16

Special Drawing Rights (SDR) can be used to

  1. Supplement IMF member countries’ official reserves.
  2. Settle Balance of Payment transactions
  3. Fund infrastructure projects

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 16
  • The SDR is neither a currency nor a claim on the IMF. Rather, it is a potential claim on the freely usable currencies of IMF members. SDRs can be exchanged for these currencies. It cannot be used to fund infrastructure projects as it is not a currency. Same goes for settling domestic financial bills of the government.
  • SDR allocations can play a role in providing liquidity and supplementing member countries’ official reserves.
  • IMF member countries can borrow SDRs from its reserves at favourable interest rates, mostly to adjust their balance of payments to favourable positions.
Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 17

Consider the following statements.

  1. RBI raise the cost of money as well as cut down the amount of money in the financial system to control retail inflation.
  2. Since Jan 2019, retail inflation in India has been above the RBI’s target rate of 4%.
  3. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the RBI sits once every two months to review its policy stance.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 17

RBI will raise the cost of money (that is, raise the interest rate) as well as cut down the amount of money in the financial system (that is, curb the liquidity) in a bid to control retail inflation.

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the RBI sits once every two months — typically in February, April, June, August, October and December — to review its policy stance. Once in a while, in times of emergency, as it happened in early 2020 when Covid broke, the RBI meets off-cycle and announces a tweak to its policy stance.

Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 18

Consider the following statements.

  1. The Bhakti movement started earlier and got well established first in North India and much later in South India.
  2. During Bhakti movement, many of the poet-saints were preaching for abolishing the Varna system.
  3. One school within the Bhakti movement was the Nirguni tradition, according to which God was understood to be universal and formless being.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 18
  • The Bhakti movement, which began in the 7th century in South India, had begun to spread across north India in the 14th and the 15th centuries. The movement was characterized by popular poet-saints who sang devotional songs to God in vernacular languages, with many preaching for the abolishing the Varna system and some kind of Hindu-Muslim unity. They emphasized an intense emotional attachment with God.
  • One school within the Bhakti movement was the Nirguni tradition and Sant Kabir was a prominent member of it. In this tradition, God was understood to be a universal and formless being.
Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 19

Consider the following statements regarding the phenomenon of “Gravitational lensing”.

  1. A gravitational lens can occur when a huge amount of matter, like a cluster of galaxies, creates a gravitational field that distorts and magnifies the light from distant galaxies that are behind it but in the same line of sight.
  2. Gravitational lenses act like natural cosmic telescopes.
  3. Gravitational lensing is opposite to the Einstein’s theory of general relativity.
  4. More massive the object, the stronger is its gravitational field.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 19
  • The phenomenon of gravitational lensing occurs when a huge amount of matter, such as a massive galaxy, cluster of galaxies or a black hole, creates a gravitational field that distorts and magnifies the light from objects behind it.
  • Gravitational lensing is based on Einstein’s theory of general relativity (Mass bend light).
  • Normal lenses such as the ones in a magnifying glass work by bending light rays that pass through them in a process known as refraction, in order to focus the light somewhere else.
  • Similarly, the gravitational field of a massive object causes light rays passing close to that object to be bent and refocused somewhere else.
  • The more massive the object, the stronger its gravitational field and hence the greater the bending of light rays – just like using denser materials to make optical lenses results in a greater amount of refraction.
  • In effect, gravitational lenses act like natural cosmic telescopes.
Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 20

Consider the following statements.

  1. Massive stars with masses around 10-25 times the mass of the Sun collapse and shrink to form neutron stars.
  2. A small number of neutron stars become magnetars which possess intense magnetic field.
  3. There are millions of magnetars been spotted within the Milky Way Galaxy.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 20

How magnetars form?
During the course of their evolution, massive stars – with masses around 10-25 times the mass of the Sun – eventually collapse and shrink to form very compact objects called neutron stars. A subset of these neutron stars are the so-called magnetars which possess intense magnetic fields. These are highly dense and have breathtakingly high rotation speeds – they have rotational periods that can be just 0.3 to 12.0 seconds.

Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 21

Consider the following statements regarding Anti-dumping duty.

  1. Anti-dumping measures are taken to ensure fair trade for domestic industries.
  2. Anti-dumping duty is meant for level playing field between domestic producers of a product and foreign producers of the same product who can afford to sell it at a lower price because of the subsidy they receive from their government.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 21
  • Anti-dumping duty is different from countervailing duty. The countervailing duty is imposed in order to counter the negative impact of import subsidies to protect domestic producers.
  • Countervailing Duties (CVDs) are tariffs levied on imported goods to offset subsidies made to producers of these goods in the exporting country.
  • CVDs are meant to level the playing field between domestic producers of a product and foreign producers of the same product who can afford to sell it at a lower price because of the subsidy they receive from their government.
  • Anti-dumping duty is a customs duty on imports providing a protection against the dumping of goods at prices substantially lower than the normal value whereas Countervailing duty is a customs duty on goods that have received government subsidies in the originating or exporting country.
  • Anti-dumping measures are taken to ensure fair trade and provide a level playing field to the domestic industry. 
Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 22

Consider the following statements.

  1. A key pillar of democratic governance is citizens’ power to question the state.
  2. The Companies Act that mandates corporates to pay at least 2% of their net profits before tax to the development activities is a case of state-driven governance mechanism promoting collaboration among non-state actors.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 22
  • Section 135 of the Companies Act mandates corporates who are beyond a certain level of profits and turnover to pay at least 2% of their net profits before tax to the development space. This law gives corporates the necessary impetus to collaborate with non-state actors like Non-Governmental Organisations (NGOs) and Civil Society Organisations (CSOs). This is a classic case of state-driven governance mechanism promoting collaboration among non-state actors.
  • A key pillar of democratic governance is citizens’ power to question the state.
Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 23

Which of the following countries does not border Saudi Arabia?

  1. Egypt
  2. Iran
  3. Sudan
  4. Jordan

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 23

Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 24

The Gulf located between Sweden and Finland is 

Detailed Solution for Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 24

The Gulf of Bothnia is the northernmost arm of the Baltic Sea. It is situated between Finland’s west coast and Sweden’s east coast. In the south of the gulf lie the Åland Islands, between the Sea of Åland and the Archipelago Sea.

Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 25

India Meteorological Department (IMD) relies on which of the following criteria to declare the onset of monsoon?

  1. Rainfall
  2. Windspeeds
  3. Outgoing Longwave Radiation

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for Test: June 2022 Weekly Current Affair - 1 - Question 25

Rainfall is not the only criteria that the IMD relies on to declare the monsoon’s onset. Windspeeds of a minimum strength and depth in the atmosphere, the Outgoing Longwave Radiation — a measure of cloudiness — and rainfall appearing to be consistent and well distributed over Kerala, are important criteria.

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