UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 14 - UPSC MCQ

• Bhitarkanika National Park is a large national park in the Indian state of Odisha. It has the habitat type of mangroves and wetlands.

• Blackbuck National Park is a national park in India located at Velavadar in the state of Gujarat.

• The habitat of the park region comprises grasslands, shrublands, saline land, and mudflats.

• Bandipur National Park is a national park covering 868.63 km2 (335.38 sq mi) in the chamarajnagar district of the Indian state of Karnataka. The park has a variety of biomes including dry and moist deciduous forests and shrublands. The wide range of habitats helps support a diverse range of organisms.

• Gangotri National Park is a national park located in the state of Uttarakhand, covering about 2,390 km² (920 sq mi). Its habitat consists of coniferous forests, alpine meadows, and glaciers.

So, Option (b) is correct.

The term liberalism‘ is generally associated with:

• Demands for greater overall equality

• Defense of individual reason and autonomy

• A tool against moral conservatism

• Cosmopolitanism and humanism

• Free markets

The Constitution of India protects Personal/Individual Liberty through the Fundamental Rights such as,

• Article 19(a): Freedom of Speech and Expression which includes Freedom of Press. So, Statement 1 is correct.

• Article 22: Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases that is no person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such arrest nor shall he be denied the right to consult, and to be defended by, a legal practitioner of his choice.So, Statement 2 is correct.

• Article 25: Right to Freedom of Religion where all persons are entitled to freedom of conscience. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct because private investments in Indian agriculture, such as investments made by farmers, have historically been higher than government investments. This is primarily due to the fact that a majority of Indian farmers are small and marginal landowners who invest in their farms through their savings, loans, and other forms of credit.

Statement 2 is also correct. A large majority of Indian agriculturists are small and marginal landowners, often owning less than 2 hectares of land. Due to the small size of their landholdings and the lack of clear land titles, these farmers are often unable to use their land as collateral for credit. As a result, they may struggle to access formal credit channels and are often forced to rely on informal sources of credit, such as moneylenders, at higher interest rates.

Statement 3 is incorrect. While non-institutional lenders, such as moneylenders, do play a significant role in providing credit to farmers in India, the majority of credit creation in the Indian agriculture sector is done by institutional lenders, such as banks and cooperative societies. The government has also been making efforts to expand the reach of institutional credit to farmers through various schemes and initiatives, such as the Kisan Credit Card scheme and the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY).

The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana. (PMMSY) is designed to address critical gaps in fish production and productivity, quality, technology, post-harvest infrastructure and management, modernisation and strengthening of the value chain, traceability, establishing a robust fisheries management framework and fishers‘ welfare. It focuses on the improvement of Mari culture, fishers and fish farmers also. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

The Aims and Objectives of the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) are:

• Harnessing of fisheries potential in a sustainable, responsible, inclusive and equitable manner.

• Enhancing of fish production and productivity through expansion, intensification, diversification and productive utilization of land andwater.

• Modernizing and strengthening of the value chain - post-harvestmanagement and quality improvement.

• Doubling fishers and fish farmers‘ incomes and generation ofemployment.

• Enhancing contribution to Agriculture GVA and exports.

• Social, physical and economic security for fishers and fish farmers.

• Robust fisheries management and regulatory framework

The Palk Bay scheme was launched in 2017 under the umbrella of Blue Revolution to replace 2,000 bottom trawlers with deep-sea fishing boats. The scheme is financed by the Union government (50%), and the state Government (20%) with beneficiary participation (30%). So, Statement 2 is not correct.

GEMINI (Gagan Enabled Mariner‘s Instrument for Navigation & Information)was developed by Hyderabad based Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS). For the dissemination of information on disaster warnings, Potential Fishing Zones (PFZ) and Ocean States Forecasts (OSF) to fishermen, GOI launched the GEMINI device and mobile application. It is not connected to PMMSY. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

• Soil structure is defined by the way individual particles of sand, silt, and clay are assembled. We can improve the structure of soils by adding organic matter in the form of compost or composted manure.

• Soil colour is influenced by its mineral composition as well as water and organic contents. Addition of Organic matter tends to make the soil colour darker. During the Humus formation, the final stage of organic matter breakdown, the colour changes to black. Soil texture is usually defined as the proportions of sand, silt and clay.

• We cannot change soil texture without physically adding or subtracting one of these components. Soil porosity may be altered by the addition of biochar due to the interaction between biochar particles and soil aggregates. So, Option (b) is correct.

• Bio-fertilisers are living microorganisms of bacterial, fungal and algal origin. Their mode of action differs and can be applied alone or in combination.So, Statement 1 is correct and Statement 3 is not correct.

• Pseudomonas and Bacillus species are the predominant plant growth-promoting bacteria. Many heterotrophic bacteria live in the soil and fix significant levels of nitrogen without direct interaction with other organisms. Examples of this type of nitrogen-fixing bacteria include species of Azotobacter, Bacillus, Clostridium, and Klebsiella.

• The application of Bacillus-based fertilizers to soil can enhance the plant-available forms of nutrients in rhizospheres, control disease-causing pathogenic microbial growth and induce pest defence systems.

• Pseudomonas has been reported to have the potential to improve plant biomass, relative water content, leaf water potential and root adhering soil/root tissue ratio. The function of zinc is to help the plant produce chlorophyll.So, Statement 2 is not correct.

• ISRO has made a beginning by developing an eco-friendly solid propellant based on Glycidyl Azide Polymer (GAP) as fuel and Ammonium Di-Nitramide (ADN) as oxidizer at the laboratory level, which will eliminate the emission of chlorinated exhaust products from rocket motors and act as green propellants. So, Statement 1 is correct.

• ISRO has already begun the move towards environment-friendly and green propellants with the acceptance of Liquid Oxygen (LOX)/Liquid Hydrogen (LH2) and LOX/Kerosene-based propulsion systems for launch vehicles, and the use of electric propulsion for spacecraft. The LOX/LH2 in combination produces water so it is environment-friendly and it is already being used in the cryogenic upper stages of GSLV and GSLV Mk-III launch vehicles. So, Statement 2 is correct.

• It is possible to manoeuvre a spacecraft in outer space without using fuel and oxidizer while it is in the coasting period which means the resting time of the flight at the transfer orbit, which helps to move the spacecraft from one orbit to another. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

• In low latitude areas, due to the rainfall,it receives from the Trade winds the eastern part of the continents witnesses the vegetation of Evergreen forest to Deciduous forest to short grasses in the middle area and desert type on the western side. So, Option (a) is not correct.

• In the mid-latitude area, the eastern side has deciduous forest vegetation under the China type of climate, the center part has grassland of Steppe type and the western part of the continent come under the Mediterranean type of climate which has shrubs and bushes due to hot and dry summer with scanty rainfall. So, Option (b) is correct.

• Mostly, north to South at 50 degrees East Longitude covers the area of the desert region, especially in the middle eastern countries. So, Option (c) is not correct.

• In high latitude area, the western part has deciduous forests which comes under the British type of climate but the middle part has evergreen and coniferous forests and the eastern part has mixed forests. So, Option (d) is not correct.

• India, under ‘Operation Dost’ has sent its sixth plane carrying National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) personnel, essentials, and medical equipment for the earthquake-hit Turkey. A field hospital under Operation Dost has been set up by the Indian Army in Hatay province of Turkey. India has also sent a transport aircraft with medical supplies to Syria.

• The earthquake of magnitude 7.7 on the Richter scale hit Turkey and Syria on 6 Feb 2023 followed by a series of aftershocks causing huge devastation, major loss of lives and damage to infrastructure in the two countries.

• Operation Dost symbolises that India is a friend of Turkey and the two must deepen their relations.

• Earlier, the NDRF was sent to two similar international operations – the 2011 Japan triple disaster (earthquake, tsunami and nuclear meltdown) and the 2015 Nepal earthquake. Hence, option C is correct.

• Participation in politics and public offices was largely dominated by men during the course of Indian history. Yet, several women created a direct space for themselves in the political affairs. The most direct and well-known role in this sphere was exercised by Razia Sultan.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Razia Sultan was the first Muslim female ruler of the Delhi Sultanate, who ruled Delhi from 1236 to 1240. Iltutmish nominated Razia as his successor, not the Turkish nobility. Most of the Muslim theologians approved her ascension and many of the Turkish nobility, army and people of Delhi accepted her on the throne. At the same time, many could not reconcile with the idea of a woman ruler. It was due to the prevalent attitude towards gender roles and the resentment against a woman ruler as affairs of sovereignty were thought to be an exclusive male prerogative. In addition to that, the provincial governors, did not have a voice in Razia’s selection and they felt ignored and thus, objected her rule.

• Statement 2 is correct: Owing to the hostilities towards her, in April 1240 CE. Razia had to face the revolt of Altunia, the governor of Tabarhinda (Bathinda). Raziya married Altunia later. It was a purely political move to retrieve her throne and therefore she agreed to the proposal. Thus, it could be said that she entered into matrimonial alliance for political stability of the sultanate.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Battle of Chanderi took place in 1528 CE. This battle was fought between Babur and Medini Rai who was the Rajput ruler of Malwa. There is no role of Razia sultan in the Battle of Chanderi.

• Free Trade Agreement: A free trade agreement is an agreement in which two or more countries agree to provide preferential trade terms, tariff concession etc. to the partner country. Here a negative list of products and services is maintained by the negotiating countries on which the terms of FTA are not applicable hence it is more comprehensive than a preferential trade agreement. India has negotiated FTA with many countries e.g. Sri Lanka and various trading blocs as well e.g. ASEAN. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Preferential Trade Agreement: In this type of agreement, two or more partners give preferential right of entry to certain products. This is done by reducing duties on an agreed number of tariff lines. Here a positive list is maintained i.e. the list of the products to which the two partners have agreed to provide preferential access. Tariffs may even be reduced to zero for some products even in a PTA. Hence, statement 2 is correct. India signed a PTA with Afghanistan. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect

• Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement: A partnership agreement or cooperation agreement is more comprehensive than an FTA. CECA/CEPA also looks into the regulatory aspect of trade and encompasses an agreement covering the regulatory issues. CEPA covers negotiation on the trade in services and investment and other areas of economic partnership. It may even consider negotiation in areas such as trade facilitation and customs cooperation, competition, and IPR. India has signed CEPAs with South Korea and Japan. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

• Statement a is correct: Apabhramsa is an umbrella term which means dialects other than Sanskrit. It represents a transition from Middle to Modern Indo-Aryan Group of languages The word, ‘Apabhramsa’ implies deviation from standard Sanskrit.

• Statement b is correct: Apabhramsha became a literary language and was used to write several texts, legends, etc. The development of ‘Apabhramsa’ (corrupt or non-grammatical) took place by 6th-7th century AD. Apabhramsa developed its own identity by the 7th century AD. This can be highlighted by the fact that Bhamaha, a renowned poet of Kashmir from the 6th or 7th century AD, divided poetry into Sanskrit, Prakrit, and Apabhramsa.

• Statement c is incorrect: By the middle of the second millennium, Apabhramsa and to a lesser degree Prakrit had come to be used almost exclusively by the Jains, whereas brahmanas monopolized Sanskrit. Literary texts in Apabhramsa were produced largely in western India. Dandin defines Apabhramsa as, “What is called ‘Apabhramsa’ is the language of the Abhiras and others when used in literary works. Statement d is correct: In the course of time many spoken forms called “Apabhramsa” developed in different part of the country. These Apabhramsa’s developed into regional languages. Among the Dravidian languages Tamil is the oldest. Medieval period also saw the development of Hindi from the ancient Apabhramsa language. Major texts in Apabhramsa language and writers are: Pushpadanta’s Mahapurana (Digambara Jain text), Dhanapala’s Bhavisayattakaha, etc.

• The Mauryan Empire, which formed around 321 B.C.E. and ended in 185 B.C.E., was the first pan-Indian empire, an empire that covered most of the Indian region. It spanned across central and northern India as well as over parts of modern-day Iran.

• Statement 1 is correct: The most important literary source of the Mauryan period is Megasthenes’ Indica. Megasthenes was a Seleukidian envoy who visited the Mauryan capital Pataliputra during the reign of Chandragupta Maurya. His account, Indica, encapsulates his impressions of India, particularly northern India, under Chandragupta Maurya.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The foundation of the Mauryan empire was laid by Chandragupta Maurya, who overthrew the Nanda dynasty (not Shunga dynasty) in 321/324 BCE. The Mauryan period lasted from around the late fourth century BCE to the first quarter of the second century BCE.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: It was king Bimbisara (not Emperor Ashoka) who was the contemporary of both Lord Buddha and Mahavira.

• Statement 4 is incorrect: Archaeological remains from Bulandibagh and Kumrahar are associated with the Mauryan capital Pataliputra. These are not the port cities of Mauryan empire on the Western coast.

• Central administration in the Delhi sultanate during the period of Slave dynasty was carried out mostly by trusted slaves who had helped the sultan to acquire the throne; or by the members of the royal household and family. Loyalty was therefore a prerequisite for holding the high office and was given the highest rewards. The Sultan was the head of the administration with all military, administrative and legal powers. A number of separate departments were created to look after different aspects of administration.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Muhammad bin Tughlaq established a separate department, Diwan-i-Amir Kohi. It was responsible for bringing uncultivated land into cultivation through state support. Firoz Shah Tughlaq had a genuine concern for the slaves and established a separate government department to attend to their welfare. It was called Diwan-i-Bandagan.

• Statement 2 is correct: The Diwan-i-Arz was instituted specially to look after the military organisation of the Delhi Sultanate. It was headed by the Ariz-i-Mumalik. With the Delhi Sultanate always having a large military entourage, this ministry was very important in the empire. The Ariz, along with his office, maintained the royal contingents, recruited the soldiers, ensured the discipline and fitness of the army, examined the horses and branded them with the royal insignia.

• Statement 3 is correct: Diwan-i-Mustakhraj was set up by Alauddin Khilji to enquire into and realise arrears of revenue payments from the different parts of the empire. The centre’s policy of revenue collection reached its highest of one-half of the produce during the reign of Alauddin Khalji, who had adopted the policy of actual measurement of land where land was measured and revenue demand determined on its anticipated yield.

• Eighteenth century India failed to make progress economically, socially or culturally, at an adequate pace. India became a land of contrasts because extreme poverty and extreme luxury existed side by side. The common populace remained impoverished, backward and oppressed and lived at the bare subsistence level; the rich and the powerful enjoyed a life of luxury and lavishness. But it is worth noting that the life of the Indian masses was, by and large, better in the 18th century than it was after 100 years of British rule.

• Statement 1 is correct: The old commercial centres of Surat, Masulipatnam and Dhaka degenerated, and colonial port cities like Bombay, Madras and Calcutta took their place. The decline of the Mughal capitals of Delhi and Agra was offset by the rise of regional capitals, including Lucknow, Hyderabad, the various Maratha cities, and Seringapatam.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The education imparted in 18th-century India was still traditional which could not match with the rapid developments in the West. The knowledge was confined to literature, law, religion, philosophy, and logic and excluded the study of physical and natural sciences, technology and geography. In fact, due to over-reliance placed on ancient learning, any original thought got discouraged. The education system could not change according to the requirements of the time. The curriculum was confined to literature, languages, law, religion, philosophy and logic and excluded the study of physical and natural sciences, technology and geography. There was lack of progressive ideas as theoretical framework dominated.

• Statement 3 is correct: On account of being self-sufficient in handicrafts and agricultural products, India did not import foreign goods on a large scale. On the other hand, its industrial and agricultural products were in good demand in foreign markets. Hence its exports were more than its imports; trade was balanced by import of silver and gold. India was known as a sink of precious metals.

• A unique feature of India’s environmental governance system is the need for the Supreme Court’s approval for administrative decisions in matters concerning the environment. This process came about as a result of the court’s own direction in the T.N. Godavarman (1995) and the Centre for Environmental Law (1995) cases. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Any proposal involving tree-cutting or non-forest use in a national park or sanctuary needs to be approved by the Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife, headed by the Union environment minister but the minister’s decision is not final:

• The proposal needs to be further examined by a special Supreme Court committee called the Central Empowered Committee (CEC), headed by a retired Secretary to the Government of India, and comprising retired Forest Service officers.

• If the CEC believes the Standing Committee’s decision to be incorrect, it can defer to the Supreme Court for the final say, along with its own opinion. This procedure prima facie contravenes the separation of powers enshrined in the Constitution. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Sittanavasal Cave (Arivar Koil) Paintings are dated from 1st century BC to 10th century AD, and located in Tamil Nadu.
• Option a is incorrect: These famous rock-cut cave temples are known for the paintings based on Jainism, not Shaivism and Vaishnavism. Sittanavasal is a distorted form of Siddhanivasan, which means abode of Siddhas or Jain Gods. The paintings are not only on the walls but also on the ceiling and pillars. The paintings are with the theme of Jain Samavasarana (Preaching Hall). The medium used for painting was vegetable and mineral dyes, and was done by putting colours on surface of thin wet lime plaster. The common colours included yellow, green, orange, blue, black and white.

Sittanavasal Cave Paintings in Tamil Nadu

• Option b is incorrect: The central element of the paintings in Sittanavasal is a pond with lotuses. Flowers in this pond are collected by monks and there are ducks, swans, fishes and animals. This scene shows Samavasarana - an important scene of Jain religion.
• Option c is incorrect: Sittanavasal Caves represent one of the best cave paintings of early medieval India. Most paintings date to the Pandyan period i.e. 9th century AD. Bhimbetka Cave paintings date back to approximately 30,000 years.
• Option d is correct: Sittanavasal Cave Paintings have a striking resemblance to paintings from Bagh and Ajanta. These caves together represent a Jain temple complex, situated in a small village near Trichy in Pudukottai district of Tamil Nadu. The most famous monument is a rock-cut monastery of the Jains which contains remnants of beautiful frescoes from the 7th century. Many of them are typical of the 9th century Pandyan period and include detailed pictures of animals, fish, ducks, masculine figures gathering lotuses from a pond and dancing girls.

• SWIFT is formally known as the Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT). It was established in 1973 and is based in Belgium. Prior to SWIFT, the only reliable means of message confirmation for international funds transfer was Telex. It was discontinued due to a range of issues such as low speed, security concerns, and a free message format. There are about 11,000 member banks in 200 countries and territories that use SWIFT. Since it began in 1973, SWIFT has become an integral part of the flow of global trade. India’s financial system has access to the SWIFT.

• Statement 1 is correct: It is a trusted messaging system for banks and other financial institutions around the world. When a bank is a member of SWIFT, their instruction messages are cleared as secure immediately, so the transactions happen quickly.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Although, SWIFT has become a crucial part of global financial infrastructure, it is not a financial institution itself: SWIFT does not hold or transfer assets. Rather, its utility lies in its power to facilitate secure, efficient communication between member institutions.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: It is controlled by the central banks of the G10 countries, the European Central Bank, and the National Bank of Belgium. The Group of Ten is made up of eleven industrial countries (Belgium, Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the Netherlands, Sweden, Switzerland, the United Kingdom and the United States) which consult and co-operate on economic, monetary and financial matters.

• Under the Reserve Bank of India, Act,1934 (RBI Act,1934) (as amended in 2016), RBI is entrusted with the responsibility of conducting monetary policy in India with the primary objective of maintaining price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. There are several direct and indirect instruments that are used for implementing monetary policy.

• Repo Rate: The interest rate at which the Reserve Bank provides liquidity under the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF) to all LAF participants against the collateral of government and other approved securities. Repo rate is directly linked to loan rates offered by lenders so an increase in the repo will increase the borrowing cost and vice-versa. The Monetary Policy Committee decides repo rate. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• In the last meeting for the current fiscal (2022-23), the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) projected the real GDP growth at 6.4% (for FY 23-24). Repo Rate is the rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks by purchasing securities. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Reserve Bank of India has prescribed statutory returns i.e., Form A Return (for CRR) under Section 42(2) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 and Form VIII Return (for SLR) under Section 24 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. Both SLR and CRR decided by the parliament and RBI and not by MPC.

• Statement a is incorrect: The British put forth the August Offer of 1940 due to the quick defeats against Hitler in Europe during World War II. They wanted wholehearted Indian support in the war effort as Hitler was proving to be too much. This is why they proposed more involvement of Indians in the government after the end of World War II, in exchange for support in the war effort. This was the essence of the August Offer. The reverses suffered by the British against Japan (Hitler’s ally in Asia) after 1940 was the reason why Cripps Mission was sent in 1942. It was to pacify Indian nationalists and garner support from Indian masses for more fighting and protection against Japanese advance into the Indian subcontinent.

• Statement b is correct: India’s Home Rule League movement was directly inspired by Ireland’s freedom struggle. Even the Irish created Home Rule Leagues which demanded broad autonomy of governance for the nationals within the overall British empire. This meant that while the country remained a part of the British Empire, the day-to-day government was responsible and composed of the nationals of that country, elected by popular franchise.

• Statement c is incorrect: The Nihilists were a group of revolutionaries in Russia in the 19th century who opposed the despotic autocratic monarchy of Russia and believed in using individual acts of sacrifice and bravery (throwing bombs on officials or aristrocrats) as a means to register their protest and inspire change. This philosophy inspired militant nationalist activity in the beginning decade of the 20th century (1900-1915). For example, the shootings by Chapekar Brothers, Anushilan Samiti, the activities of the Ghadar Party, etc The militrant nationalist activities of 1920s and 1930s such as the throwing of smoke bomb and courting arrest in 1929 by Bhagat Singh (HSRA) were inspired by the Socialist ideals which inspired the Russian Revolution of 1917.

• Statement d is incorrect: Gandhi believed in passive resistance - Satyagraha, where the oppressive government was to be opposed and overthrown using only non-violent methods such as breaking oppressive laws (like salt tax, etc). The passive resistance displayed in Civil Disobedience Movement was inspired by Gandhi. On the contrary, Shays' Rebellion was an armed uprising in Western Massachusetts and Worcester in response to a debt crisis among the citizenry and in opposition to the state government's increased efforts to collect taxes both on individuals and their trades.

• Red Sanders, also known as Pterocarpus Santalinus, is an extremely rare and commercially valuable tree species found in India. It was recently re-listed as Endangered in the Red Data List of the IUCN.

• Statement 1 is correct: Red Sanders is a very valuable tree species as it is found only in very limited areas. It is endemic to the Eastern Ghats. The most superior variety is found in Andhra Pradesh in districts of Chittoor, Kadapa, Kurnool and Nellore. In Karnataka it is found in Kolar, Tumkur and Chitradurga.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: This statement is incorrect as after being classified in 2018 (for the first time since 1997) as ‘Near Threatened’, IUCN has again had to classify Red Sanders as ‘Endangered’ in 2021 due to drastic fall in numbers of specimens. The latest IUCN assessment stated: “Over the last three generations, the species has experienced a population decline of 50-80 per cent. It is assessed as Endangered”.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: Illegal felling and smuggling of the tree’s wood for international trade is the biggest threat to the survival of the species. The trees have an extremely long growing span. Most trees usually take about 12 to 14 years to attain maturity. But the red sander wood needs about 100 years to reach that stage. The latest IUCN report says that although the area of distribution has been maintained over the years, the overharvesting to satisfy growing global demand has pushed the species to dangerously low levels of population. Cattle grazing and invasive species are a threat too, however they are not a primary factor.

• Statement 4 is correct: The wood of red Sanders is in high demand as it has following uses:

  • Making musical instruments like violin, etc.

  • High quality, water resistant luxury furniture

  • Making nuclear radiation shielded structures

  • High demand from SouthEast Asia (like China, Japan, Myanmar, etc) for Medicinal uses: astringent properties, treating urinary tract infections, bilious affections and skin diseases, headache, fever, boils, scorpion sting and improving sight.

• Knowledge Base: Other facts about Red Sanders:

  • Protected Under Schedule II of CITES, and Schedule II of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

  • It is a deciduous tree.

  • It grows in tropical deciduous forests, with red soils. Rainfall between 80 cm to 100 cm annually is required. It grows well in dry, hot climates.

  • It also yields Santaline dye, which finds use in colouring foodstuff and pharmaceutical preparations.

• LGDs have similar physical and optical properties to that of natural diamonds. Statement 1 is not correct.

• In India, the share of lab-grown diamonds in the overall diamond business is presently just 2-3 per cent. Statement 2 is correct.

• A common eye can’t distinguish between a natural diamond and an LGD. Statement 3 is correct.

NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar):

• NISAR has been built by space agencies of the US and India under a partnership agreement signed in 2014.

• It is expected to be launched in January 2024 from Satish Dhawan Space Centre into a near-polar orbit.

• The satellite will operate for a minimum of three years.

• It is a Low Earth Orbit (LEO) observatory. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• NISAR will map the entire globe in 12 days. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Features:

• It is a 2,800 kilograms satellite consisting of both L-band and S-band Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) instruments, which makes it a dual-frequency imaging radar satellite. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• While NASA has provided the L-band radar, GPS, a high-capacity solid-state recorder to store data, and a payload data subsystem, ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation) has provided the S-band radar, the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) launch system and spacecraft.

• S band radars ope rate on a wavelength of 8-15 cm and a frequency of 2-4 GHz. Because of the wavelength and frequency, they are not easily attenuated. This makes them useful for near and far range weather observation.

• It has a 39-foot stationary antenna reflector, made of a gold-plated wire mesh; the reflector will be used to focus “the radar signals emitted and received by the upward-facing feed on the instrument structure.

• By using SAR, NISAR will produce high-resolution images. SAR is capable of penetrating clouds and can collect data day and night regardless of the weather conditions.

• NASA requires the L-band radar for its global science operations for at least three years. Meanwhile, ISRO will utilise the S-band radar for a minimum of five years.

• Compressed natural gas (CNG) is a fuel gas made of petrol which is mainly composed of methane (CH₄), compressed to less than 1% of the volume it occupies at standard atmospheric pressure. It is lighter than air. Unlike other fuels such as diesel, petrol, or LPG, which are heavier than air, pools on the ground create a fire hazard and potential pollution to waterways. Should a CNG leak occur, the gas will disperse rapidly upwards into the atmosphere and dissipate. So, Statement 1 is correct.

• CNG has a higher auto-ignition temperature (540 °C) than petrol and is also much safer than petrol because of its narrow range (5–15 percent) of flammability, making combustion of CNG unlikely. So, Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

• CNG has a higher octane number and knocking resistance than gasoline and hence CNGdedicated engines can have higher compression ratios and therefore higher indicated efficiencies. So, Statement 4 is correct.

• The incremental capital output ratio (ICOR) is a frequently used tool that explains the relationship between the level of investment made in the economy and the subsequent increase in the gross domestic product (GDP). ICOR indicates the additional unit of capital or investment needed to produce an additional unit of output.

• ICOR can be calculated by,

  • ICOR = Annual Increase in GDP/Annual Investment

• A lower ICOR is preferred as it indicates a country's production is more efficient. Technological improvement and improvement in the skill levels of Labour will increase Investment and Productivity. So it will lower the value of ICOR making the country more efficient. So, Statements 1 and 2 are not correct.

• Improper usage of raw materials and delayed process in regulatory approvals will lower the Investment and Productivity. So it will increase the value of ICOR making the country less efficient. So, Statements 3 and 4 are correct.

• Monetary transmission is essentially the process through which the policy action of the central bank is transmitted to the ultimate objective of stable inflation and growth. Monetary transmission is the entire process starting from the change in the policy rate by the central bank to various money market rates such as inter-bank lending rates, to bank deposit rates, to bank lending rates to households and firms, to government and corporate bond yields, and to asset prices such as stock prices and house prices, culminating in its impact on inflation and growth.

• According to RBI, the introduction of the external benchmark system for lending and deposit rates has helped in improving the monetary transmission by banks. The EBLR system has also accelerated the pass-through to MCLR-linked loans, as changes in the benchmark rates lead banks to proactively adjust their deposit rates to protect their NIMs (net interest margins), thereby improving transmission to overall lending and deposit rates. So, Statement 1 is correct.

• The introduction of IBC will result in an easing of the monetary policy stance and improve the recovery of stressed assets. So, Statement 2 is correct.

• Being a Comprehensive measure, regular conduct of asset quality review by RBI helps clean the Balance sheets of the banks and also withstand possible financial shocks. So, Statement 3 is correct.

• Government should intend to bring down the interest rates on small saving accounts. If Repo rates are increased, people end up paying higher interest rates for their loans and disbursement of loans gets decreased. So, Statement 4 is not correct.