Daily Current Affairs MCQ- June 30, 2022 - UPSC MCQ

• Under Article 174, a governor shall summon the House at a time and place, as she or he thinks fit.
  • Article 174 (2) (a) says a governor may from “time to time” prorogue the House and 174 (2) (b) allows her or him to dissolve the Legislative Assembly. Hence, statement 1 is correct
  • Article 163 says the governor shall exercise her or his functions with the aid and advice of the council of ministers.
• Usually, the two Articles — 174 and 163 — are read together to outline the governor’s powers in summoning, proroguing or dissolving the House.
  • According to Article 175(2), the Governor can summon the House and call for a floor test to prove whether the government has the numbers. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • The floor test is a term used for the test majority of the ruling government. If there are doubts against the Chief Minister (CM) of a State, he/she can be asked by the Governor to prove the majority in the House.
• The speaker of the state legislative assembly is elected by the ruling state government and Not by the Governor. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

• Recently, the Minster of Home Affairs and Cooperation has addressed a conclave, organised by the National Federation of Urban Cooperative Banks and Credit Societies (NAFCUB), emphasizing the needed Reforms for Urban Cooperative Banks (UCB).
  • It is an institution established on a cooperative basis to deal with the ordinary banking business. Cooperative banks are founded by collecting funds through shares, accepting deposits, and granting loans.
• They are governed by:
  • Banking Regulations Act, 1949.
  • Banking Laws (Co-operative Societies) Act, 1955.
  • Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• They are registered under the Cooperative Societies Act of the State concerned or the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• They are broadly divided into Urban and Rural cooperative banks. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

• During the ongoing Russia Ukraine conflict, Ukraine has caused significant losses to the Russian military in airstrikes on Zmiinyi Island, also known as Snake Island, in the Black Sea.
  • Zmiinyi Island, also known as Snake or Serpent Island, is a small piece of rock less than 700 metres from end to end, that has been described as being X-shaped. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.
• It is located 35 km from the coast in the Black Sea (and not in Mediterranean Sea), to the east of the mouth of the Danube and roughly southwest of the port city of Odessa. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Tungabhadra River

• It is a sacred river in southern India that flows through the state of Karnataka to Andhra Pradesh. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The ancient name of the river was Pampa.
• It is formed by the confluence of two rivers, the Tunga River and the Bhadra River. Both Tunga & Bhadra Rivers originate on the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats.
• The greater part of the Tungabhadra’s course lies in the southern part of the Deccan plateau. The river is fed mainly by rain, and it has a monsoonal regimen with high summer water.
• Its Major tributaries are the Bhadra, the Haridra, the Vedavati, the Tunga, the Varda and the Kumdavathi. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It flows in a more or less northwest direction before joining the eastern river Krishna. The Krishna River finally ends into the Bay of Bengal.

• The Tapas Majumdar Committee (1999) encompassed the insertion of Article 21A.
  • In 1993, the Supreme Court’s landmark judgement in the Unnikrishnan JP vs State of Andhra Pradesh & Others held that Education is a Fundamental right flowing from Article 21.
  • The 86^th amendment to the constitution of India in 2002, provided Right to Education as a fundamental right in part-III of the Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Right to Education a fundamental right for children between 6-14 years.
  • Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • India became one of 135 countries to make education a fundamental right of every child when the act came into force on 1 April 2010.
  • The Title of the RTE Act incorporates the words ‘free and compulsory’.

• The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is the apex statutory body for disaster management in India.
  • The NDMA was formally constituted on 27^th September 2006, in accordance with the Disaster Management Act, 2005 with the Prime Minister as its Chairperson and nine other members, and one such member to be designated as Vice-Chairperson. Hence, statement 1 and statement 2 are not correct.
• Its primary purpose is to coordinate response to natural or man-made disasters and for capacity-building in disaster resiliency and crisis response. It is also the apex body to lay down policies, plans and guidelines for Disaster Management to ensure timely and effective response to disasters.

• Recently, the government has launched the pilot phase of Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) with an aim to “democratise” the country’s fast growing digital e-commerce space
• It is a not-for-profit organization that will offer a network to enable local digital commerce stores across industries to be discovered and engaged by any network-enabled applications. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It is neither an aggregator application nor a hosting platform, and all existing digital commerce applications and platforms can voluntarily choose to adopt and be a part of the ONDC network. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The project to integrate e-commerce platforms through a network based on open-source technology has been tasked to the Quality Council of India.
  • The Quality Council of India (QCI) set up in 1997 is an autonomous body attached to the Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion, Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Urban (PMAYU)

• It falls under the Government’s mission - Housing for All by 2022 for urban housing being implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It makes home loans affordable for the urban poor by providing a subsidy on the Interest Rate of a home loan during repayment by way of EMI (Equated Monthly Installments).
• Beneficiaries:
  • The Mission addresses urban housing shortage among the Economically Weaker Section/ Low Income Group (EWS/LIG) and Middle Income Group (MIG) categories including the slum dwellers. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Niti Aayog, the Government of India's think tank, recently released a report titled "India's Booming Gig and Platform Economy."

Gig economy:

• Temporary, flexible jobs are common in a gig economy and companies prefer to hire independent contractors and freelancers over full-time employees.
• A gig economy results in cheaper, more efficient services for those willing to use them, such as Uber or Airbnb.
• A gig economy undermines the traditional economy of full-time workers, who frequently prioritise career advancement.
• People who do not use technological services like the internet may miss out on the benefits of the gig economy.

Hence both statements are correct.

The Central Advisory Board on Disability asked States and Union Territories to identify public buildings that were yet to be made accessible by July 31 and seek an extension if required, according to a statement by the Social Justice and Empowerment Ministry.

• The CAB, which is required by the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 to meet once in six months, held its fifth meeting recently. The last meeting was in 2020.
• Fifth Meeting of the Central Advisory Board on Disability was held at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi under the chairmanship of Dr. Virendra Kumar, Minister, Social Justice and Empowerment.
• The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 provides a timeline of five years for making all existing public buildings accessible by 14.06.2022.

Hence both statements are correct.