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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - UPSC MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 1

Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
 

Passage 1
 

The truth about ageing in India is that we have not yet built an adequate knowledge base to respond to its multifarious challenges. So says the UN Population Fund in its recently released report on the Status of Elderly in Select States of India. The focus of the study is on the seven states where the aged population is larger than the national average. These are Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Maharashtra, Odisha, West Bengal, Punjab and Himachal Pradesh. Three fourths of the elderly live in rural areas and bear the brunt of poverty, illiteracy, income insecurity and inadequate health care. Sixty per cent of them are currently married and over 75 percent live with at least one of their children. But widowhood is over 50 percent among women, reflecting greater longevity among females and gender specific concerns that arise on account of ageing. The survey also reports high levels of substance abuse, with no significant variations between rural and urban areas. On an average, there is equal reliance on public and private health care facilities, while in Odisha and Punjab respectively, there is noticeably greater dependence on public and private care. The economic burden incurred by the elderly to make provision for health care is compounded by the fact that most of them have to work to make ends meet and enjoy no social protection to speak of.
There are major lessons from the survey for the rest of India. After all, the proportion of the segment aged 60 years and above is projected to grow by 360 % by 2050, compared with a mere 60 % rate of increase in the overall population- a product of the decline in fertility rates and the increase in longevity. A rapid rise in the numbers ofthe elderly would impose additional responsibilities on an ever-shrinking population in the working age and raise fresh social challenges in the context of the ongoing nuclearization of India's traditional joint family. In Western countries, economic development and accompanying socio-political advancement preceded population ageing, enabling better planning. India, as with other developing countries, finds itself having to balance the concerns of the elderly into its current growth imperatives. Conversely, investments in sound social projection and public health and welfare policies for the country's predominant population under 35 years would prove a most effective strategy to prepare communities to meet the unfolding transition in the coming decades. Short of such a proactive approach, there is a real risk of allowing today's demographic advantage to turn into tomorrow's adversity.

Consider the following statements
1. The issue of ageing should be approached in a manner that also considers gender specific concerns of the phenomenon ofageing.

2. The information on response strategies to ageing in India is not adequate.

Q.

Which of the given statements are valid?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 1

The passage talks about the findings of a study by the UNPF regarding the "truth about ageing in India." According to the study, India has "not yet built an adequate knowledge base to respond to the multifarious challenges" posed by ageing. There is no mention of information on response strategies to ageing in India being adequate or not. Thus statement 2 is negated. The passage mentions the significant findings of the study and implies that any approach to the issue of ageing in India should take steps to address the various concerns raised. Statement 1 is thus valid.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 2

Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
 

Passage 1
 

The truth about ageing in India is that we have not yet built an adequate knowledge base to respond to its multifarious challenges. So says the UN Population Fund in its recently released report on the Status of Elderly in Select States of India. The focus of the study is on the seven states where the aged population is larger than the national average. These are Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Maharashtra, Odisha, West Bengal, Punjab and Himachal Pradesh. Three fourths of the elderly live in rural areas and bear the brunt of poverty, illiteracy, income insecurity and inadequate health care. Sixty per cent of them are currently married and over 75 percent live with at least one of their children. But widowhood is over 50 percent among women, reflecting greater longevity among females and gender specific concerns that arise on account of ageing. The survey also reports high levels of substance abuse, with no significant variations between rural and urban areas. On an average, there is equal reliance on public and private health care facilities, while in Odisha and Punjab respectively, there is noticeably greater dependence on public and private care. The economic burden incurred by the elderly to make provision for health care is compounded by the fact that most of them have to work to make ends meet and enjoy no social protection to speak of.
There are major lessons from the survey for the rest of India. After all, the proportion of the segment aged 60 years and above is projected to grow by 360 % by 2050, compared with a mere 60 % rate of increase in the overall population- a product of the decline in fertility rates and the increase in longevity. A rapid rise in the numbers ofthe elderly would impose additional responsibilities on an ever-shrinking population in the working age and raise fresh social challenges in the context of the ongoing nuclearization of India's traditional joint family. In Western countries, economic development and accompanying socio-political advancement preceded population ageing, enabling better planning. India, as with other developing countries, finds itself having to balance the concerns of the elderly into its current growth imperatives. Conversely, investments in sound social projection and public health and welfare policies for the country's predominant population under 35 years would prove a most effective strategy to prepare communities to meet the unfolding transition in the coming decades. Short of such a proactive approach, there is a real risk of allowing today's demographic advantage to turn into tomorrow's adversity.

Consider the following statements
1. The issue of ageing should be approached in a manner that also considers gender specific concerns of the phenomenon ofageing.

2. The information on response strategies to ageing in India is not adequate.

Q.

Which of the following options is not related to the findings of the survey?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 2

The passage mentions findings of the survey such as the fact that most of the elderly have to work make ends meet and that "a rapid rise in the numbers of the elderly would impose additional responsibilities on an ever shrinking population in the working age" and "investments in sound social....transition in the coming decades." Options a, b and d respectively, can be inferred from the above mentioned findings. The survey, however, does not speak of the need to curb the overall growth of the population in India. Thus option c

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 3

Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
 

Passage 1
 

The truth about ageing in India is that we have not yet built an adequate knowledge base to respond to its multifarious challenges. So says the UN Population Fund in its recently released report on the Status of Elderly in Select States of India. The focus of the study is on the seven states where the aged population is larger than the national average. These are Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Maharashtra, Odisha, West Bengal, Punjab and Himachal Pradesh. Three fourths of the elderly live in rural areas and bear the brunt of poverty, illiteracy, income insecurity and inadequate health care. Sixty per cent of them are currently married and over 75 percent live with at least one of their children. But widowhood is over 50 percent among women, reflecting greater longevity among females and gender specific concerns that arise on account of ageing. The survey also reports high levels of substance abuse, with no significant variations between rural and urban areas. On an average, there is equal reliance on public and private health care facilities, while in Odisha and Punjab respectively, there is noticeably greater dependence on public and private care. The economic burden incurred by the elderly to make provision for health care is compounded by the fact that most of them have to work to make ends meet and enjoy no social protection to speak of.
There are major lessons from the survey for the rest of India. After all, the proportion of the segment aged 60 years and above is projected to grow by 360 % by 2050, compared with a mere 60 % rate of increase in the overall population- a product of the decline in fertility rates and the increase in longevity. A rapid rise in the numbers ofthe elderly would impose additional responsibilities on an ever-shrinking population in the working age and raise fresh social challenges in the context of the ongoing nuclearization of India's traditional joint family. In Western countries, economic development and accompanying socio-political advancement preceded population ageing, enabling better planning. India, as with other developing countries, finds itself having to balance the concerns of the elderly into its current growth imperatives. Conversely, investments in sound social projection and public health and welfare policies for the country's predominant population under 35 years would prove a most effective strategy to prepare communities to meet the unfolding transition in the coming decades. Short of such a proactive approach, there is a real risk of allowing today's demographic advantage to turn into tomorrow's adversity.

Consider the following statements
1. The issue of ageing should be approached in a manner that also considers gender specific concerns of the phenomenon ofageing.

2. The information on response strategies to ageing in India is not adequate.

Q.

Which of the following options best explains why the Western world has been able to deal with an ageing population betterthan India has?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 3

Refer to the sentence "In western countries enabling better planning." in the 2nd paragraph. These lines
indicate that since the western countries first went through economic development and socio political advancement before they faced an ageing population, they were better equipped to plan for the latter. However, India has had to focus on both economic growth and the issue of the elderly. So, India has not been able to plan as well for the latter like the Western countries have. Option a is incorrect as the passage does not suggest that the western world decided to focus on achieving one socio economic goal at a time. It does not correctly present the point the author makes. Option b is incorrect as it indicated that the western world has had more time to plan for its ageing population which is not known based on the information available in the passage. Option c is incorrect based on the information available in the passage there is no way to know whether the western world has always placed a greater emphasis on social goals unlike developing countries.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 4

The biggest gain from the Union Government's welcome decision to notify the final award of the Cauvery Water Dispute Tribunal is that it may be the first and most significant step towards a permanent solution to the persistent conflict over sharing the inter-State river's waters. A positive feature is that implementation ofthe final award will involve the formation of a Cauvery Management Board to regulate the supply of water and a Water Regulation Committee, which will post representatives in each of the eight reservoirs in the basin states, to ensure that the decisions are carried out. Giving finality to the award through the notification may help take the issue away from politics and place it in the hands of a technical, expert body. The February 2007 award has been questioned by way of clarification petitions before the Tribunal itself as well as suits in the Supreme Court by both parties and sceptics may wonder how useful the gazette notification may be now. The parties are still free to pursue their clarification petitions and appeals, but in the larger interest of a long term solution and to end seasonal acrimony, they would do well to give the award a chance.
The fact that notifying the award has been a long pending demand ofTamil Nadu should not make one believe that the action redounds to one party's benefit to the detriment of the other. It was the Supreme Court that made the suggestion that the final decision be notified and counsel for all the basin states have agreed that it should be done. It may be argued that gazetting the award will not resolve the present standoff over judicial and administrative directives to Karnataka to release water to save standing crops in Tamil Nadu. The Cauvery Monitoring Committee, while asking Karnataka to ensure 12 thousand million cubic feet of water to Tamil Nadu in December, has itself admitted that its decision is unlikely to satisfy either party, given that both states have less water in their reservoirs than in previous years. Yet, is has opted for a pragmatic solution under which both states will be in deficit of approximately 47 tmcft. It is the same spirit of pragmatism that both states must now approach the larger problem of sharing water as per a judicially determined solution in both normal and distress years. The two should not let posterity say of them that long after equitable distribution has entrenched itself as the most acceptable doctrine in riverine jurisprudence, they did not allow a judicially determines system for sharing to work.


Q.

It can be inferred that notifying the final award of the Cauvery Water Dispute Tribunal could lead to

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 4

Option a cannot be inferred from the passage as the effect that the tribunal will have on the speed of decision making is not known. Option b can be inferred from the sentences "Giving finality to the ....technical, expert body." Option c is incorrect as there is nothing in the passage to suggest that handing over the finality of the award to an expert body would detract attention from the main issue. Option d is incorrect as the sentence "The
parties are stillthe award a chance." States that, due to the tribunal, the two parties will still be free to pursue
their petitions and appeals. There is no talk of any greater freedom to them as regards the dispute.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 5

The biggest gain from the Union Government's welcome decision to notify the final award of the Cauvery Water Dispute Tribunal is that it may be the first and most significant step towards a permanent solution to the persistent conflict over sharing the inter-State river's waters. A positive feature is that implementation ofthe final award will involve the formation of a Cauvery Management Board to regulate the supply of water and a Water Regulation Committee, which will post representatives in each of the eight reservoirs in the basin states, to ensure that the decisions are carried out. Giving finality to the award through the notification may help take the issue away from politics and place it in the hands of a technical, expert body. The February 2007 award has been questioned by way of clarification petitions before the Tribunal itself as well as suits in the Supreme Court by both parties and sceptics may wonder how useful the gazette notification may be now. The parties are still free to pursue their clarification petitions and appeals, but in the larger interest of a long term solution and to end seasonal acrimony, they would do well to give the award a chance.
The fact that notifying the award has been a long pending demand ofTamil Nadu should not make one believe that the action redounds to one party's benefit to the detriment of the other. It was the Supreme Court that made the suggestion that the final decision be notified and counsel for all the basin states have agreed that it should be done. It may be argued that gazetting the award will not resolve the present standoff over judicial and administrative directives to Karnataka to release water to save standing crops in Tamil Nadu. The Cauvery Monitoring Committee, while asking Karnataka to ensure 12 thousand million cubic feet of water to Tamil Nadu in December, has itself admitted that its decision is unlikely to satisfy either party, given that both states have less water in their reservoirs than in previous years. Yet, is has opted for a pragmatic solution under which both states will be in deficit of approximately 47 tmcft. It is the same spirit of pragmatism that both states must now approach the larger problem of sharing water as per a judicially determined solution in both normal and distress years. The two should not let posterity say of them that long after equitable distribution has entrenched itself as the most acceptable doctrine in riverine jurisprudence, they did not allow a judicially determines system for sharing to work.

Q.
 

Which of the following options cannot be inferred as a negation with respect to the award of the tribunal?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 5

The question asks for a reference to negations that have been made with reference to the award of the tribunal.
Refer to the 2nd paragraph for this. Option a can be inferred from the sentence "It may be argued ............................................................................................... crops in
Tamil Nadu" given in the 2nd paragraph. Option b can be inferred from the sentence "has itself admitted....satisfy either party" option c can be inferred from the sentence "The fact that notifying...detriment of the other" and cannot be said to be a negation that been made with reference to the award of the tribunal. Option d cannot be inferred as there is no mention in the passage on whether the tribunal will dwell on how the reserves can be replenished from other sources, and is the answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 6

The biggest gain from the Union Government's welcome decision to notify the final award of the Cauvery Water Dispute Tribunal is that it may be the first and most significant step towards a permanent solution to the persistent conflict over sharing the inter-State river's waters. A positive feature is that implementation ofthe final award will involve the formation of a Cauvery Management Board to regulate the supply of water and a Water Regulation Committee, which will post representatives in each of the eight reservoirs in the basin states, to ensure that the decisions are carried out. Giving finality to the award through the notification may help take the issue away from politics and place it in the hands of a technical, expert body. The February 2007 award has been questioned by way of clarification petitions before the Tribunal itself as well as suits in the Supreme Court by both parties and sceptics may wonder how useful the gazette notification may be now. The parties are still free to pursue their clarification petitions and appeals, but in the larger interest of a long term solution and to end seasonal acrimony, they would do well to give the award a chance.
The fact that notifying the award has been a long pending demand ofTamil Nadu should not make one believe that the action redounds to one party's benefit to the detriment of the other. It was the Supreme Court that made the suggestion that the final decision be notified and counsel for all the basin states have agreed that it should be done. It may be argued that gazetting the award will not resolve the present standoff over judicial and administrative directives to Karnataka to release water to save standing crops in Tamil Nadu. The Cauvery Monitoring Committee, while asking Karnataka to ensure 12 thousand million cubic feet of water to Tamil Nadu in December, has itself admitted that its decision is unlikely to satisfy either party, given that both states have less water in their reservoirs than in previous years. Yet, is has opted for a pragmatic solution under which both states will be in deficit of approximately 47 tmcft. It is the same spirit of pragmatism that both states must now approach the larger problem of sharing water as per a judicially determined solution in both normal and distress years. The two should not let posterity say of them that long after equitable distribution has entrenched itself as the most acceptable doctrine in riverine jurisprudence, they did not allow a judicially determines system for sharing to work.

Q.
 

Consider the following assumptions:
1. The 2 parties in the dispute should favour the setting up of the tribunal as it will bring some resolution to the issue
2. The dispute between the 2 parties is best solved through the judicial route.

Which of the following assumptions are valid?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 6

Statement 1 can be inferred from the sentences "The biggest gain....inter-state river water" and "It is in the same for sharing to work." Statement 2 can be inferred from the sentence, "It is in the spirit ..................................................................................................... and distress years " in the 2nd paragraph of the passage wherein it is indicated that both states should approach the larger problem as per a judicially determined solution. Thus option c

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 7

The 2 month long offer of amnesty and regularisation for emigrant workers that the UAE launched on December 4 constitutes a legitimate clean-up effort. It will let those who have overstayed their visa or lack proper documentation, to either leave without penalty or regularise their stay by paying fines. The fact that more than 45000 Indians are expected to seek amnesty in this round points to the scale of this problem. The UAE had offered similar amnesty schemes in 2007, 2002 and 1996, which led to a total of 842,000 people either legalising their stay or leaving without being penalised. On its part, India ought to handle the situation with sensitivity and understanding. One of the demands this time is for the waiver of, or reduction in, the fee for the issue of Emergency Exit Certificates. Following hints from India that this might indeed be done, the response to the amnesty process has so far been slow. The Central and State governments should take steps to encourage people to come forward and legitimise their status. The authorities should decide on the fee liability, and whether free air passage could be provided to the returnees, many of them low paid workers. Minister for Overseas Indian Affairs has favoured this in deserving cases. 

On a broader plane, the situation highlights the need for well regulated and orderly processes for those who seek to emigrate in search of livelihood. It is well known that dodgy practices resorted to by recruiting agents, who work hand in glove with unregulated visa-providers, often hold out before prospective emigrants false promises in terms of the nature of work and the quantum of pay. Sponsors and employers who illegally retain passports to keep migrants in thrall and those who deny fair wages and reasonable working conditions, continue to have a field day as opportunities shrink. The Emigration Act should be tightened to ensure harsher punishment for malpractices. The Indian consular corps need to provide a more accessible and enabling environment to emigrants in distress. Bilateral agreements that have been periodically announced have not entirely succeeded in ensuring the welfare and protection of Indian workers, especially those at the lower end of the wage band. Also taking into account the economic dividend that accrues to the economy thanks to significant remittances from the Gulf countries, India should take a long term view and work to safeguard the welfare of the diaspora.

Q.

Which of the following cannot be taken as a logical explanation for the emigrant problem in the UAE?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 7

Refer to the 2nd paragraph in which the author seeks to explain some of the reasons behind the emigrant problem in the UAE. Option a can be inferred from the sentence "On a broader plane ....search of livelihood." in the 2nd paragraph. Option b can be inferred from the sentence "Sponsors and employers ............................................................................. as opportunities shrink." Option c is incorrect since, although the 3rd sentence does imply that there are employees in the UAE who take advantage of shrinking job opportunities in order to deny fair wages to their migrant employees, there is no indication that the pay scales in the UAE are low in general. Option d can be inferred from the sentence "Sponsors and employers as opportunities shrink." Thus option c.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 8

The 2 month long offer of amnesty and regularisation for emigrant workers that the UAE launched on December 4 constitutes a legitimate clean-up effort. It will let those who have overstayed their visa or lack proper documentation, to either leave without penalty or regularise their stay by paying fines. The fact that more than 45000 Indians are expected to seek amnesty in this round points to the scale of this problem. The UAE had offered similar amnesty schemes in 2007, 2002 and 1996, which led to a total of 842,000 people either legalising their stay or leaving without being penalised. On its part, India ought to handle the situation with sensitivity and understanding. One of the demands this time is for the waiver of, or reduction in, the fee for the issue of Emergency Exit Certificates. Following hints from India that this might indeed be done, the response to the amnesty process has so far been slow. The Central and State governments should take steps to encourage people to come forward and legitimise their status. The authorities should decide on the fee liability, and whether free air passage could be provided to the returnees, many of them low paid workers. Minister for Overseas Indian Affairs has favoured this in deserving cases. 

On a broader plane, the situation highlights the need for well regulated and orderly processes for those who seek to emigrate in search of livelihood. It is well known that dodgy practices resorted to by recruiting agents, who work hand in glove with unregulated visa-providers, often hold out before prospective emigrants false promises in terms of the nature of work and the quantum of pay. Sponsors and employers who illegally retain passports to keep migrants in thrall and those who deny fair wages and reasonable working conditions, continue to have a field day as opportunities shrink. The Emigration Act should be tightened to ensure harsher punishment for malpractices. The Indian consular corps need to provide a more accessible and enabling environment to emigrants in distress. Bilateral agreements that have been periodically announced have not entirely succeeded in ensuring the welfare and protection of Indian workers, especially those at the lower end of the wage band. Also taking into account the economic dividend that accrues to the economy thanks to significant remittances from the Gulf countries, India should take a long term view and work to safeguard the welfare of the diaspora.

Q.

Which of the following options aptly perceives the role that the Indian government can play for emigrants to the UAE?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 8

Refer to the sentences "The Emigration act should ....welfare of the diaspora." given in the 2nd paragraph of the passage. It can be inferred that the government should work for the welfare of its emigrants in the UAE. The sentence "Also taking into....the welfare of the diaspora." also indicates that the government gets the money from the remittances that emigrants send home to India. Option b adequately places these aspects together and is the answer. Option a is incorrect as it is a general statement and does not particularly refer to the emigrant situation. Option c is incorrect as the author does not indicate that the protection of bilateral interests is vital in the emigrant problem. In fact it is indicated that the bilateral agreements on this problem have not yielded results. Also the welfare of the diaspora has been given importance in the passage as opposed to the welfare of those who return to India. Option d is incorrect as it merely states that the Emigration Act should be reviewed which does not necessarily imply a ‘tightening ' of the provisions of the Act, as mentioned in the passage

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 9

The 2 month long offer of amnesty and regularisation for emigrant workers that the UAE launched on December 4 constitutes a legitimate clean-up effort. It will let those who have overstayed their visa or lack proper documentation, to either leave without penalty or regularise their stay by paying fines. The fact that more than 45000 Indians are expected to seek amnesty in this round points to the scale of this problem. The UAE had offered similar amnesty schemes in 2007, 2002 and 1996, which led to a total of 842,000 people either legalising their stay or leaving without being penalised. On its part, India ought to handle the situation with sensitivity and understanding. One of the demands this time is for the waiver of, or reduction in, the fee for the issue of Emergency Exit Certificates. Following hints from India that this might indeed be done, the response to the amnesty process has so far been slow. The Central and State governments should take steps to encourage people to come forward and legitimise their status. The authorities should decide on the fee liability, and whether free air passage could be provided to the returnees, many of them low paid workers. Minister for Overseas Indian Affairs has favoured this in deserving cases. 

On a broader plane, the situation highlights the need for well regulated and orderly processes for those who seek to emigrate in search of livelihood. It is well known that dodgy practices resorted to by recruiting agents, who work hand in glove with unregulated visa-providers, often hold out before prospective emigrants false promises in terms of the nature of work and the quantum of pay. Sponsors and employers who illegally retain passports to keep migrants in thrall and those who deny fair wages and reasonable working conditions, continue to have a field day as opportunities shrink. The Emigration Act should be tightened to ensure harsher punishment for malpractices. The Indian consular corps need to provide a more accessible and enabling environment to emigrants in distress. Bilateral agreements that have been periodically announced have not entirely succeeded in ensuring the welfare and protection of Indian workers, especially those at the lower end of the wage band. Also taking into account the economic dividend that accrues to the economy thanks to significant remittances from the Gulf countries, India should take a long term view and work to safeguard the welfare of the diaspora.

Q.

Consider the following assumptions:
1. Illegal immigrants wait for the offers of amnesty of the UAE government to either legalize their stay or leave without paying fines.
2. A lot of the people seeking amnesty are workers who may have been detained in the UAE against their better judgement.

Which of the given assumptions are valid?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 9

Statement 1 is an invalid assumption as there is no mention of people waiting to avail of the offer of amnesty by the UAE government to either legalize their stay or to leave without having to pay a fine. Statement 2 can be inferred from the sentence "It is well known that....the quantum of pay." Which particularly implies that the emigrant workers who are being offered amnesty and regularisation are being given this option because the UAE government may not be able to place the blame of illegal stay on the individuals, as it is the recruiting agents who make false promises to the emigrants and dupe them. This is also why the Indian government has been advised to be sensitive and to allow for a free air passage for returnees.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 10

Each of the items below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other
B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

How many gift boxes were sold on Monday?
Statements:
I. It was 10% more than the boxes sold on the earlier day i.e. Sunday.

II. Every third visitor to the shop purchased the box and 1500 visitors were there on Sunday

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 10

From II, we can conclude that (1500 *3) = 500 boxes were sold on Sunday.

Thus, from I, we find that number of boxes sold on Monday = 500 + 10% of 500 = 550.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 11

Each of the item below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other
B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

What is Rakesh's position from the right end in a row of children?
Statements:
I. There are 10 children between Rakesh and Rohan.
II. Rohan is twentieth from the left end of the row of children.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 11

Clearly, neither the number of children in the row is given nor the position of Rakesh relative to Rohan is mentioned in any one of I or II.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 12

Each of the item below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer as:
 

A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other
B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

Which train did Anuj catch to go to office?
Statements:
I. Anuj missed his usual train of 10.25 a.m. A train comes in every 5 minutes.
II. Anuj did not catch the 10.40 a.m. train or any train after that time.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 12

From I and II, we conclude that Anuj went to office by either 10.30 a.m. or 10.35 a.m. train.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 13

Each of the items below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other
B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

On which day of the week did Jeetu visit the zoo?
Statements:
I. Jeetu did not visit zoo either on Tuesday or on Thursday.
II. Jeetu visited zoo two days before his mother reached his house which was day after Monday.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 13

According to I, Jeetu visited the zoo on any of the week days exceptTuesday and Thursday.

According to II, Jeetu's mother reached his house day after Monday i.e. on Tuesday.
Thus, Jeetu visited zoo two days before Tuesday i.e. on Sunday.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 14

Each of the items below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other
B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

The Chairman of a big company visits one department on Monday of every week except for the Monday of third week of every month. When did he visit the Sales department?
Statements:
I. He visited Accounts department in the second week of September after having visited Sales department on the earlier occasion.
II. He had visited Sales department immediately after visiting Stores department but before visiting Accounts department.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 14

From I, we can conclude that the Chairman visited Sales department on Monday of the first week of September. The time of visit of no department is mentioned in II, which is, therefore, insufficient.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 15

Each of the items below consists of a question and two statements. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer as:
A: If the question can be answered by data in one of the statements only, but not the other
B: If the data either in statement I or in statement II is sufficient to answer the question
C: If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
D: If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q.

What is the monthly salary of Sachin?
Statements:
I. Sachin gets 15% more than Rakesh while Rakesh gets 10% less than Lokesh.
II. Lokesh's monthly salary is Rs 2500.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 15

From both I and II, we find that:
Sachin's salary = 115% of (90% of Rs 2500) = Rs 2587.50.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 16

Krishna Narayan has been transferred recently to handle a new task. There were initial problems with the productivity of the new team. But, with his skill of interpersonal engagements, Krishna Narayan has brought about observable increase in the performance of the team. He is successfully making all members aware of their roles and standards. What should Krishna Narayan do to keep increasing the productivity?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 16

It is clear that Krishna Narayan is a good leader, but leadership is a continuous requirement of any team, hence (a) is ruled out. As he has been successful in increasing the performance, he should now try to make his team members identify with their roles. Once it is done then the individual is intrinsically motivated to perform their role in better ways. Their involvement will follow then. And deadlines can be easily emphasized. Hence (d) is the best option

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 17

Mrs. Pathak is a successful and able worker. She carries hope and positive energy. But she has an opponent in Mr. Naynar who cannot see eye-to-eye with her in the office. Mr. Ramgoswamy (Mrs. Pathak's Boss) is very fond of Mrs. Pathak because of her past record of successes and sense of optimism. Mrs. Pathak came up with a proposal having complete confidence in its success. But, as usual Mr. Naynar opposed it. What should Mr. Ramgoswamy do?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 17

Option (a) shows a prejudiced approach to relate every criticism by Mr Naynarha having a personal reason, therefore it is ruled out as most inappropriate. As this is Mrs Pathak's proposal, she should be given chance to answer before you take the final decision. When you are already taking the criticisms positively, there is no need for (c), even though it is not totally inappropriate.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 18

You are the administrative head of an area and your primary responsibility includes maintaining law and order and ensuring development of the area. A big car manufacturing company is setting up its car-manufacturing unit in the area and there is a group of people that opposes the setting up to the plant. This group feels that they didn't get a fair deal when their land was transferred to the car manufacturing company. They are demanding that either more compensation be paid or their land be returned to them. A regional political party has also supported their demand and they are protesting against the company. The situation is on the brink of explosion and can turn ugly any moment. In a situation like this you will

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 18

When both the parties are involved in working out the compensation, there are more chances of achieving a win- win situation, hence (b) is the best option, (c) is against democratic principles, so ruled out. (d) is least preferred as there is no demand for the employment.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 19

In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken  for improvement, follow up or further action is regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume anything in the statement to be true, and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
 

Give answer

(a) if only course of action I follows,

(b) if only course of action II follows,

(c) if neither course of action I nor II follows,

(d) if both courses of action I and II follow.

Q.

Statement
There has been significant drop in the water level of all the lakes supplying water to the city.

 

Courses of action
I. The water supply authority should impose a partial cut in supply to tackle the situation.
II. The government should appeal to all the residents through mass media for minimal use of water.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 19

The second step is favourable. As water is among the most essential commodities, partial cut off of supply is not wise. But an appeal to minimise the use, though may not be so effective, can be done without any repercussion.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 20

In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken  for improvement, follow up or further action is regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume anything in the statement to be true, and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
 

Give answer

(a) if only course of action I follows,

(b) if only course of action II follows,

(c) if neither course of action I nor II follows,

(d) if both courses of action I and II follow.

Q.

Statement
The prices of food grains and vegetables have substantially increased due to prolonged strike called by the truck owners' association.

 

Courses of action
I. The government should immediately make alternative arrangement to ensure adequate supply of foodgrains and vegetables in the market.
II. The government should take steps to cancel the licenses of all vehicles belonging to the association.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 20

Foodgrains and vegetables are essential commodities for households. So, the government must arrange for alternative ways to continue the supply of these commodities. But, licenses should not be cancelled forthwith. Before that, the government should resort to negotiations.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 21

In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken  for improvement, follow up or further action is regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume anything in the statement to be true, and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
 

Give answer

(a) if only course of action I follows,

(b) if only course of action II follows,

(c) if neither course of action I nor II follows,

(d) if both courses of action I and II follow.

Q.

Statements
There is an unprecedented increase in migration of villagers to urban areas as repeated crop failure has put them into precarious financial situation.

Courses of action
I. The villagers should be provided with alternate source of income in their villages which will make them stay out.
II. The migrated villagers should be provided with jobs in the urban areas to help them survive.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 21

Action I can help to get rid of the problem of excessive migration from rural to urban areas. Action II also follows because the word ‘precarious financial situation' tells the whole story.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 22

In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken  for improvement, follow up or further action is regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume anything in the statement to be true, and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
 

Give answer

(a) if only course of action I follows,

(b) if only course of action II follows,

(c) if neither course of action I nor II follows,

(d) if both courses of action I and II follow.

Q.

Statements
Many private sector banks have reduced interest rate on housing loans in comparison to public sector banks.

 

Courses of action

I. Public sector banks should explore new avenues in financial sector and try to establish their monopoly in these avenues and they should provide maximum possible and unique benefit to the customers.
II. The public sector banks should advertise their special feature repeatedly so that they do not lose their future customers.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 22

Both the actions will tighten the grip of public sector banks on customers. Hence both follow.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 23

In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken  for improvement, follow up or further action is regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume anything in the statement to be true, and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
 

Give answer

(a) if only course of action I follows,

(b) if only course of action II follows,

(c) if neither course of action I nor II follows,

(d) if both courses of action I and II follow.

Q.

Statements
In the domestic market, the availability of imported fruits has been speeded up. So the demand for the domestic fruits has been decreased.
Courses of action
I. To help the fruit producers of the country—the government should implement strict import duties on these fruits, even in the case of their quality being better.
II. Fruits sellers should stop selling imported fruits, due to this there will be an increase in the selling of domestic fruits.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 23

None of the actions is practical. Both the actions are biased and impractical. Hence, neither I not II follows.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 24

In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken  for improvement, follow up or further action is regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume anything in the statement to be true, and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
 

Give answer

(a) if only course of action I follows,

(b) if only course of action II follows,

(c) if neither course of action I nor II follows,

(d) if both courses of action I and II follow.

Q.

Statements
There is a considerable increase in the number of persons affected by water-borne disease during monsoon period.

Courses of action
I. Government should disseminate adequate information regarding the pure drinking water to people.
II. All the hospitals in the city should be equipped properly for the treatment of patients during monsoon period.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 24

Action I will help in controlling the disease before it spreads. Action II will enable the government to control any eventuality.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 25

In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken  for improvement, follow up or further action is regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume anything in the statement to be true, and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
 

Give answer

(a) if only course of action I follows,

(b) if only course of action II follows,

(c) if neither course of action I nor II follows,

(d) if both courses of action I and II follow.

Q.

Statements
India has been continuously experiencing threats from its neighbouring countries.
Courses of action
I. India should engage into an all-out war to stop the nagging threats.
II. India should get the neighbours into a serious dialogue to reduce the tension at its borders.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 25

War is not a solution to any problem. Hence action I does not follow. Disputes or differences can be solved through dialogue or negotiation. Hence action II follows.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 26

The following item are based on the passage in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these item do not have Hindi version. Read the passage and answerthe item that follow.
 

English Passage - 1
Greenpeace International is sending out a ship to protest a tanker bringing the first oil produced at a new Russian offshore platform in the Arctic Circle to Rotterdam. The environmental group said Monday it has sent the "Rainbow Warrior III" to meet the Mikhail Ulyanov, a tanker chartered by Russia's state-controlled oil company, Gazprom OAO.
In September, 28 Greenpeace activists and two freelance journalists were arrested and charged with piracy after a protest near Gazprom's Prirazlomnaya offshore Arctic platform. They were released before the Winter Olympics in Sochi earlier this year. Their ship, "Arctic Sunrise," is still being held by Russian authorities.
Greenpeace has fiercely opposed the production of oil in the Arctic Circle, warning of the danger of oil spills in such unforgiving territory and ofthe worsening global warming caused by using fossil fuels. In a statement Sunday, Greenpeace added a geopolitical reason, saying buying the oil "increases our dependence on Russian energy firms and only serves to strengthen President Putin's hand in the geopolitical game he's playing."
Greenpeace criticized the French oil company Total SA for purchasing the oil, saying it was being hypocritical because its chief executive, Christophe de Margerie, had ruled out drilling in the Arctic in 2012 due to fears of spills.

Q.

​Arctic Sunrise is

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 26

Refer to the last line of the 5th para, which says that the ship is held by the Russian authorities not the Gazprom OAO

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 27

The following item are based on the passage in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these item do not have Hindi version. Read the passage and answerthe item that follow.
 

English Passage - 1
Greenpeace International is sending out a ship to protest a tanker bringing the first oil produced at a new Russian offshore platform in the Arctic Circle to Rotterdam. The environmental group said Monday it has sent the "Rainbow Warrior III" to meet the Mikhail Ulyanov, a tanker chartered by Russia's state-controlled oil company, Gazprom OAO.
In September, 28 Greenpeace activists and two freelance journalists were arrested and charged with piracy after a protest near Gazprom's Prirazlomnaya offshore Arctic platform. They were released before the Winter Olympics in Sochi earlier this year. Their ship, "Arctic Sunrise," is still being held by Russian authorities.
Greenpeace has fiercely opposed the production of oil in the Arctic Circle, warning of the danger of oil spills in such unforgiving territory and ofthe worsening global warming caused by using fossil fuels. In a statement Sunday, Greenpeace added a geopolitical reason, saying buying the oil "increases our dependence on Russian energy firms and only serves to strengthen President Putin's hand in the geopolitical game he's playing."
Greenpeace criticized the French oil company Total SA for purchasing the oil, saying it was being hypocritical because its chief executive, Christophe de Margerie, had ruled out drilling in the Arctic in 2012 due to fears of spills.

Q.

The reasons in the passage given for the opposition by Greenpeace, to the oil exploration are
1. Global warming
2. Chances of an oil spill
3. Depletion of resources
4. The danger to the flora and fauna there
5. Geopolitical

Choose the correct answer

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 27

Refer to the 6th and 7th paragraph for the reasons of opposition by Greenpeace

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 28

The following item are based on the passage in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these item do not have Hindi version. Read the passage and answer the item that follow.
 

English Passage - 1
 

Greenpeace International is sending out a ship to protest a tanker bringing the first oil produced at a new Russian offshore platform in the Arctic Circle to Rotterdam. The environmental group said Monday it has sent the "Rainbow Warrior III" to meet the Mikhail Ulyanov, a tanker chartered by Russia's state-controlled oil company, Gazprom OAO.
In September, 28 Greenpeace activists and two freelance journalists were arrested and charged with piracy after a protest near Gazprom's Prirazlomnaya offshore Arctic platform. They were released before the Winter Olympics in Sochi earlier this year. Their ship, "Arctic Sunrise," is still being held by Russian authorities.
Greenpeace has fiercely opposed the production of oil in the Arctic Circle, warning of the danger of oil spills in such unforgiving territory and ofthe worsening global warming caused by using fossil fuels. In a statement Sunday, Greenpeace added a geopolitical reason, saying buying the oil "increases our dependence on Russian energy firms and only serves to strengthen President Putin's hand in the geopolitical game he's playing."
Greenpeace criticized the French oil company Total SA for purchasing the oil, saying it was being hypocritical because its chief executive, Christophe de Margerie, had ruled out drilling in the Arctic in 2012 due to fears of spills.

Q.

The word in underlined  "hypocritical" most nearly means in the passage as

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 28

Hypocritical is derived from the word hypocrite

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 29

The following item are based on the passage in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these item do not have Hindi version. Read the passage and answerthe item that follow.
 

English Passage - 2
The helix is a complex shape found in many natural settings. It is commonly illustrated by the shape of DNA molecules. The roots of some plants also burrow as helices, like corkscrews winding downward in search of richer soil. But during an experiment at Harvard University, mechanical engineers were surprised when a pair of rubber ribbons expected to form a helix did not, buckling into a shape rarely observed in nature.
Every helix winds in a left or right direction. The engineers observed what they called a hemi helix: a helix that changes its direction midway. The region along which it changes its direction is called a perversion. Charles Darwin observed plant tendrils forming hemi helices in 1888. Thanks to the Harvard team, we know why they form: "as a result of elastic instabilities", according to Katia Bertoldi, a professor of applied mechanics at the university and a participant in the study.
"The geometry and pre-stretch parameters assign different competition power to these two categories," explained Dr. Bertoldi in an email. Specifically, they found that which shape forms depends on the strips' aspect ratio: the ratio of its length to width. With fixed stretching force for a given polymer, hemi helices were preferred for lower aspect ratios, when the buckling load increased. For ratios around or under 1, the number of perversions increased quickly. For ratios over 3, helices were preferred.
Thus, by tweaking the make-up of certain elastic ribbons, Dr. Bertoldi's work shows we can deterministically manufacture complex 3D shapes from flat structures. This is already a ubiquitous enterprise — e.g. beating sheet metal into the chassis of a car. "The potential applications involve 3D electromagnetic wave-guides, and mechanical, thermal and chemical sensors," Prof. Bertoldi added.

Q.

The shape of hemi helices in nature was first observed by

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 29

The passage has not mentioned that Mr. Darwin was the 1st one to observe hemi helices. The Harvard team came out with the explanation of formation of hemi helices.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 30

The following item are based on the passage in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these item do not have Hindi version. Read the passage and answerthe item that follow.
 

English Passage - 2
The helix is a complex shape found in many natural settings. It is commonly illustrated by the shape of DNA molecules. The roots of some plants also burrow as helices, like corkscrews winding downward in search of richer soil. But during an experiment at Harvard University, mechanical engineers were surprised when a pair of rubber ribbons expected to form a helix did not, buckling into a shape rarely observed in nature.
Every helix winds in a left or right direction. The engineers observed what they called a hemi helix: a helix that changes its direction midway. The region along which it changes its direction is called a perversion. Charles Darwin observed plant tendrils forming hemi helices in 1888. Thanks to the Harvard team, we know why they form: "as a result of elastic instabilities", according to Katia Bertoldi, a professor of applied mechanics at the university and a participant in the study.
"The geometry and pre-stretch parameters assign different competition power to these two categories," explained Dr. Bertoldi in an email. Specifically, they found that which shape forms depends on the strips' aspect ratio: the ratio of its length to width. With fixed stretching force for a given polymer, hemi helices were preferred for lower aspect ratios, when the buckling load increased. For ratios around or under 1, the number of perversions increased quickly. For ratios over 3, helices were preferred.
Thus, by tweaking the make-up of certain elastic ribbons, Dr. Bertoldi's work shows we can deterministically manufacture complex 3D shapes from flat structures. This is already a ubiquitous enterprise — e.g. beating sheet metal into the chassis of a car. "The potential applications involve 3D electromagnetic wave-guides, and mechanical, thermal and chemical sensors," Prof. Bertoldi added.

Q.

The chances of formation of hemi helices instead of helices depend on
1. The aspect ratio
2. The buckling load Choose the correct answer

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 Practice Test - 6 - Question 30

Both options are correct. Refer to the 4th line of the 4th para.

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