SBI Clerk Mains Mock Test - 2 - Bank Exams MCQ

The correct answer is Anti-Lock Braking System.
In News

• MoRTH notified draft rules mandating ABS on all two-wheelers from Jan 1, 2026, plus two protective helmets with BIS certification at purchase.

Explanation

• The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH), notified draft rules which mandated all two-wheelers manufactured on and after January 1, 2026, to be fitted with Anti-Lock Braking System (ABS)
• ABS aims to improve road safety and prevent accidents by avoiding wheel lock-up during braking.
• Helmets provided at purchase must meet Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) specs.
• 20% of 151,997 road accidents in 2022 involved two-wheelers; deaths from two-wheeler crashes rose 8%—nearly 75,000 lives lost, 44% of total deaths.
• Mandate expected to increase vehicle cost but enhance safety and reduce fatalities.
• Draft rules also boost awareness about correct helmet usage.
• MoRTH’s guidelines underscore focus on crash protection and safe transport.

The correct answer is Apply online on the NTMS portal.
In News

• MoEFCC issues Model Rules for tree felling on farmland to promote agroforestry and simplify regulations.

Explanation

• The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), Government of India (GOI) has issued “Model Rules for Felling of Trees in Agricultural Lands” in a bid to promote agroforestry and simplify regulations for farmers to all states and Union Territories (UTs).
• Farmers are required to register their plantations on the National Timber Management System (NTMS) portal by submitting land ownership details, location coordinates using KML files, information on tree species, planting dates, and the total number of saplings.
• For felling more than 10 trees, farmers must apply online on the NTMS portal.
• For 10 or fewer trees, only uploading tree photos is required online.
• A State Level Committee (SLC) supervises rule implementation including revenue and agriculture officials.
• The rules encourage agroforestry and aim to reduce farmer regulatory burdens.
• The guidelines are framed under the Wood-Based Industries Guidelines, 2016.
• The registration process uses KML files for exact location coordinates.

The correct answer is Meghdoot Millennium.
In News

• Indian Army Postal Service Corps launched Meghdoot Millennium, an army-tailored postal software, inaugurated by Vandita Kaul & Lt Gen VMB Krishnan.

Explanation

• Indian Army Postal Service Corps launched Meghdoot Millennium, an Army-tailored postal software.
• Meghdoot Millennium is an advanced software solution for military postal services.
• Aligned with the Indian Army’s ‘Year of Reforms’ strategy for technological enhancement.
• Streamlines the management and distribution of post for Army units and personnel.
• Enhances efficiency, security, and reliability of postal transactions in defence settings.
• Supports digital transformation for operational excellence in logistics and communication.
• Launch showcased leadership commitment to modernization and self-reliance.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 3.
Explanation

• Statement 1 – Correct: In August 2025, UPI processed over 20 billion transactions (20.01 billion), amounting to ₹24.85 lakh crore in total value.
• Statement 2 – Incorrect: UPI saw a 33% year-on-year transaction growth (not 18%), with July’s value at ₹25.08 lakh crore and not ₹26 lakh crore.
• Statement 3 – Correct: The platform recorded an average daily value of ₹80,177 crore in August, and daily transactions surpassed 700 million on certain days.
• This rapid growth highlights the increasing popularity and scalability of UPI as a national digital payments backbone.
• NPCI is the governing body overseeing UPI operations and innovation.

Additional Information

• UPI (Unified Payments Interface)
  • Launched by NPCI in 2016
  • Instant money transfers 24x7
• NPCI
  • National Payments Corporation of India
  • Founded in 2008
  • HQ - Mumbai
• UPI supports bank-to-bank, peer-to-peer, and merchant payments across multiple apps and platforms.
• UPI’s interoperability and low-cost transactions drive digital payments adoption in India.

The correct answer is Arunachal Scouts.
In News

• India-Mongolia Exercise ‘NOMADIC ELEPHANT 2025’ held in Ulaanbaatar; majority of Indian participants were from ARUNACHAL SCOUTS.

Explanation

• 17th edition of Exercise NOMADIC ELEPHANT was hosted in Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia.
• It was a bilateral exercise between Indian and Mongolian armies, focused on tactical and special operations.
• India sent 45 army personnel, primarily from Arunachal Scouts regiment.
• Mongolia contributed 150 Special Forces troops.
• Last edition was held in Umroi, Meghalaya in 2024; first edition was in 2004.
• Such exercises enhance military cooperation and strengthen defence ties between the two countries.

Additional Information

• Arunachal Scouts: Specialized battalion of the Indian Army raised to operate in mountainous Arunachal Pradesh.
• Joint Military Exercises build interoperability, trust, and friendship between nations.
• Ulaanbaatar: Capital of Mongolia, venue for major international events.
• Special Forces: Elite troops prepared for covert, high-risk missions.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.
Explanation

• The Ministry of Heavy Industries (MHI) has notified detailed guidelines for the ‘Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Electric Passenger Cars in India (SPMEPCI)’.
• Statement 1 – Correct: The scheme enables import of up to 8,000 completely built e-4Ws yearly, above a USD 35,000 threshold, at a reduced 15% customs duty for five years.
• Statement 2 – Correct: Applicants must invest a minimum of ₹4,150 crore (USD 500 million) within three years of approval.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect: The target for net-zero emissions in India’s climate plan is 2070, not 2050.
• The scheme balances foreign market access with domestic value addition and phased local manufacturing.
• It supports ‘Make in India’ and ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’ with an EV technology transfer approach.
• The program runs parallel to FAME and other automotive sector transformation policies.

Additional Information

• Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Electric Passenger Cars in India (SPMEPCI)
  • Announced: March 2024
  • Guidelines: June 2025.
  • Import duty concession is strictly for EVs with significant technology and value limits.
  • Applicants must meet domestic value addition milestones and incentives are performance linked.
  • India’s Net Zero year is 2070 as per official UNFCCC commitment.
  • The scheme aims to establish India as a global EV manufacturing and research hub.
  • Import duty concession limit - The total duty foregone is required to be limited to either Rs 6,484 crore or committed investment of the applicant (minimum Rs 4150 crore), whichever is lower
  • Domestic Value Addition - It is mandatory for approved applicants to achieve minimum Domestic Value Addition (DVA) of 25% within 3 years and 50% within 5 years from the date of issuance of approval letter by MHI or Project Management Agency (PMA)
  • Eligible Expenditure - Investment in new plant, machinery, Research & Development (R&D) facilities, and a capped percentage of building (not more than 10% of committed investment) and charging infrastructure (maximum 5%)will be considered as expenditure. Land cost will be excluded.

The correct answer is Rs 1 lakh.
Explanation

• Part A offers the first-time employees registered with the Employees’ Provident Fund Organization (EPFO), will be offered a one-month EPF wage up to Rs.15,000 in two installments.
• The first instalment will be paid after 6 months of service and the second instalment will be paid after 12 months of service and completion of a financial literacy programme by the employee.
• To encourage the saving habit, a portion of the incentive will be kept in a savings instrument or deposit account for a fixed period and can be withdrawn by the employee later.
• Eligibility for Part A: Employees with salaries up to Rs 1 lakh qualify for incentives.
• Payments are made directly via DBT using Aadhaar Bridge Payment System.
• To encourage savings, part of the incentive is held in a savings instrument for later withdrawal.
• Part B: The government will incentivize employers, up to Rs.3,000 per month, for two years, for each additional employee with sustained employment for at least six months.
• For the manufacturing sector, incentives will be extended to the 3rd and 4th year as well.
• Employers must hire at least two/five additional employees for incentive eligibility, depending on establishment size.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 3.
Explanation

• Statement 1 – Correct: Yashasvi Solanki is the first woman Navy officer to be posted as ADC to the President.
• Statement 2 – Incorrect: She was appointed after a selection process overseen by the President, not directly by the Prime Minister’s Office, and did not replace the Army’s ADC.
• Statement 3 – Correct: The selection involved a multi-stage evaluation at Rashtrapati Bhavan and a final interview with the President.
• An ADC acts as a personal assistant and liaison for the President on ceremonial and administrative matters.
• The usual complement of ADCs includes three from the Army, and one each from the Navy and Air Force.
• Her appointment marks a significant step toward gender equality in armed forces roles.

Additional Information

• An ADC’s term typically lasts 2.5-3 years.
• The appointment highlights the increasing representation of women in the Indian military.
• Rigorous service record, leadership, and adaptability are key selection criteria for ADC roles.
• President Droupadi Murmu’s tenure has emphasized the empowerment of women in high-profile government appointments.
• The role involves protocol duties, event coordination, and daily assistance to the President.

The correct answer is Rajat Patidar; Punjab Kings.
Explanation

• Royal Challengers Bengaluru (RCB) won their first-ever IPL title with Rajat Patidar as captain, claiming victory by six runs over Punjab Kings in the final match of the 2025 season.
• This was RCB’s first crown in 18 editions of IPL, marking the end of a long-standing title drought.
• The title win showcased the emergence of Rajat Patidar as an inspiring new leader for the Bengaluru side, following the eras of Virat Kohli and other greats.
• RCB scored 190/9 and Punjab Kings managed 184/7 in a tightly contested final at the Narendra Modi Stadium, Ahmedabad.
• The win was celebrated passionately by fans who had waited nearly two decades for their team’s triumph in the cash-rich T20 league.
• The 2025 IPL saw competitive matches and new heroes, reinforcing its status as one of the world’s leading franchise cricket tournaments.

Additional Information

• The 2025 IPL was the 18th edition with 10 teams, 74 matches, and a group stage plus playoff format.
• Final held at the Narendra Modi Stadium, Ahmedabad; the world’s largest cricket arena.
• RCB received ₹20 crore; Punjab Kings received ₹12.5 crore as runner-up.
• The tournament is world-renowned for player auctions, high viewership, and lucrative sponsorship.
• Several emerging and established players made their mark in the title-winning campaign.
• About Indian Premier League
  • Started in 2008
  • Most successful Chennai Super Kings & Mumbai Indians (5 titles each)
  • Most runs Virat Kohli
  • Most wickets Yuzvendra Chahal
  • 2024 winner Kolkata Knight Riders (3)

The correct answer is Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited.
Explanation

• ‘Udaygiri’ was constructed and delivered by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL), a leading public sector shipyard in Mumbai recognized for building advanced naval platforms for the Indian Navy.
• This stealth frigate is part of Project 17A, a major program involving the construction of seven next-generation frigates designed for blue water operations, enhancing the Navy’s capability to handle both conventional and non-conventional threats in open seas.
• Project 17A frigates are successor vessels to the Shivalik-class under Project 17, featuring improved design, stealth, and automation, and have been engineered by the Warship Design Bureau (WDB) in collaboration with MDL and Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE).
• MDL’s delivery of Udaygiri reflects the growing self-reliance in Indian naval manufacturing, supporting indigenous defense initiatives through advanced production and quality assurance processes.
• The first ship under Project 17A, INS Nilgiri, was delivered by GRSE Kolkata in December 2020, showing multi-shipyard collaboration in this strategic program.
• The arrival of Udaygiri is a key milestone towards strengthening the Western Fleet and enhancing India’s operational reach in the Indian Ocean region.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.
Explanation

• Statement 1 – Correct: The Army is now raising the first lot of five 'Bhairav' light commando battalions, each with 250 specially trained and equipped soldiers, to enhance swift strike capabilities along the borders with Pakistan and China by October 31.
• Statement 2 – Correct: The Army plans a total of 23 battalions to enhance quick reaction and border protection; these units bridge the gap between general infantry and Para-SF.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect: The first battalions are mainly in Northern, Western (desert), and Eastern sectors, not exclusively in south or east.
• Three of the first five 'Bhairav' units are coming up under the Army's crucial Udhampur-based Northern Command, one each for the 14 Corps at Leh, 15 Corps at Srinagar, and 16 Corps at Nagrota.
• The fourth unit is in the desert terrain of the western sector and the fifth in the hilly terrain of the eastern sector.
• Bhairav commandos are being drawn from the regular infantry battalions under a "save and raise" policy.
• The new units will operate in diverse environments from deserts to hill terrain.

The correct answer is Rs. 5,00,000.
Explanation

• The DICGC provides deposit insurance up to a maximum of Rs. 5,00,000 per depositor per bank.
• This insurance covers both principal and interest amounts for deposits like savings, fixed, and current accounts.
• The premium for this insurance is paid by the banks, not the depositors.
• Commercial banks, foreign bank branches, and regional rural banks are insured by the DICGC.
• The DICGC was established in 1978 under the DICGC Act, 1961, to provide insurance for depositors.
• The DICGC also guarantees credit facilities for banks and provides a safety net for depositors in case of bank failures.

Other Related Points

• DICGC
  • Founded in 1978, subsidiary of RBI.
  • Provides insurance for deposits up to Rs. 5 lakh.
• RBI
  • Established in 1935, central bank of India.
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • Responsible for monetary policy, currency issuance, and managing India's financial system.
• Premium
  • Banks pay premiums to DICGC, not the individual depositor.

The correct answer is D Gukesh.
Explanation

• D Gukesh secured an outstanding victory against reigning chess world champion Magnus Carlsen, marking his first-ever win in classical format at the prestigious Norway Chess tournament.
• This achievement is a landmark in Gukesh’s career, demonstrating his growth and competitive edge against the world’s top-ranked player.
• Gukesh is recognized as India’s youngest ever Grandmaster and continues to make rapid progress on the global chess circuit.
• His win over Carlsen is celebrated as a historic moment for Indian chess and signals a new wave of youthful excellence in the sport.
• Norway Chess is considered one of the toughest international tournaments attracting leading grandmasters each year.
• Gukesh’s performance in Norway Chess 2025 earned accolades from the chess fraternity and boosted his ranking on the international stage.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 3.
Explanation

• Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi virtually inaugurated ‘Bihar Rajya Jeevika Nidhi Saakh Sahkari Sangh Limited (BRJNSSSL)’, a new cooperative initiative aimed at providing affordable credit to rural women entrepreneurs.
• Statement 1 – Correct: The Prime Minister transferred Rs. 105 crore directly into the bank account of Jeevika Nidhi to mark the initiation of operations.
• Statement 2 – Incorrect: The cooperative is not designed for corporates or industrial groups. Its sole focus remains on poor and rural women entrepreneurs.
• Statement 3 – Correct: The cooperative’s mandate is to serve as a credit body to advance self-employment and entrepreneurship among rural women in Bihar.
• The initiative will help reduce dependence on local moneylenders charging exorbitant interest rates.
• It aligns with broader national goals of financial inclusion and rural entrepreneurship development.
• It reflects cooperative models introduced across India to supplement banking systems in underbanked regions.

Other Related Points

• Cooperative Societies: Member-owned institutions providing collective credit and services.
• NABARD: Apex institution for rural development financing in India, supports Self-Help Groups (SHGs).
• Women SHGs (Self-Help Groups) like Jeevika in Bihar have been critical in women’s empowerment.
• PM has often stressed strengthening cooperative models under schemes like Amrit Kaal Vision-2047.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 3.
Explanation

• Statement 1 Correct: The Flipkart SBI Credit Card was jointly launched by SBI Card & Payment Services Limited and Flipkart, specifically to enhance digital retail spending.
• Statement 2 Incorrect: The focus of the card is not travel, but offering attractive benefits in e-commerce categories like online shopping, cashback rewards, and EMI conversions.
• Statement 3Correct: The card is powered by both Mastercard and Visa, offering wider card acceptance and seamless features internationally.
• This collaboration enhances the ecosystem value for India’s growing credit card market and e-commerce users.
• The move is strategic as Flipkart hosts millions of active customers, providing greater card adoption potential.

Additional Information

• SBI Card: Established in 1998
  • HQ: Gurugram, Haryana.
• Flipkart: Established in 2007
  • HQ: Bengaluru
• Current Walmart-owned e-commerce giant.
• The co-branded credit card trend in India provides customers with industry-specific perks through partnerships.
• By 2025, India has seen over 100 million credit card users, with co-branded cards accounting for rapid market adoption.

The correct answer is United States and United Kingdom.
Explanation

• India today stands third globally in fintech startup funding, trailing only the United States and the United Kingdom in terms of total investment for H1 2025, reflecting its growing innovation ecosystem and investor interest in financial technology solutions.
• The sector attracted USD 889 million from January to June 2025; this marked a 26% decline from the previous half-year (USD 1.2 billion in H2 2024) and a 5% decrease from the same period last year (USD 936 million in H1 2024).
• Despite this drop in overall funding, the report noted a 10% increase in early-stage investments signaling ongoing optimism among venture capitalists for new market entrants and innovations.
• Seed-stage startups collectively raised USD 91.2 million, indicating robust but selective support for disruptive fintech ideas in a competitive landscape.
• Bengaluru retained its leadership position in India’s fintech funding, accounting for 55% of total investments, followed by Mumbai at 14%.
• The report shows India’s fintech market remains vibrant and is a significant contributor to the global digital economy.

• The given word in the question is 'transformative', which means causing a marked change in someone or something. 
  • For Example: The transformative power of education is well recognized.
• The word 'Revolutionary', which is a synonym for 'transformative', means causing or relating to a great or complete change.
  • For Example: The invention of the internet was a revolutionary event in human history.
• Hence, the correct synonym for 'transformative' is 'revolutionary'.

• Prosaic refers to having the style or diction of prose; lacking poetic beauty; common or unromantic.
• Monotonous refers to being dull, tedious, and repetitious, lacking in variety and interest. 
• Apathetic refers to showing or feeling no interest, enthusiasm, or concern. 
• Cursory refers to haste and is therefore not thorough or detailed.

The correct answer is 'Restrained'.
Explanation

• The original word in question is 'proliferated', which means to increase rapidly in numbers or to spread quickly. 
  • Example: The use of smartphones has proliferated in the last decade.
• 'Restrained' is an antonym for the word 'proliferated'. The word 'restrained' means to keep under control or within limits, and hence implies limiting or restricting the spread or increase.
  • Example: The government reacted swiftly and restrained the spread of the false news.
• Hence, the correct antonym for 'proliferated' is 'restrained'.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.
Additional Information

• 'Amplified' denotes increasing the volume or strength of something hence it can't serve as an antonym for 'proliferated'.
• Similarly, 'Multiplied' signifies increasing or growing by multiplication and cannot act as an antonym for 'proliferated'.
• 'Propagated' involves reproducing, spreading or promoting widely  and hence, it does not contradict the meaning of 'proliferated'.
• 'Spread' directly refers to the diffusion or distribution of something over a wide area. Thus, it is not suitable as an antonym for 'proliferated'.

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. only 3.
Explanation

• The phrase that can connect both the given sentences and imply the same meaning is the third one.
• The other two phrases are incorrect and cannot form a contextually and grammatically correct sentence.

The sentence after using the phrase is With personalised service and preventative measures, you can get ahead of problems before they actually happen.

The correct answer is function.
Explanation

• function - an activity that is natural to or the purpose of a person or thing.

Additional Information
Let us look at the meaning of the other words:

• ceremony - a formal religious or public occasion, especially one celebrating a particular event, achievement, or anniversary.
• ritual - a religious or solemn ceremony consisting of a series of actions performed according to a prescribed order.
• formal - done in accordance with convention or etiquette; suitable for or constituting an official or important occasion.
• traditional - existing in or as part of a tradition; long-established.

Mistake Point

• At first glance, we may think that all given options are related or synonymous to the word ceremony.
• Function has two meanings:
  • an activity that is natural to or the purpose of a person or thing.
  • a large or formal social event or ceremony.
• The given sentence talks about how certain technology is exportable which means that it can be taken anywhere in the world.
• This implies that it can work anywhere in the world. The first meaning hence becomes applicable in this case.
• This makes function the correct word for the given blank.

The correct answer is Only 2 and 3 i.e. are reportedly lobbying with the government to make sure & these currencies are regulated rather than banned outright.
Explanation

• In the sentence, the rule of subject-verb agreement is working here.
  • Subject-verb Agreement- If the subject is singular then the verb is singular and if the 
  • Subject is plural then the verb is plural.
• In the sentence, Cryptocurrency exchange is a plural noun therefore will require a plural verb.
• Therefore, is in the second part of the sentence "is" needs to be replaced with are.
• The context of this sentence represents the present continuous tense, therefore, were in the third part of the sentence is needed to be replaced with are.

The Correct Option is – 3.
Explanation

• The first sentence of a paragraph introduces a topic.
• The second sentence usually provides more information about the first.
• Here, the second sentence mentions the impact of a plane crash, and only sentence R mentions a plane crashing into the World Trade Center building.

So, R must be the first sentence.

• The third sentence must logically follow from the second sentence.
• Only sentence T mentions the aftermath of the plane crash – the evacuation of people from the building.

So, T must be the third sentence.

• The fourth sentence must follow from the third.
• Only sentence P mentions another plane crash 18 minutes later – into the South Tower of the World Trade Center building.

So, P must be the fourth sentence.

• Sixth and seventh sentences would follow the earlier sentences, with the last giving some kind of conclusion to the above sentences.
• Out of the remaining sentences, S mentions that the ‘hijackers’ were Islamic terrorists and Q concludes by giving the reasons for the attack.

So, S must be the sixth sentence while Q is the last sentence of the paragraph.
The correct order is: RTPSQ or R2TP5SQ

The Correct Option is – 5.
Explanation:

• The first sentence of a paragraph introduces a topic.
• The second sentence usually provides more information about the first.
• Here, the second sentence mentions the impact of a plane crash, and only sentence R mentions a plane crashing into the World Trade Center building.

So, R must be the first sentence.

• The third sentence must logically follow from the second sentence.
• Only sentence T mentions the aftermath of the plane crash – the evacuation of people from the building.

So, T must be the third sentence.

• The fourth sentence must follow from the third.
• Only sentence P mentions another plane crash 18 minutes later – into the South Tower of the World Trade Center building.

So, P must be the fourth sentence.

• Sixth and seventh sentences would follow the earlier sentences, with the last giving some kind of conclusion to the above sentences.
• Out of the remaining sentences, S mentions that the ‘hijackers’ were Islamic terrorists and Q concludes by giving the reasons for the attack.

So, S must be the sixth sentence while Q is the last sentence of the paragraph.
The correct order is: RTPSQ or R2TP5SQ

The correct answer is 'Both 2 and 3.'
Explanation

• The given word 'Take off' has two primary meanings:
  • To leave the ground and begin to fly: Used for aircraft.
  • To suddenly start being successful or popular. 
• Example: The band's career really took off after their hit single was played on national radio.
• Let's explain the sentences:
  • Sentence 1 ('Emma certainly takes off her mother in character') is incorrectly using "take off". A better choice could be "takes after", meaning to resemble or behave like, especially with respect to one's parent.
  • Sentence 2 ('As soon as the signal was given, the racers took off') is correctly using "take off", referring to sudden starting or commencing action, like a sprinter beginning a race.
  • Sentence 3 ('When the plane takes off, please ensure your seatbelts are fastened') also correctly employs "take off", in reference to an aircraft leaving the ground and starting to fly.
• Therefore, sentences 2 and 3 best express the meaning of the phrase "take off".
• Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

The correct answer is Only 1.
Explanation

• Connectors are words that demonstrate the connection between ideas in different sentences, paragraphs, or sections.
• In the sentence, it says that they were asked to report to room 201 just when they finished their meals.
• So, the connector which can appropriately connect these two sentences is 'When'. We use when as a conjunction meaning ‘at the time that’. The clause with when is subordinate and needs the main clause to complete its meaning. If the when-clause comes before the main clause, we use a comma.
• So, 'When' is the correct connector for the given sentence.
• The correct sentence will be - They had hardly finished their meals when they were asked to report to room 201.

​ Additional Information

• The types of connectors in English are: coordinating conjunctions, correlative conjunctions, subordinating conjunctions, conductive adverbs and prepositional phrases.
• 'Not only' - To add emphasis, we can use not only at the beginning of a clause.
  • Not only will they eat the burgers but also the fries.
• 'Whereas'- We use the conjunction 'whereas' to indicate a contrast between two facts or ideas.
• Whereas means the same as while in sentences expressing contrasts. It does not mean the same as while when while refers to the time.
  • I like supercomputers whereas my brother likes laptops.

The correct answer is A
Explanation

• Let's see the sentence carefully:
  • In part A of the sentence, an infinitive is used after an adjective i.e. "inappropriate" which means not suitable or proper in the circumstances. Thus, part A is free from any error.
  • The structure for using infinitive after adjective:
    • Subject + to be + adjective + (for/of someone) + to-infinitive + (rest of sentence)
      • Example: It is important to be patient.
  • In part B of the sentence, the usage of made is incorrect because it is succeeding 'to' which makes it an infinitive therefore we need the first form of made with 'to'. Hence, made needs to be replaced with make.
  • In part C of the sentence, the usage of their is incorrect because it is a pronoun and representing seven-judge bench. Here, seven-judge is a compound adjective which is modifying the noun bench which is a collective noun and is singular therefore their needs to be replaced by its.
  • In part D of the sentence the usage of have is incorrect as it is clear with the context of the sentence that the bench is reviewing its judgement which means the judgement is already taken therefore have needs to be replaced with had to show the action of past.

So, the correct sentence is: It is inappropriate for the party to make such promises when a seven-judge bench of the Supreme Court is reviewing its own judgment, which had found the custom related to the entry of women to be unconstitutional.

The Second statement is- B
Explanation
Let's go through all the given statement and identify the introductory statement.

• Since the theme of the paragraph seems to be the approximate number of tigers in the world, C makes for an effective introductory sentence by stating that the exact numbers of tigers are not known.
• B follows C with the conjunction ‘but’ and goes on to give the approximate number of tigers in the world.
• B & E has the common figure of the total number of tigers – while B states the number of tigers in the world, E goes on to add that of this number, a substantial number of tigers are in India.
• 4 & A is a pair. 4 gives the tiger census in India and A goes on to give the percentage figure of the number of tigers in India as compared to the rest of the world.
• F & D is a pair since it talks about states in India that have a tiger population.
• F states that there are 19 states in India with tigers and D concludes the paragraph by stating that Karnataka is the state with the highest tiger population among all Indian states.

The correct order is CBE4AFD.

The Seventh statement is- D
Explanation
Let's go through all the given statement and identify the introductory statement.

• Since the theme of the paragraph seems to be the approximate number of tigers in the world, C makes for an effective introductory sentence by stating that the exact numbers of tigers are not known.
• B follows C with the conjunction ‘but’ and goes on to give the approximate number of tigers in the world.
• B & E has the common figure of the total number of tigers – while B states the number of tigers in the world, E goes on to add that of this number, a substantial number of tigers are in India.
• 4 & A is a pair. 4 gives the tiger census in India and A goes on to give the percentage figure of the number of tigers in India as compared to the rest of the world.
• F & D is a pair since it talks about states in India that have a tiger population.
• F states that there are 19 states in India with tigers and D concludes the paragraph by stating that Karnataka is the state with the highest tiger population among all Indian states.

The correct order is CBE4AFD.

For village A,
Total register voter is 12000.
Total number of people cast their vote 12000 × 60/100 = 7200
Total invalid votes is 7200 × 10/100 = 720
Total valid votes is 7200 - 720 = 6480
Let losing candidates votes is 100x
Wining candidates’ votes is 125x
So, 225x = 6480
Or, x = 28.8
So, losing candidates votes is 2880
Wining candidates’ votes is 125 × 28. 8 = 3600
Similarly we can calculate others values also.

Calculation
The difference between winning and losing candidates' votes for each village:
Village A: 3600 - 2880 = 720
Village B: 5440 – 4080 = 1360
Village C: 3420 – 3040 = 380
Village D: 2700 – 2160 = 540
Village E: 2975 − 2125=850
Minimum difference = 380 in Village C.
Answer: Village C

 For village A,
Total register voter is 12000.
Total number of people cast their vote 12000 × 60/100 = 7200
Total invalid votes is 7200 × 10/100 = 720
Total valid votes is 7200 - 720 = 6480
Let losing candidates votes is 100x
Wining candidates’ votes is 125x
So, 225x = 6480
Or, x = 28.8
So, losing candidates votes is 2880
Wining candidates’ votes is 125 × 28. 8 = 3600
Similarly we can calculate others values also.

Calculation
Let the total population in Village B be P.
Registered voters = 80% of P
Registered voters = [80/100] ×P
P = [ 16000/0.8] ​= 20000
Number of females in Village B:
20000 × 2/5 = 8000
Losing candidate's votes in Village B = 4080
Required ratio:
8000/4080 = 100 : 51