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ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Bank Exams MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - ECGC PO Mock Test - 10

ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 for Bank Exams 2024 is part of Bank Exams preparation. The ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Bank Exams exam syllabus.The ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 MCQs are made for Bank Exams 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 below.
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ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 1

Directions to Solve: In each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Give answer:
- (A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- (B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- (C) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
- (D) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
- (E) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Question: On which date in August was Kapil born ?
Statements:
I.Kapil's mother remembers that Kapil was born before nineteenth but after fifteenth.
II.Kapil's brother remembers that Kapil was born before seventeenth but after twelfth.

Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 1

From I, we conclude that Kapil was born on any one of the dates among 16th, 17th and 18th.

From II, we conclude that Kapil was born on any one of the dates among 13th, 14th, 15th and 16th.

Thus, from both I and II, we conclude that Kapil was born on 16th August.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 2

Directions to Solve

In each of the following questions two statements are given. Which are followed by four conclusions (1), (2), (3) and (4). Choose the conclusions which logically follow from the given statements.

Question -

Statements: All the goats are tigers. All the tigers are lions.

Conclusions:

  1. All the goats are lions.
  2. All the lions are goats.
  3. Some lions are goats.
  4. Some tigers are goats.

Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 2

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ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 3

M is the father of N who is the son of V. In order to know the relation of M to P, which of the statement/statements is/are necessary?

  1. P is the brother of V.
  2. The daughter of N is the granddaughter of V.

 

Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 3

M is the father of N and N is the son of V.

Hence, V is the mother of N.

From (1), P is the brother of V

Therefore, M is the brother-in-law of P because V is the wife of M.

From (2), the daughter of N, is the granddaughter of V. From this we do not get any relation of M to P.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 4

Statement:

A>S>P>O=E

Conclusions:

I. P≥E

II. S>E

Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 4

If only Conclusion II follow

ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 5

Direction: In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.

Statements: Recent trends also indicate that the number of child migrants in large cities is increasing. These children leave their families to join the ranks of urban poor doing odd jobs in markets, workshops, hotels or in service sectors.

Conclusions:

  1. Migration to big cities should be checked.
  2. The plight of poor children should be thoroughly studied.
Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 5

The statement mentions the problem of increased migration of children to cities. But the ways to deal with the problem cannot be deduced from it. So, neither I nor II follows.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 6
  • A is the sister of B.
  • B is the brother of C,
  • C is the son of D.

How is D related to A?

Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 6
  • B is the brother of C.
  • C is the son of D.
  • A is the sister of B and C

Thus, D is either father or mother of A, B and C.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 7

Directions: Study the following information and answer the questions given below it:
A blacksmith has five iron articles A, B, C, D and E, each having a different weight.
(i) A weights twice as much as B.
(ii) B weights four and a half times as much as C.
(iii) C weights half as much as D.
(iv) D weights half as much as E.
(v) E weights less than A but more than C.

Q. Which of the following is the lightest in weight?

Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 7

Understanding the Weights of the Articles:
From the information given, we can deduce the following:

  • Article A: We know that A weights twice as much as B. However, without knowing the weight of B, we cannot determine the exact weight of A.
  • Article B: B weighs four and a half times as much as C. Again, without the weight of C, we cannot determine the weight of B.
  • Article C: C weighs half as much as D, which means D is twice as heavy as C.
  • Article D: D weighs half as much as E, making E twice as heavy as D.
  • Article E: E weighs less than A but more than C.


Determining the Lightest Article:
From the above information, we can infer that C is the lightest article. Here's why:

  • C weighs half as much as D. This means C is lighter than D.
  • Since D weighs half as much as E, E is heavier than both C and D.
  • B weighs four and a half times as much as C. This implies B is heavier than C.
  • A weighs twice as much as B. Given that B is heavier than C, A is also heavier than C.

Hence, C is the lightest among all the articles.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 8

Directions: A word and number arrangement machine, when given an input line of words and numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: Fable 76 Quibble 24 Terrible 54 Able 82 Gamble 65
Step1:82 Fable 76 Quibble 24 Terrible 54 Gamble 65 Able
Step2:Fable 82 76 Quibble 24 Terrible 54 Gamble Able 65
Step3:76 Fable 82 Quibble 24 Terrible 54 Able 65 Gamble
Step4:Quibble 76 Fable 82 Terrible 54 Able 65 Gamble 24
Step5:54 Quibble 76 Fable 82 Able 65 Gamble 24 Terrible

Step 5 is the final output.
Find the different steps of output using the above-mentioned logic for the following input.
Input: Scientific 29 Majestic 34 Fantastic 58 Hectic 77 Genetic 84

Q. What is the sum of the numbers that fall between 'Scientific' and 'Majestic' in step 4?

Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 8

From the following output it is clear that sum of the numbers that come between Scientific and Majestic in step4 is 34+84 = 118.
Step4:Fantastic 58 Genetic 29 Scientific 34 Hectic 84 Majestic 77
Hence option A is correct.

Final Output:
Input: Scientific 29 Majestic 34 Fantastic 58 Hectic 77 Genetic 84
Step1:29 Scientific Majestic 34 Fantastic 58 77 Genetic 84 Hectic
Step2: Genetic 29 Scientific Majestic 34 Fantastic 58 77 Hectic 84 
Step3: 58 Genetic 29 Scientific 34 Fantastic 77 Hectic 84 Majestic
Step4: Fantastic 58 Genetic 29 Scientific 34 Hectic 84 Majestic 77
Step5: 34 Fantastic 58 Genetic 29 Hectic 84 Majestic 77 Scientific

Common Explanation:
Change in Number: Change in numbers take place as per the ascending order of the sum of the digits until a single digit is obtained. The numbers are placed at alternate extreme ends starting from the extreme left end.
Change in Word: Change in words take place as per the ascending order of the number of letters in each word. The words are placed at alternate extreme ends starting from the extreme right end.
Note: Changes in word and number take place simultaneously in each step.

The given pattern:
Input: Fable 76 Quibble 24 Terrible 54 Able 82 Gamble 65
Step1: 82 Fable 76 Quibble 24 Terrible 54 Gamble 65 Able
Step2: Fable 82 76 Quibble 24 Terrible 54 Gamble Able 65
Step3: 76 Fable 82 Quibble 24 Terrible 54 Able 65 Gamble
Step4: Quibble 76 Fable 82 Terrible 54 Able 65 Gamble 24
Step5: 54 Quibble 76 Fable 82 Able 65 Gamble 24 Terrible

The solution to the given input:
Input: Scientific 29 Majestic 34 Fantastic 58 Hectic 77 Genetic 84
Step1: 29 Scientific Majestic 34 Fantastic 58 77 Genetic 84 Hectic
Step2: Genetic 29 Scientific Majestic 34 Fantastic 58 77 Hectic 84 
Step3: 58 Genetic 29 Scientific 34 Fantastic 77 Hectic 84 Majestic
Step4: Fantastic 58 Genetic 29 Scientific 34 Hectic 84 Majestic 77
Step5:34 Fantastic 58 Genetic 29 Hectic 84 Majestic 77 Scientific

ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 9

The odds against an event is 5 : 3 and the odds in favour of another independent event is 7 : 5. Find the probability that at least one of the two events will occur.

Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 9

P (E1) 3/8

P (E2) = 7/12.
Event definition is: E1 occurs and E2 does not occur or E1 occurs and E2 occurs or E2 occurs and E1 does not occur.

(3/8) x (5/12) + (3/8) x (7/12) + (5/8) x (7/12) = 71/96.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 10

How is Shubham related to Shivani?
I. Shubham is brother of Meenal. Shivani is niece of Preeti.
II. Neeraj is Meenal’s uncle and Preeti’s brother

Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 10

Either statement cant give the answer. From both statements we get the relationship as Preeti is Neeraj’s sister but it cannot be clearly said that Shubham and Meenal are Preeti’s children or not and Shivani is Neeraj’s daughter, because there can be other siblings of Neeraj and Preeti also.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 11

If 350 stones of spherical shape are dropped into a hemispherical cup containing some water, they get fully submerged. Diameter of the cup is 14 m. What will be the radius of the stone, if the water just spills off from the hemispherical cup?

Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 11

Diameter of the hemispherical cup = 14 m
Therefore, radius of the hemispherical cup = 7 m
We know that,
Volume of the hemisphere 
Volume of sphere 
Let r be the radius of a stone.
According to the question,
350 × volume of stone = volume of hemispherical cup

700r3 = (7)3
r3 = 0.49

Therefore, radius is 0.79 m.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 12

Find the approximate time taken to fill a chemical conical vessel, if the flow rate is 20 meters per minute from a cylindrical pipe whose diameter is 5 meters. Take diameter and depth of the conical vessel as 80 meters and 48 meters, respectively.

Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 12

Radius of cylindrical pipe (r) = 5/2 meters
Flow rate = 20 m/min
Diameter of conical vessel = 80 meters
Depth of the vessel (h) = 48 meters
According to the question,
Volume of the chemical flow through the pipe in one minute,

[here, h = 20 m]
= 125π m3
Volume of conical vessel,

= 25,600 m3
Therefore, time taken
 

ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 13

When the sum of two natural numbers is multiplied by each number separately, the products obtained are 2418 and 3666. What is the difference between the two numbers?  

Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 13

Suppose the numbers are x and y, then: 
x(x + y) = 3666 … (1)
y(x + y) = 2418 … (2)
Adding 1 and 2, we get
(x + y)2 = 6084
Therefore, x + y = 78 … (3)
Subtracting (2) from (1), we get
x2 - y2 = 1248
Or, (x + y)(x - y) = 1248
Or, 78(x - y) = 1248
Or, x - y = 16
Hence, option 1 is correct.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 14

Directions: Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Semester fees (In Rs. thousands) for five Different Courses in 6 different years.

Q. What was the average semester fee charged for M. Sc. course over all the years together?

Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 14

Average semester fee for M. Sc. course over the give years.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 15

Directions: Study the following bar chart carefully and answer the questions given beside.
In the bar chart, the total numbers of students enrolled in different years from 2015 to 2019 in Sunshine and Aryan Summer camps are given.

Q. If in the year 2020 there is 30% increase in total number of students enrolled as compared to 2019, find the total number of students enrolled in 2020?

Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 15

Number of students enrolled in 2019 in both camps = 70 + 150 = 220
Total number of students enrolled in 2020 in both camps


Hence, option A is correct.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 16

Directions: Study the following bar chart carefully and answer the questions given beside.
In the bar chart, the total numbers of students enrolled in different years from 2015 to 2019 in Sunshine and Aryan Summer camps are given.

Q. The number of students of Sunshine in 2015 is what percentage of the number of students of Aryan in 2017?

Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 16

In 2015, the number of students in Sunshine = 170
In 2017, the number of students in Aryan = 160


Hence, option C is correct.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 17

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Natasha wants to pursue her B. Tech from Massachusetts Institute of Technology, United States, but to be able to afford it, she has to take an education loan. The loan agreement guaranteed to pay 80% of all her expenses. This way she only had to bear the remaining costs. As soon as she landed in the United States, she had to pay the rent for her new apartment. The apartment rent was $550 per month. She then paid her tuition fee for the current semester worth $25000. On an average she spent $340 on utilities and groceries per month. Given that, Natasha's course lasted a total of two years (comprising of 2 semesters per year) and the bank gave 80% of the total expenses of two years at the beginning of her course.

Q. If the bank charges simple interest at the rate of 9% per annum, then find the total interest amount that Natasha paid after 2 years. (Assume she pays off the entire loan after 2 years of completion of course)

Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 17

Total expenditure on rent = 24 months × $550 = $13200
Total expenditure on utilities = 24 months × $340 = $8160
Total expenditure on tuition fees = 4 semesters × $25000 = $100000
Thus total expenditure = 13200 + 8160 + 100000 = $121360
The bank paid 80% of this amount.
∴ Amount paid by the bank = 80/100 × 121360 = $97088
Simple Interest = (97088 × 2 × 9)/100 = $17475. 84
Hence, option E is correct.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 18

Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'D'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 18

without the other's coming too

ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 19

In the following questions four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase italicised and underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of idiom/phrase. 

 

Q. He is an interesting speaker but tends to go off at a tangent.

Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 19

go off at a tangent. to suddenly start talking or thinking about a completely new subject.

Hence, the correct answer is option a i.e. change the subject immediately.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 20

In the following questions four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase italicised and underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of idiom/phrase. 

 

Q. Despite the trust bestowed on the minister he turned out to be a snake in the grass during the revolution.  

Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 20

 The phrase snake in the grass refers to a treacherous or deceitful person. A person who pretends to be your friend while secretly trying to do things to harm you.

Hence, the correct answer is option a i.e. a treacherous person.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 21

Directions: In the question given below there are two statements, each statement consists of two blanks. You have to choose the option which provides the correct set of words that fits both the blanks in both the statements appropriately and in the same order making them meaningful and grammatically correct. 

I. The company has extensively invested resources to ensure the delivery of goods goes on ________ and also to develop an ________ service that incorporates various distribution channels in line with investors’ preference.

II. From wheels to smart phones, technology has ________ transformed lives but it is high time modern technologies became ________ and stopped turning a blind eye to elderly users.

Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 21

Option A: Suddenly does not fit in both while exclusive does not fit in the second statement.

Option B: Both words are incorrect.

Option C: Brokenly is the opposite of what is needed.

Option D is correct with both words fitting in .  

Hence, option D is correct. 

ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 22

Directions: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

The deadline for the completion of the resolution process under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016 for the first set of cases taken up has neared or even passed. The IBC provides for a time limit of 180 days (extendable by 90 days) once a case of default is brought  and If no resolution plan drawn up under the supervision of a resolution professional can be agreed upon, liquidation must follow to recover whatever sums are possible. While the NCLT has considered a number of cases since its constitution, its role assumed importance when, on 13 June 2017, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) mandated proceedings against 12 large defaulters, holding accounts with outstanding amounts of more than Rs 5,000 crore, of which at least 60% had been classified as non-performing as of 31 March 2016. These bad loans accounted for around 25% of the non-performing assets (NPAs) recognised at that time.

In most cases, the estimated value of assets on liquidation is low, and does not capture the true value of the company. Put simply, the aggregate of the individual value of a set of stripped assets tends to be much lower than the value of those assets when combined for production. So, if the IBC process and the intervention of the NCLT lead, through bidding, to an offer of a takeover by a third party which is acceptable to the creditors, the recovery against bad loans technically written off by financial creditors would be much higher. Since this was to occur in a time-bound fashion, it seemed to be a significant initiative to address the NPA problem in the banking system. The IBC was combined with legislative amendments that strengthened the powers of the RBI to order the launch of proceedings to recover the loans gone bad. These measures, it was argued, through enforced resolution or liquidation if necessary, offered a way in which the abysmal record of recovery could be corrected and the pressure on the government to bail out banks with taxpayers’ money could be reduced. In the case of 11 public sector banks out of a total of 21, of the loans technically written-off between April 2014 and December 2017, recovery rates varied from nil to just above 20%, and in the case of another three, the rate ranged between 23% and 29%. The average recovery rate for all 21 banks was a pathetic 10.8%. By facilitating and accelerating the recovery effort, the IBC process was expected to raise the rate significantly.

The context in which this new strategy was launched needs recalling. Unlike the period prior to the 1990s, the NPAs that accumulated in the books of banks in recent years were not equitably distributed across different categories of borrowers, big and small, priority and non-priority. Rather, because of a change in the lending strategy during the period of the credit boom after 2003, the NPAs are now concentrated in the hands of large borrowers, primarily corporate borrowers.

The initial experience with the first phase of this multistep process involving the recognition, technical write-off and provisioning, and recovery of NPAs, is revealing for a number of reasons. First, in cases where the assets on offer were of special interest to particular bidders, the rates of recovery have been rather high. This was true of the acquisition of Bhushan Steel by Tata Steel and of Electro­steel by Vedanta. Bhushan Steel owed its financial creditors around Rs 56,000 crore, whereas the Tata Steel bid returned Rs 35,200 crore upfront to the financial creditors, besides giving them a 12.3% stake in the company in lieu of returning the remaining debt. That was substantial relative to the estimated ­liquidation value of Rs 15,000 crore to Rs 20,000 crore, and far better than the average 10% recovery rate reported on aggregate write-offs in the recent past. The Tatas clearly had a special interest in the deal since its valuation of the company was far higher than that of JSW Group, the other keen bidder. The latter offered the creditors only Rs 29,700 crore.

The evidence that the assets were valuable despite the defaults emerged also from the battle between bidders who were often taken to the courts. Essar Steel, one of the largest defaulters with around Rs 44,000 crore in questionable debt, when put up for sale, elicited expressions of interest from five bidders. Interestingly, besides Tata Steel, Arcelor Mittal, Vedanta, Sumitomo, and Steel Authority of India, the interested parties include the Ruias, who are the original promoters of Essar Steel.

This effort of the defaulting promoters to regain control of the companies concerned at a discount did muddy the water. The original IBC bill did not prevent promoters from making bids for resolution at the NCLT. Some justified the Ruia bid on the grounds that extraneous factors may have led to distress for no fault of the original promoters. But, if the Committee of Creditors (CoC) has taken the firm to the NCLT, it is clearly because they saw the incumbent management as incapable of resolving the crisis faced by the firm. And, if promoters regain control, much of the debt their company owes will be forgiven, with the losses being carried by the financial and operational creditors. Recognising the travesty involved, the government was forced to amend the IBC bill to prohibit promoters from bidding under the NCLT process.

Q. Why was the IBC Bill amended to stop promoters from regaining control of their companies?
I. The Committee of Creditors did not see the original management fit enough to carry on functioning.
II. The losses would be carried by the financial and operational creditors.
III. It would have led to the promoters regaining control of their companies without repaying the full amount of the loans taken. 

Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 22

Refer to: ‘The original IBC bill did not prevent promoters from making bids for resolution at the NCLT. Some justified the Ruia bid on the grounds that extraneous factors may have led to distress for no fault of the original promoters. But, if the Committee of Creditors (CoC) has taken the firm to the NCLT, it is clearly because they saw the incumbent management as incapable of resolving the crisis faced by the firm. And, if promoters regain control, much of the debt their company owes will be forgiven, with the losses being carried by the financial and operational creditors.’

All of the statements are correct.

Hence, option E is correct.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 23

Directions: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

Development is about expanding the capabilities of the disadvantaged, thereby improving their overall quality of life. Based on this understanding, Maharashtra, one of India’s richest States, is a classic case of a lack of development which is seen in its unacceptably high level of malnutrition among children in the tribal belts. While the State’s per capita income has doubled since 2004, its nutritional status has not made commensurate progress.

Poor nutrition security disproportionately affects the poorest segment of the population. According to NFHS 2015-16, every second tribal child suffers from growth restricting malnutrition due to chronic hunger. In 2005, child malnutrition claimed as many as 718 lives in Maharashtra’s Palghar district alone. Even after a decade of double digit economic growth (2004-05 to 2014-15), Palghar’s malnutrition status has barely improved.

In September 2016, the National Human Rights Commission issued notice to the Maharashtra government over reports of 600 children dying due to malnutrition in Palghar. The government responded, promising to properly implement schemes such as Jaccha Baccha and Integrated Child Development Services to check malnutrition. Our independent survey conducted in Vikramgad block of the district last year found that 57%, 21% and 53% of children in this block were stunted, wasted and underweight, respectively; 27% were severely stunted. Our data challenges what Maharashtra’s Women and Child Development Minister said in the Legislative Council in March — that “malnutrition in Palghar had come down in the past few months, owing to various interventions made by the government.”

Stunting is caused by an insufficient intake of macro- and micro-nutrients. It is generally accepted that recovery from growth retardation after two years is only possible if the affected child is put on a diet that is adequate in nutrient requirements. A critical aspect of nutrient adequacy is diet diversity, calculated by different groupings of foods consumed with the reference period ranging from one to 15 days. We calculated a 24-hour dietary diversity score by counting the number of food groups the child received in the last 24 hours. The eight food groups include: cereals, roots and tubers; legumes and nuts; dairy products; flesh foods; eggs; fish; dark green leafy vegetables; and other fruits and vegetables.

In most households it was rice and dal which was cooked most often and eaten thrice a day. These were even served at teatime to the children if they felt hungry. There was no milk, milk product or fruit in their daily diets. Even the adults drank black tea as milk was unaffordable. Only 17% of the children achieved a minimum level of diet diversity — they received four or more of the eight food groups. This low dietary diversity is a proxy indicator for the household’s food security too as the children ate the same food cooked for adult members.

Q. Which of the following is/are true as per the passage?
I. India’s situation is worse than in some of the world’s poorest countries — Bangladesh, Afghanistan or Mozambique.
II. Development is more than just economic growth.
III. On an average, the nutrition expenditure as a percentage of the Budget has drastically declined from 1.68% in 2012-13 to 0.94% in 2018-19.

Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 23

Statements I and III have not been mentioned in the passage and are incorrect.

Statement II is correct as can be seen from the first paragraph of the passage.

Hence, option A is correct.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 24

Directions: Out of the given alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

Occurring at night

Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 24

The word or phrase "occurring at night" can be substituted with the word "nocturnal". "Nocturnal" refers to something that happens or is active during the night. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 25

The bar that contains commands for creating, opening and saving files is

Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 25

File menu often appears as the first item in the menu bar and contains commands relating to the handling of files, such as open, save, print etc. It may also contain a list of recently edited files. In some operating systems, the file menu also offers commands for closing windows and exiting the current program.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 26

The first computer programmer in history is:

Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 26

Ada Lovelace, an English mathematician, is widely regarded as the first computer programmer. In the 1840s, she collaborated with Charles Babbage on his Analytical Engine and wrote the first algorithm intended to be processed by a machine.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 27

Which document outlines India's Maritime India Vision 2030?

Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 27

Maritime India Vision 2030 is a ten-year blueprint aimed at transforming India's maritime sector.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 28

What milestone did Russia achieve according to discussions at the 22nd India-Russia Annual Summit?

Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 28

At the summit, it was noted that Russia has been upgraded from an upper-middle-income to a high-income country by the World Bank.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 29

Which of the following is not a function of modern lighthouses in India?

Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 29

Modern lighthouses do not function as hotels; their primary functions include guiding ships, coastal surveillance, marking ports, and sending signals.

ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 30

What strategic infrastructure project is India focusing on with Russia?

Detailed Solution for ECGC PO Mock Test - 10 - Question 30

The Chennai-Vladivostok Eastern Maritime Corridor is a key focus for developing stable and efficient transport corridors between India and Russia.

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