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ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 Free Online Test 2026


Full Mock Test & Solutions: ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 (200 Questions)

You can boost your Insurance Exams 2026 exam preparation with this ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 (available with detailed solutions).. This mock test has been designed with the analysis of important topics, recent trends of the exam, and previous year questions of the last 3-years. All the questions have been designed to mirror the official pattern of Insurance Exams 2026 exam, helping you build speed, accuracy as per the actual exam.

Mock Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 140 minutes
  • - Total Questions: 200
  • - Analysis: Detailed Solutions & Performance Insights
  • - Sections covered: Reasoning Ability, Quantitative Aptitude, English Language, Computer Knowledge, General Awareness

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ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 1

In a row of 40 girls, when Komal was shifted to her left by 4 places her number from the left end of the row become 10. What was the number of Swati from the right end of the row, if Swati was three places to the right of Komal’s original position?

Detailed Solution: Question 1

The correct option is B.
On shifting 4 the left Komal is 10th from the left end of the row. Thus, Komal's original position was 14th from the left end.

Swati is 3 places to the right of Komal's original positions Clearly, swati is 17 th from the left end. Number of girls to the right of swati =(40−17)=23.
 Thus, Swati is 24th from the right end of the row.
 

ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 2

Directions to Solve

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.

Question -

Peacock : India :: Bear : ?

Detailed Solution: Question 2

As Peacock is the national bird of India, similarly Bear is the national animal of Russia.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 3

Directions to Solve

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.

Question -

REASON : SFBTPO :: THINK : ?

Detailed Solution: Question 3

Hence, the correct ans is UIJOL which is option b.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 4

Directions to Solve: In each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Give answer:
- (A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- (B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- (C) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
- (D) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
- (E) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Question: On a T.V. channel, four serials A, B, C, and D were screened, one on eacn days, on four consecutive days but not necessarily in that order. On which day was serial C screened?
Statements:
I. The first serial was screened on 23rd, Tuesday and was followed by serial D.
II. Serial A was not screened on 25th and one serial was screened between serials A and B.

Detailed Solution: Question 4

From I, we know that the serials were screened on 23rd, 24th, 25th and 26th.

Clearly, D was screened second i.e. on 24th, Wednesday.

From II, we know that one serial was screened between A and B.

So, A and B were screened first and third, i.e. on 23rd and 25th. But, A was not screened on 25th.

So, A was screened on 23rd and B on 25th. Thus, C was screened on 26th, Friday.

So Option C is correct

ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 5

Directions: This question given below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the following arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument. 
Statement: 
Should there be restrictions on free media?
Arguments: 
I. Yes. Sometimes restrictions are needed to control free media.
II. No. It’s the fourth pillar of our democracy.

Detailed Solution: Question 5

I doesn’t provide any argument, but merely restate the Statement differently. Thus, I is weak. Just because the media is the fourth pillar of democracy doesn’t mean that it should operate without legitimate and rightful restrictions on it. Thus, II is also weak.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 6

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the given question.

In a certain code:
'chest teeth gap limb' is coded as Q&2 C%3 U#4 I?4
'borrow some corn people' is coded as F@3 0#3 X!5 F*5
'eat bank scheme tomato' is coded as P?5 L!3 U^2 F@5
'gossible come person gones' is coded as F#3 T&4 F&7 O*5

What will be the code for 'linguist paraglide emperor'?

Detailed Solution: Question 6

The code for every word consists of three elements.
1. Immediate successor of the last letter of the word
2. Symbol is assigned according to the first letter of the word.

First letter is coded as follows:

3. The number which is one less than the number of letters in the word
So, code for linguist is U%7.
Code for paraglide is F*8.
Code for emperor is S^6.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 7

Directions: These questions are based on the following information, read the comprehension carefully to answer the given questions.
Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table but not necessarily in the same order. Some are facing inside and some are facing outside. Not more than two people facing same direction are sitting together.
H sits third to the right of C who is not facing outside. Immediate neighbours of H are facing same directions with respect to each other but opposite direction with respect to H who is facing inside. B is the immediate neighbor of E and both are facing same direction. E sits second to the left of C who is not the immediate neighbor of B. There are equal number of persons facing inside and outside direction. B sits third to the left of A and both are facing opposite directions to each other. H sits to the immediate right of D. F sits second to the left of G.

Q. What is the position of F with respect to E?

Detailed Solution: Question 7

Following the common explanation, we can see that F sits third to the right of E.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
Final arrangement:

Common Explanation:
References:
H sits third to the right of C who is not facing outside.
E sits second to the left of C who is not the immediate neighbor of B.
B is the immediate neighbor of E and both are facing same direction.
Inferences:
From 1st reference it is clear that C is facing inside and H will sit third to the right of C.
2nd and 3rd references mean that E will sit at a gap of 1 to the left of C and B will not sit with C.

References:
Immediate neighbor of H are facing same direction to each other but opposite direction with respect to H who is facing inside.
B is the immediate neighbor of E and both are facing same direction
B sits third to the left of A and both are facing opposite directions to each other
Inferences:
Immediate neighbor of H are facing same direction to each other but opposite direction with respect to H who is facing inside. It means both the neighbors will face outside.
B sits third to the left of A and both are facing opposite directions to each other. It means B faces inside and A faces outside. A
B is the immediate neighbor of E and both are facing same direction. Hence both E and B face inside.

References:
There are equal numbers of person facing inside and outside direction. Only three people sit between P and R.
H sits to the immediate right of D
F sits second to the left of G.
Inferences:
Hence immediate neighbors of C will face outside as only four people face inside.
H will sit on immediate right of D and C will be the neighbor of F and G.

Hence, we get the final arrangement.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 8

Directions: Read the information given below to answer these questions:
(i) Aarti is older than Sanya.
(ii) Muskan is elder than Aarti but younger than Kashish.
(iii) Kashish is elder than Sanya.
(iv) Sanya is younger than Muskan.
(v) Gargi is the eldest.

Q. Daksh is taller than Manick but not as tall as Rohan. Somesh is shorter than Daksh but taller than Farhan. Who among them is the shortest?

Detailed Solution: Question 8

In terms of heights, we have: Rohan > Daksh > Manick, Daksh > Somesh > Farhan.
Thus, the whole sequence may be :
(i) Rohan > Daksh > Manick > Somesh > Farhan; or
(ii) Rohan > Daksh > Somesh > Manick > Farhan; or
(iii) Rohan > Daksh > Somesh > Farhan > Manick.
Thus, either Manick or Farhan may be the shortest.
So, the given information is insufficient.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 9

Directions: A word and number arrangement machine, when given an input line of words and numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: hard 27 nut 14 impossible 54 to 86 crack 62
Step1:54 hard 27 nut 14 impossible 86 crack 62 to
Step2:86 54 hard 27 14 impossible crack 62 to nut
Step3:14 86 54 hard 27 crack 62 to nut impossible
Step4:62 14 86 54 27 crack to nut impossible hard
Step5:27 62 14 86 54 to nut impossible hard crack

Step 5 is the final output.
Find the different steps of output using the above-mentioned logic for the following input.
Input: deeds 39 for 96 humanity 75 give 27 pleasure 62

Q. In which of the following steps, 96 is seen exactly between 62 and 75 for the first time?

Detailed Solution: Question 9

From the following output it is clear that 96 is seen exactly between 62 and 75 for the first time in step 1.
Step1: 75 deeds 39 for 96 humanity give 27 62 pleasure
Hence option A is correct.

Final Output:
Input: deeds 39 for 96 humanity 75 give 27 pleasure 62
Step1:75 deeds 39 for 96 humanity give 27 62 pleasure
Step2:96 75 deeds 39 for give 27 62 pleasure humanity
Step3:62 96 75 deeds 39 for 27 pleasure humanity give
Step4:27 62 96 75 deeds 39 pleasure humanity give for
Step5:39 27 62 96 75 pleasure humanity give for deeds 

Common Explanation:
Change in Number: Change in numbers take place as per the ascending order of the difference of the digits of each number. The number whose difference of digits is the smallest is taken first for rearrangement and shifted at extreme left end.
Change in Word: Change in words take place as per the reverse alphabetical order. The word whose first letter comes last as per the English alphabetical series is taken first for rearrangement and shifted at the extreme right end.

Note: Changes in word and number take place simultaneously in each step.

The given pattern:
Input: hard 27 nut 14 impossible 54 to 86 crack 62
Step1:54 hard 27 nut 14 impossible 86 crack 62 to
Step2:86 54 hard 27 14 impossible crack 62 to nut
Step3:14 86 54 hard 27 crack 62 to nut impossible
Step4:62 14 86 54 27 crack to nut impossible hard
Step5:27 62 14 86 54 to nut impossible hard crack

Solution to the given input:
Input: deeds 39 for 96 humanity 75 give 27 pleasure 62
Step1:75 deeds 39 for 96 humanity give 27 62 pleasure
Step2:96 75 deeds 39 for give 27 62 pleasure humanity
Step3:62 96 75 deeds 39 for 27 pleasure humanity give
Step4:27 62 96 75 deeds 39 pleasure humanity give for
Step5:39 27 62 96 75 pleasure humanity give for deeds

ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 10

A man goes to his office from his house at a speed of 3 km/hr and returns at a speed of 2 km/hr. If he takes 5 hours in going and coming, what is the distance between his house and office?

Detailed Solution: Question 10

If the distance between house and office is d km
Then time taken to go from home to office = d/3 hr (Time = Distance/Speed)
and Time taken to come back from office to home= d/2 hr
So total time taken = (d/3 +d/2) hour
But according to question , time taken = 5 hour
so we have
d/3+d/2=5
or (2d+3d)/6= 5
or 5d/6=5
or, d=5 x6/5= 6km
So distance between home and office = 6km

ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 11

The odds in favour of standing first of three students Amit, Vikas and Vivek appearing at an examination are 1 : 2. 2 : 5 and 1 : 7 respectively. What is the probability that either of them will stand first (assume that a tie for the first place is not possible).

Detailed Solution: Question 11

P (Amit) = 1/3

P (Vikas) = 2/7

P (Vivek) = 1/8.
Required Probability = 1/3 + 2/7 + 1/8 = 125/168.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 12

If a – b = 7 and a2 + b2 = 53, find the value of ab.

Detailed Solution: Question 12

2ab = (a2 + b2) – (a – b)2
2ab = 53-49 =4
ab =4/2 = 2

So option E is correct

ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 13

How is A related to B?
I. B is the only brother of R, whose father is Q.
II. A is the only son of G, who is only sister of R.

Detailed Solution: Question 13

From I : Q is the father of both B and R, R has only 1 brother
From II : G is sister of R, and A is G’s son
So from both statements, B , R and G are brothers and sisters. B is brother. G is sister, so B is A’s uncle.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 14

What is A’s position from the left end in a row of children facing South?
I. B is tenth to the left of A and fifteenth from the right end of the row.
II. There are 44 children besides A in the row

Detailed Solution: Question 14

From I : B is at 15th position from right, A is 10th to right of B, so A is 5th from the right but we are not able to know the position from left.
From II : There are 45 children in the row. From both statements, A is 41st from left end.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 15

Ratio between the lateral surface area and the total surface area of a right circular cylinder is 3 : 5. If the lateral surface area is 1848 sq. m, then volume of the cylinder is (in cubic m).

Detailed Solution: Question 15

Lateral surface area (L. S. A.) = 2πrh
Total surface area = (T. S. A.) = 2πr(r + h)

5h = 3h + 3r
2h = 3r

r2 = 196
r = 14 m

= 12,936 cubic m

ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 16

The given rectangle ABCD has length 9 and width 5. Diagonal AC is divided into 5 equal parts at W, X, Y and Z. Find the area of the shaded region.

Detailed Solution: Question 16

Triangle ABC has area 
Triangles ABW, WBX, XBY, YBZ and ZBC have equal bases and altitudes, so the area of each of these small triangles is 1/5
Similarly, triangles ADW, WDX, XDY, YDZ and ZDC each have area 9/2.
Thus, the shaded region has area 

ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 17

Directions: Study the table given below and answer the questions that follow:
Total Number of Employees in different Departments of an Organization and Percentage of Females and Males.

Q. What is the respective ratio of the number of females in Production department to the number of females in the Marketing department?

Detailed Solution: Question 17

Number of females in Production : Number of females in Marketing

ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 18

Directions: Study the table given below and answer the questions that follow:
Total Number of Employees in different Departments of an Organization and Percentage of Females and Males.

Q. What is the ratio of the number of females in the HR and Accounts department together to the number of males in the same department together?

Detailed Solution: Question 18

(Number of females in HR and Accounts) : (Number of males in HR and Accounts)

= (234 + 77) : (126 + 143)
= 311 : 269

ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 19

Directions : Study the following bar chart carefully and answer the questions given below:
Given line graph shows the data of washing machines of different price range of various brands during Diwali festival.

Q. How many washing machines of price up to Rs. 10000 were sold in the festival?

Detailed Solution: Question 19

Washing machines of price up to Rs. 10000
 that were sold in the festival = 500 + 450 + 250 + 320 + 220 = 1740
 Hence, option B is the correct answer.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 20

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given beside.
Three online hotel booking website A,B and C listed some hotels on their websites. The all listed 3 star, 4 star and 5 star hotels. One hotel can be listed on exactly one website. 
Further it is known that 

  1. Total number of hotels listed on all three website together is 720. 
  2. Total number of 4 star hotels is twice the total number of 3 star hotels on all the three websites taken together. Further, total number of 5 star hotels is thrice the total number of 4 star hotels on all three sites together. 
  3. Out of 200 hotels listed on Websites A, 30% are 3 star hotels.
  4. Ratio of 5 star hotels on sites A,B and C are 1 : 1 : 2.
  5. Number of 5 star hotels on B website is 20% more than number of 4 star hotels on the same website. 
  6. Number of 3 star hotels on website B and C are same. 

Q. Website D also started listing of Hotels on their site. Number of 3 star hotels on site D is 50% more than number of 4 star hotels on site A. Total number of hotels (3 star, 4 star and 5 star) on site D are 500, out of which 50% are 4 star. Find the number of 5 star hotels listed on site D. 

Detailed Solution: Question 20

Following the common explanation, we get
3 star hotels on site D is 50% more than number of 4 star hotels on site A
3 star hotels on Site D = 150% of 20 = 30
Total Hotels on site D = 500
Out of Which 50% are 4 star = 250
Number of 4 star hotels on site D = 500 – 250 – 30 = 220
Hence, option B is correct.

Common explanation :
It is given that total number of hotels is 720. 
4 star hotels = 2 × (3 star hotels)
5 star hotels = 3 × (4 star hotels)
Let, 3 star hotels M, 4 star hotels N and 5 star hotels P. 
N = 2M
P = 3N
M + 2M + 6M = 720
9M = 720
M = 80
N = 160
P = 480
Total 200 hotels listed on sites A. Out of which, 30% are 3 star.
60 hotels are there in 3 star category on Site A. 
Total 5 star hotels are 480. 
Ratio of the hotels on site A, B and C is 1:1:2. 
4x = 480
x = 120
Number of 5 star hotels on B website is 20% more than number of 4 star hotels on the same website.
Number of 5 Star Hotels on site B = 120 
So, number of 4 star hotels on site B would be 100. 
Total 4 star hotels are 160.
So 4 star hotels on site C will be 160 – 20 – 100 = 40
Number of 3 star hotels on website B and C are same. 
Total 80
 
So 3 star and 4 star hotels on site B and C should be 10. 

ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 21

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given beside.
Three online hotel booking website A,B and C listed some hotels on their websites. The all listed 3 star, 4 star and 5 star hotels. One hotel can be listed on exactly one website. 
Further it is known that 

  1. Total number of hotels listed on all three website together is 720. 
  2. Total number of 4 star hotels is twice the total number of 3 star hotels on all the three websites taken together. Further, total number of 5 star hotels is thrice the total number of 4 star hotels on all three sites together. 
  3. Out of 200 hotels listed on Websites A, 30% are 3 star hotels.
  4. Ratio of 5 star hotels on sites A,B and C are 1 : 1 : 2.
  5. Number of 5 star hotels on B website is 20% more than number of 4 star hotels on the same website. 
  6. Number of 3 star hotels on website B and C are same. 

Q. What is the difference between 3 star hotels on site A and 4 star hotels on site C ?

Detailed Solution: Question 21

Following the common explanation, we get
3 star Hotels on site A = 60
4 star Hotels on Site C = 40
Difference = 20
Hence, option A is correct.

Common explanation :
It is given that total number of hotels is 720. 
4 star hotels = 2 × (3 star hotels)
5 star hotels = 3 × (4 star hotels)
Let, 3 star hotels M, 4 star hotels N and 5 star hotels P. 
N = 2M
P = 3N
M + 2M + 6M = 720
9M = 720
M = 80
N = 160
P = 480
Total 200 hotels listed on sites A. Out of which, 30% are 3 star.
60 hotels are there in 3 star category on Site A. 
Total 5 star hotels are 480. 
Ratio of the hotels on site A, B and C is 1:1:2. 
4x = 480
x = 120
Number of 5 star hotels on B website is 20% more than number of 4 star hotels on the same website.
Number of 5 Star Hotels on site B = 120 
So, number of 4 star hotels on site B would be 100. 
Total 4 star hotels are 160.
So 4 star hotels on site C will be 160 – 20 – 100 = 40
Number of 3 star hotels on website B and C are same. 
Total 80
 
So 3 star and 4 star hotels on site B and C should be 10. 

ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 22

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Natasha wants to pursue her B. Tech from Massachusetts Institute of Technology, United States, but to be able to afford it, she has to take an education loan. The loan agreement guaranteed to pay 80% of all her expenses. This way she only had to bear the remaining costs. As soon as she landed in the United States, she had to pay the rent for her new apartment. The apartment rent was $550 per month. She then paid her tuition fee for the current semester worth $25000. On an average she spent $340 on utilities and groceries per month. Given that, Natasha's course lasted a total of two years (comprising of 2 semesters per year) and the bank gave 80% of the total expenses of two years at the beginning of her course.

Q. How much did the bank have to pay in total for two years on behalf of Natasha?

Detailed Solution: Question 22

Total expenditure on rent = 24 months × $550 = $13200
Total expenditure on utilities = 24 months × $340 = $8160
Total expenditure on tuition fees = 4 semesters × $25000 = $100000
Thus total expenditure = $(13200 + 8160 + 100000) = $121360
The bank paid 80% of this amount.
∴ Amount paid by the bank = (80/100) × 121360 = $97088
Hence, option C is correct.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 23

Direction: Study the pie-chart given below carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Percentage-wise break up of students in terms of specialization in M.B.A.
Total Number of students = 8000.

Q. What is the total number of students having IB as specialisation?

Detailed Solution: Question 23

Number of students in various specialisations:

Number of those having IB as specialisation = 1520

ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 24

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

Detailed Solution: Question 24

to look after the marketing network of the company

ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 25

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

Detailed Solution: Question 25

was allowed to go near the factory

ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 26

The rate of metabolism of (a) / a body is comparatively lowest when (b) / it is at rest and is (c) / thus optimum for examination (d) / No error (e)

Detailed Solution: Question 26

Error Analysis:

  • Issue: The error is in the phrase "a body is comparatively lowest when."

  • Correction: The correct phrase should be "a body is at its lowest when."


Detailed Explanation:

  • The phrase "a body is comparatively lowest when" is incorrect as it is not grammatically accurate.

  • The correct phrase should be "a body is at its lowest when" to convey the intended meaning.

  • The use of "at its lowest" instead of "comparatively lowest" makes the sentence clearer and more precise.

  • By making this correction, the sentence will read: "The rate of metabolism of a body is at its lowest when it is at rest and is thus optimum for examination."


By identifying and correcting the error in the given sentence, the intended meaning is conveyed more effectively and clearly.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 27

The first PC virus was developed in _______.

Detailed Solution: Question 27

The Creeper virus, created by Bob Thomas at BBN in 1971, is widely acknowledged as the first computer virus. It was designed as an experimental self-replicating program to demonstrate the concept of a mobile application, rather than to cause harm.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 28

Which postal organizations signed a bilateral Tracked Packet agreement to start International Tracked Packet Service?

Detailed Solution: Question 28

India Post and Canada Post signed a bilateral Tracked Packet agreement to start International Tracked Packet Service. This agreement is a significant step towards promoting cross-border e-commerce exports between the two countries. The service will provide a competitive shipping solution for packets weighing up to 2.0 kg, offering tracking facilities and fulfilling the demand of exporters. With this agreement, India now has this service available with 39 partner countries, aligning with the country's focus on increasing exports.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 29

What was the objective of the MoU signed between the National Anti-Doping Agency, India, and the South Asia Regional Anti-Doping Organization (SARADO)?

Detailed Solution: Question 29

The Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) signed between the National Anti-Doping Agency, India, and the South Asia Regional Anti-Doping Organization (SARADO) aims to facilitate regional cooperation in anti-doping efforts. SARADO consists of Anti-Doping Organizations from Bangladesh, Bhutan, Maldives, Nepal, and Sri Lanka. The MoU reinforces India's commitment to promoting clean sports and contributing to the global anti-doping movement through collaborative initiatives.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 7 - Question 30

Who has been re-appointed as the Solicitor General of India?

Detailed Solution: Question 30

Tushar Mehta has been re-appointed as the Solicitor General of India. As a senior counsel, Mehta brings extensive legal expertise to the role. He has been recognized for his contributions to the field of law, holding a law degree from Gujarat University and receiving honorary doctorates from Amity University, Noida, and Karnataka State Law University.

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