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SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - SSC CGL MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 for SSC CGL 2024 is part of SSC CGL preparation. The SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 questions and answers have been prepared according to the SSC CGL exam syllabus.The SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 MCQs are made for SSC CGL 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 below.
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SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 1

Direction: Study the pie-chart given below carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Percentage-wise break up of students in terms of specialization in M.B.A.
Total Number of students = 8000.

Q. What is the total number of students having IB as specialisation?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 1

Number of students in various specialisations:

Number of those having IB as specialisation = 1520

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 2

621 ÷ 27 * 2 – 37 = √?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 2

621 ÷ 27 * 2 – 37 = √?
23 * 2 – 37 = √? = 9
x = 81

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SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 3

325 – (12)² + 75 = (?)² – 68

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 3

325 – (12)² + 75 = (?)² – 68
325 – 144 + 75 + 68 = (?)²
(?)² = 324
x = 18

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 4

(62.5 * 14 * 5) ÷ 25 + 41 = (?)³

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 4

(62.5 * 14 * 5) ÷ 25 + 41 = (?)³
4375 ÷ 25 + 41 = (?)³
(?)³ = 216
x = 6

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 5

Find the approximate time taken to fill a chemical conical vessel, if the flow rate is 20 meters per minute from a cylindrical pipe whose diameter is 5 meters. Take diameter and depth of the conical vessel as 80 meters and 48 meters, respectively.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 5

Radius of cylindrical pipe (r) = 5/2 meters
Flow rate = 20 m/min
Diameter of conical vessel = 80 meters
Depth of the vessel (h) = 48 meters
According to the question,
Volume of the chemical flow through the pipe in one minute,

[here, h = 20 m]
= 125π m3
Volume of conical vessel,

= 25,600 m3
Therefore, time taken
 

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 6

A rectangular reservoir has dimensions 54 meters × 44 meters × 10 meters. An outlet pipe of circular cross-section has a radius of 3 centimeters and the water runs through the pipe at a rate of 20 meters/second. What is the time taken by the outlet pipe to empty the reservoir full of water?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 6

Volume of water in the reservoir = Area of cross-section of pipe × Empty rate × Empty time
Let the empty time be t.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 7

Directions to Solve: In each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Give answer:
- (A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- (B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- (C) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
- (D) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
- (E) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Question: How is Sulekha related to Nandini ?
Statements:
I.Sulekha's husband is the only son of Nandini's mother.
II.Sulekha's brother and Nandini's husband are cousins.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 7

From I, we conclude that Sulekha is the wife of Nandini's mother's only son i.e. Nandini's brother. Thus, Sulekha is Nandini's sister-in-law.

From II, we conclude that Sulekha is the cousin of Nandini's husband, which implies that Sulekha is Nandini's sister-in-law.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 8

If P + Q means P is the brother of Q; P x Q means P is the wife of Q and P % Q means P is the daughter of Q then which of the following means D is the uncle of A?

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 9

Directions to Solve

In each of the following questions there are three statements. Which are followed by three or four conclusions. Choose the conclusions which logically follow from the given statements.

Question -

Statements: Some keys are staplers. Some staplers are stickers. All the stickers are pens.

Conclusions:

  1. Some pens are staplers.
  2. Some stickers are keys.
  3. No sticker is key.
  4. Some staplers are keys.
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 9

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 10

Directions to Solve

In each of the following questions there are three statements. Which are followed by three or four conclusions. Choose the conclusions which logically follow from the given statements.

Question -

Statements: All the locks are keys. All the keys are bats. Some watches are bats.

Conclusions:

  1. Some bats are locks.
  2. Some watches are keys.
  3. All the keys are locks.
Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 10

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 11

If X + Y means X is the daughter of Y; X - Y means X is the brother of Y; X % Y means X is the father of Y and X x Y means X is the sister of Y. Which of the following means I is the niece of J?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 11

I x C → I is the sister of C

C + N → C is the daughter of N

and N - J → N is the brother of I.

Hence, I is niece of J.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 12

Below a paragraph has been given with some words highlighted in it which may or may not be contextually correct. You are required to replace these words with the most suitable word from the given options  in order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.   
On New Year’s eve, nine hours before a new GST rate of 12% was to kick out for readymade garments and fabrics, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced that the plan is off and the existing 5% rate will continue into 2022, or at least for its first quarter. The decision was made at an emergency meeting of the GST Council, which had disregarded the higher tax on textiles at its last meeting in September 2021 to correct the consistency of an inverted duty structure. While the GST rate on man made fibre is 18% and yarn made from the same is taxed at 12%, the rate on the final fabric was 5%, awfully creating a headache for textile producers which the Council had sought to aggravate. The move to raise that rate to 12%, along with that on footwear costing less than Rs.1,000 a pair, had been on the Council’s agenda for over a year but had been kept on hold due to the COVID-19 pandemic’s adverse effects on households.

Q. Which of the following words will replace the highlighted word “awfully”?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 12

The GST rate on man made fibre, yarn made and final fabric is 18%, 12% and 5% respectively. It is evidently a tense situation for textile producers. 
So the correct word to be used is “ostensibly” . Hence, option B is the correct answer.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 13

Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:
The newspaper rule of thumb is that ‘dog-bites-man’ stories are not newsworthy. However, with a nearly 1.5 crores stray dog population (2019 livestock census), and a dubious distinction of being the world’s dog-bite-and-rabies-capital, India’s ‘stray dog menace’ has a steady presence in the media ecosystem, to the point of being anaesthetising. Occasionally, this stupor is broken by the macabre. An infant in a Rajasthan hospital was reportedly taken away by stray dogs, while strays attacked a four-year-old, with fatal results, which were captured by CCTV cameras, in Telangana. Both incidents constitute only a fraction of the many dog attacks. Despite the acknowledgment of the crisis by States, the Centre, the judiciary, municipalities, and non-governmental organizations, the problem festers.
Dogs have a unique relationship with man’s evolutionary history — one of companionship. This poses a moral dilemma of being responsible for their welfare but also confronting the vagaries of their evolution from wolves and their territorial instincts. While by no means a conundrum unique to India, much of the world has drawn the line by de-recognizing the rights of stray animals: if leashed and registered, human custodians are obliged to take care of them. If not, the state — as a last resort — is encumbered to euthanize them, in the interest of public health. The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (PCA) Act and the Animal Birth Control (Dogs) Rules, 2001 (being updated), while aimed at limiting the stray population, do nothing to improve public safety. The proposed draft rules, or the Animal Birth Control Rules, 2022, only put forth procedural changes in sterilization and vaccination, permit only “incurably ill and mortally wounded” dogs to be euthanized, which is what existing rules permit, and make leaders of resident welfare associations responsible for feeding strays in pockets. The PCA and ABC rules acknowledge that unchecked strays must be restrained. However, they do not factor in the magnitude of the problem: that there is nearly one stray for every 100 Indians; that India lacks the infrastructure and mechanism to ensure that the most vulnerable (the poor and their children) are able to access treatment and that expecting dog numbers to reduce on their own with sterilization and vaccination is a pipe dream. India has committed to eliminating rabies by 2030, but without first framing the threat from stray dogs as a public health crisis, India’s poorest will continue to see their right to safe public spaces culled at the altar of callous activism.

Q. Choose the antonym of the word 'Fatal'.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 13

The word 'Fatal' means Something likely to cause or capable of causing death. (घातक; जिससे अंत में मृत्‍यु हो जाए, जानलेवा)

  • Example: A hospital spokesman said she had suffered a fatal heart attack.

Let's look at the meaning of the given options:-
Lethal - Something that can cause death or great damage. (मृत्‍युकारक, घातक, अत्‍यंत हानिकारक)

  • Example: Drinking and driving is a lethal combination.

Terminal - Something predicted to lead to death. (मृत्‍यु की ओर ले जाती हुई; लाइलाज, मरणांतक, अंतस्‍थ)

  • Example: There is no special arrangement for terminal cancer patients.

Mortal - Something that will result in death. (प्राणघातक, जिसका परिणाम मृत्‍यु हो)

  • Example: The police were defending themselves and others against mortal danger.

Beneficial - Something having a good or useful effect. (लाभकारी, हितकर, फ़ायदेमंद)

  • Example: He hopes the new drug will prove beneficial to many people.

Pernicious - Something having a very harmful or evil effect. (हानिकारक; घातक; विनाशकारी) 

  • Example: He had pernicious anemia at the age of 49 years.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 4.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 14

Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:
The newspaper rule of thumb is that ‘dog-bites-man’ stories are not newsworthy. However, with a nearly 1.5 crores stray dog population (2019 livestock census), and a dubious distinction of being the world’s dog-bite-and-rabies-capital, India’s ‘stray dog menace’ has a steady presence in the media ecosystem, to the point of being anaesthetising. Occasionally, this stupor is broken by the macabre. An infant in a Rajasthan hospital was reportedly taken away by stray dogs, while strays attacked a four-year-old, with fatal results, which were captured by CCTV cameras, in Telangana. Both incidents constitute only a fraction of the many dog attacks. Despite the acknowledgment of the crisis by States, the Centre, the judiciary, municipalities, and non-governmental organizations, the problem festers.
Dogs have a unique relationship with man’s evolutionary history — one of companionship. This poses a moral dilemma of being responsible for their welfare but also confronting the vagaries of their evolution from wolves and their territorial instincts. While by no means a conundrum unique to India, much of the world has drawn the line by de-recognizing the rights of stray animals: if leashed and registered, human custodians are obliged to take care of them. If not, the state — as a last resort — is encumbered to euthanize them, in the interest of public health. The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (PCA) Act and the Animal Birth Control (Dogs) Rules, 2001 (being updated), while aimed at limiting the stray population, do nothing to improve public safety. The proposed draft rules, or the Animal Birth Control Rules, 2022, only put forth procedural changes in sterilization and vaccination, permit only “incurably ill and mortally wounded” dogs to be euthanized, which is what existing rules permit, and make leaders of resident welfare associations responsible for feeding strays in pockets. The PCA and ABC rules acknowledge that unchecked strays must be restrained. However, they do not factor in the magnitude of the problem: that there is nearly one stray for every 100 Indians; that India lacks the infrastructure and mechanism to ensure that the most vulnerable (the poor and their children) are able to access treatment and that expecting dog numbers to reduce on their own with sterilization and vaccination is a pipe dream. India has committed to eliminating rabies by 2030, but without first framing the threat from stray dogs as a public health crisis, India’s poorest will continue to see their right to safe public spaces culled at the altar of callous activism.

Q. Which of the following is/are correct according to the given passage?
A. The newspaper rule of thumb is that ‘dog-bites-man’ stories are significant.
B. India’s stray dog menace has a steady presence in the media ecosystem.
C. An infant in a Haryana hospital was reportedly taken away by stray dogs.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 14

The second sentence of the first paragraph says "However, with a nearly 1.5 crores stray dog population (2019 livestock census), and a dubious distinction of being the world’s dog-bite-and-rabies-capital, India’s ‘stray dog menace’ has a steady presence in the media ecosystem, to the point of being anaesthetising.''

  • From the above sentence, we can say that statement B is correct according to the given passage.​​​

The first sentence of the first paragraph says "The newspaper rule of thumb is that ‘dog-bites-man’ stories are not newsworthy'' and the fourth sentence of the first paragraph says "An infant in a Rajasthan hospital was reportedly taken away by stray dogs, while strays attacked a four-year-old, with fatal results, which were captured by CCTV cameras, in Telangana''.

  • From the above sentences, we can say that statements A and C are incorrect according to the given passage.​​

 Hence, the only possible answer is option 3.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 15

Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Italy, a country of south-central Europe, ________(1) a peninsula that juts deep into the Mediterranean Sea. Italy ________ (2)  some of the most varied and scenic landscapes on Earth and is often described as a country shaped like a boot. At its broad top stand the Alps, which are among the world’s most rugged mountains. Italy’s highest points are along Monte Rosa, which peaks in Switzerland, and along Mont Blanc, which peaks in France. The western Alps ______ (3)a landscape of Alpine lakes and glacier-carved valleys that stretch down to the Po River and Piedmont. Tuscany, to the south of the cisalpine region, is perhaps the country’s best-known region. From the central Alps, running down the length of the country, _________ (4) the tall Apennine Range, which widens near Rome to cover nearly the entire width of the Italian peninsula. South of Rome the Apennines narrow and are ________(5) by two wide coastal plains, one facing the Tyrrhenian Sea and the other the Adriatic Sea. 

Q. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank (1)

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 15
  • Resting means staying in a specified position.
    • Example: Sarita was resting throughout the day because she was not feeling well.
  • Conquering means overcoming or taking control of a place.
    • Example: The British were conquering every territory at a very fast pace.
  • Occupying means to reside in a place.
    • Example: Students were occupying the seats, to begin with, the first class of today.
  • Pondering means thinking about something.
    • Example: Ishita was pondering about the height of skyscrapers in Mumbai.
  • Stretching means to elongate something.
    • Example: We should daily perform stretching exercises in the morning.

Thus, the correct answer is occupying.
Completed passage: Italy, a country in south-central Europe, occupies a peninsula that juts deep into the Mediterranean Sea. Italy comprises some of the most varied and scenic landscapes on Earth and is often described as a country shaped like a boot. At its broad top stand the Alps, which are among the world’s most rugged mountains. Italy’s highest points are along Monte Rosa, which peaks in Switzerland, and along Mont Blanc, which peaks in France. The western Alps overlook a landscape of Alpine lakes and glacier-carved valleys that stretch down to the Po River and Piedmont. Tuscany, to the south of the cisalpine region, is perhaps the country’s best-known region. From the central Alps, running down the length of the country radiates the tall Apennine Range, which widens near Rome to cover nearly the entire width of the Italian peninsula. South of Rome the Apennines narrow and are flanked by two wide coastal plains, one facing the Tyrrhenian Sea and the other the Adriatic Sea.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 16

Directions: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
Italy, a country of south-central Europe, ________(1) a peninsula that juts deep into the Mediterranean Sea. Italy ________ (2)  some of the most varied and scenic landscapes on Earth and is often described as a country shaped like a boot. At its broad top stand the Alps, which are among the world’s most rugged mountains. Italy’s highest points are along Monte Rosa, which peaks in Switzerland, and along Mont Blanc, which peaks in France. The western Alps ______ (3)a landscape of Alpine lakes and glacier-carved valleys that stretch down to the Po River and Piedmont. Tuscany, to the south of the cisalpine region, is perhaps the country’s best-known region. From the central Alps, running down the length of the country, _________ (4) the tall Apennine Range, which widens near Rome to cover nearly the entire width of the Italian peninsula. South of Rome the Apennines narrow and are ________(5) by two wide coastal plains, one facing the Tyrrhenian Sea and the other the Adriatic Sea. 

Q. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank (5)

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 16
  • Flanked means to be confined to something.
    • Example: The boundaries of the indo-china border were flanked by military troops.
  • Unbounded, unconfined, unlimited, and free are the opposites of flank.
  • ​Example: 
    • The limit to excel in your work is unbounded by any boundaries.
    • The boundaries of the stadium were unconfined.
    • There is unlimited data available if you subscribe to a 3 GB data pack package.

Thus, the correct answer is flanked.
Completed passage: Italy, a country in south-central Europe, occupies a peninsula that juts deep into the Mediterranean Sea. Italy comprises some of the most varied and scenic landscapes on Earth and is often described as a country shaped like a boot. At its broad top stand the Alps, which are among the world’s most rugged mountains. Italy’s highest points are along Monte Rosa, which peaks in Switzerland, and along Mont Blanc, which peaks in France. The western Alps overlook a landscape of Alpine lakes and glacier-carved valleys that stretch down to the Po River and Piedmont. Tuscany, to the south of the cisalpine region, is perhaps the country’s best-known region. From the central Alps, running down the length of the country radiates the tall Apennine Range, which widens near Rome to cover nearly the entire width of the Italian peninsula. South of Rome the Apennines narrow and are flanked by two wide coastal plains, one facing the Tyrrhenian Sea and the other the Adriatic Sea.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 17

Directions: The given sentence has been broken into four parts. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Select the option which contains the error-less combination. If all are correct, mark Option 5 as your answer.

Q. Emile Durkheim, the first person to be formally(A)/ recognized as a sociologist and the most(B)/ scientific of the pioneers, conducted a study (C)/ that stand as a research model for sociologists today. (D)/ No error(E)

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 17
  • The error lies in part D. 
  • The form of the verb 'stand' used here is incorrect. The correct form of the verb is 'stands'.
  • A singular subject requires a singular verb
  • In this case, the verb 'stand' of which singular form is 'stands'. Therefore 'stands' is the correct form of the verb that should be used here.

So, the correct sentence is,
Emile Durkheim, the first person to be formally recognized as a sociologist and the most scientific of the pioneers, conducted a study that stands as a research model for sociologists today.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 18

Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph then answer the questions given below them.
A. The government is reportedly contemplating imposing similar licensing requirements on imports of products such as furniture, toys and sports goods. 
B. Ostensibly, these measures — in line with the government’s stated policy of “atma nirbharta” or self reliance — are meant to reduce the country’s import dependence
C. Importers will now require a licence from the government to import fully built television sets into the country. 
D. The option of raising duties on imports of certain products is, reportedly, also under consideration.
E. Last week, the Union government imposed restrictions on television imports, much of which are sourced from Vietnam and China, by placing them in the restricted category. 

Q. Which of these is FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 18
  • The first sentence is E as it introduces the subject i.e. restrictions placed by the government on television imports.
  • The second sentence is C as it states the result of these restrictions. Importers will now require a licence to import television sets.
  • The third sentence is A as it further elaborates on the subject by mentioning in which other areas the government is thinking of imposing licensing requirements i.e. which other products will require a licence in order to be imported.
  • The fourth sentence is D as it mentions what else the government is thinking of doing i.e. it is also thinking of raising duties on imports of certain products. 
  • The last sentence is B as it mentions the reasons behind placing these restrictions.

Thus, the correct sequence is ECADB.
The fourth sentence is D.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 19

Directions: In this question, a sentence has been divided into five parts (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E). Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. If there is no error, the answer is 'No error'. Ignore the error of punctuation if any.

Q. People living besides railway stations (A)/ have to put up with (B)/ a lot of noise (C)/ from engines, horns, and whistles. (D)/ No error (E)

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 19
  • In the first part of the given sentence, the use of the preposition 'besides' is incorrect.
  • The preposition 'besides' means ''in addition to'' or ''apart from'' somebody or something.
    • Example: Besides Ravi, who else went to the concert?
  • ​The given sentence is talking about the struggle of people living next to railway stations.
  • Therefore, the preposition 'beside' should be used in place of the preposition 'besides'.
  • The preposition 'beside' means ''close to'' or ''next to'' somebody or something.
    • Example: Come and sit beside me.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
Correct Sentence: People living beside railway stations have to put up with a lot of noise from engines, horns, and whistles.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 20

Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:
An aggravating factor, often overlooked, is the shape that inequality takes in different segments _____ our society. It is economic on one plane; on others, it is regional, caste, and religious. Some are spelt out, others understated, and still others assumed. Sociologists have identified nine categories of people who are determined to be socially and/or politically and/or economically excluded. These particularly include Dalits, Adivasis, women, and religious minorities. Recent studies on religious minorities who constitute around 20% of India’s population have traced discrimination relating to them to perceptions that relate to the very origins of thinking that brought about the partition of August 1947. They argue that violence was not merely accidental but integral to the foundation of the nation and that the need for fraternity coexisted with the imperative need for restoring social cohesion in segments of society.
Much blame for the haste displayed by decision-makers has been written about on the basis of the documentation made available subsequently and, at this distance of time, its validity cannot be dismissed altogether. A primary concern of the Constitution-makers related to cohesion and integration of the units of the new Republic formally described as ‘A Union of States’. In the words of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, ‘the inspiration and the stimulus came from above rather than from below and unless the transplanted growth takes a healthy root in the soil, there will be a danger of collapse and chaos.’ This was amplified by V.P. Menon as the integration ‘of the minds of the people’. Over time, uneven development has characterized the States of the Indian Union. Regional and linguistic diversity characterizes them. And so does uneven economic development and progress, resulting in uneven levels of education, employment, social cohesion, and contentment.

Q. Which of the following is/are correct according to the given passage?
A. Religious minorities constitute around twenty percent of India’s population.
B. Five categories of people are determined to be economically excluded.
C. Uneven development has not characterized the States of the Indian Union.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 20
  • The sixth sentence of the first paragraph says "Recent studies on religious minorities who constitute around 20% of India’s population have traced discrimination relating to them to perceptions that relate to the very origins of thinking that brought about the partition of August 1947.''
    • From the above sentence, we can say that statement A is correct according to the given passage.​​​
  • The fourth sentence of the first paragraph says "Sociologists have identified nine categories of people who are determined to be socially and/or politically and/or economically excluded'' and the fifth sentence of the second paragraph says "Over time, uneven development has characterized the States of the Indian Union''.
    • From the above sentence, we can say that statements B and C are incorrect according to the given passage.​​

Hence, the only possible answer is option 1.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 21

A passage has been given below. Few words and sentences have been highlighted to help you answer some of the questions. Read the same carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Ideas and actions rarely get wind together to end decades-old social inequities. Visions can become virtuies if they are accompanied by a determination to create an equitable society. Three years ago, Prime Minister Narendra Modi decided to offload the past that was holding back the 1.3 crore citizens of Jammu and Kashmir from realizing their potential. He rolled out the process to build a new and vibrant Union Territory. Jammu and Kashmir, since then, is walking the PM’s talk and has travelled quite a distance to re-arrange priorities of development, initiate deep reforms in governance, curb corruption, and realise the dreams of youth. In this Amrit Kaal, we are the new destination, not just for tourists but for businesses as well.
In 2018-19, only 9,229 projects were completed in a year. This has increased to 50,627 in the financial year 2021-22. Rs 1 lakh crore is being spent to improve road connectivity and build tunnels. Social sector spending has increased by 43.83 per cent and the economic sector by 45.60 per cent in the last three years. 
More than 200 public services have been made available online to receive real-time feedback from citizens. Providing houses to people in rural areas, developing roads, putting in place primary health facilities and safe drinking water services, creating more avenues for education, employment, and agriculture, attracting private investment and bridging gaps between government delivery mechanisms and people’s expectations were some of the tasks we completed by building trust between the administration and the people. Structural and institutional changes like ending the 150-year-old Darbar Move brought in another layer of transparency and improvement in governance. It also saved about Rs 400 crore annual expenditure that used to be incurred in shifting logistics from Srinagar to Jammu and back. It has also prevented the loss of at least one working month every year. 
Projects worth Rs 58,477 crore under the Prime Minister’s Development Package have picked up pace and direction after impediments and bottlenecks that _________ (a) growth — land acquisition, forest clearances, utility shifting and court cases — were removed. Dreams and aspirations are ________________ (b)of the common man in J&K, which has encouraged us to work harder.

Q. Which of the following tasks has not been completed in order to build trust between the administration and the people?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 21

Refer to the third paragraph- “Providing houses to people in rural areas, developing roads, putting in place primary health facilities and safe drinking water services, creating more avenues for education, employment, and agriculture, attracting private investment and bridging gaps between government delivery mechanisms and people’s expectations were some of the tasks we completed by building trust between the administration and the people. From the above quoted lines we can say that option E is the correct answer.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 22

Consider the following statements about the formation of Tropical Cyclones. 

1. There should be continuous supply of abundant dry and cold airmass. 

2. Higher value of Coriolis force is required for the origin of these cyclones. 

3. They are associated with the inter-tropical convergence (ITC) which extends from 5-30 degrees N latitudes during summer season 

Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 22

All statements are correct except statement 1.

There should be continuous supply of abundant warm and moist air for formation of tropical cyclones.

1. Generally Absolute humidity does not change with increase or decrease of temperature , if no additional vapour is added through additional evaporation, but it changes with contraction (after decent) or expansion (on ascent) of air. 

2. Specific humidity is seldom affected by changes in air pressure or air temperature because it is measured in units of weight (grams). It is directly proportional to vapour pressure, which is the partial pressure exerted by water vapour in the air and is independent of other gases and is inversely proportional to air pressure.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 23

Petroleum is a mixture of –

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 23

Petroleum or crude oil is a naturally occurring flammable liquid consisting of a complex mixture of hydrocarbons of various molecular weights and other liquid organic compounds, that are found in geologic formations beneath the Earth's surface. A fossil fuel, it is formed when large quantities of dead organisms, usually zooplankton and algae, are buried underneath sedimentary rock and undergo intense heat and pressure.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 24

Indian economy on the eve of independence is characterised as

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 24

India was characterised as a stagnant economy due to its low growth rate of GDP and GDP per capita; a backward economy as evident through its poor performance of demographic indicators and a colonial economy as British exerted their political and economic will over India.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 25

Local Area Banks are classified under

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 25

The function of these banks is regulated by the Reserve Bank of India but the operation part of these banks needs much to desire. All these factors combined together prompted an idea of setting up Local Area Banks under the private sector in order to provide institutional mechanism to the financial resources available in rural areas and arranging for the provision of credit for economic activities in local areas.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 26

Cooperative Banks are regulated by _________.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 26

Cooperative Banks are regulated by RBI.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 27

Which of the following is not a Money Market Instrument?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 27
  • The money market is the arena in which financial institutions make available to a broad range of borrowers and investors the opportunity to buy and sell various forms of short-term securities.
  • There is no physical "money market." Instead, it is an informal network of banks and traders linked by telephones, fax machines, and computers.
  • Money markets exist both in the United States and abroad.
  • The short-term debts and securities sold on the money markets—which are known as money market instruments—have maturities ranging from one day to one year and are extremely liquid.
  • Treasury bills, federal agency notes, certificates of deposit (CDs), eurodollar deposits, commercial paper, bankers' acceptances, and repurchase agreements are examples of instruments.
  • The suppliers of funds for money market instruments are institutions and individuals with a preference for the highest liquidity and the lowest risk.
SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 28

Which memory acts as a buffer between CPU and main memory?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 28

Cache memory is a tiny, extremely fast semiconductor memory that aids in CPU acceleration. As a buffer, it sits between the CPU and RAM.

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 29

Ready the Query carefully:

SELECT emp_name  
FROM department  
WHERE dept_name LIKE ' _____ Computer Science';  

In the above-given Query, which of the following can be placed in the Query's blank portion to select the "dept_name" that also contains Computer Science as its ending string?

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 29

In the above-given Query, the "%" (like) operator will be used, which is generally used while searching for a certain pattern in the strings. It represents the single and multiple characters. In this case, it used with "Where "louse to select the "dept_name" that contains the Computer Since as its ending string. To understand it more clearly, consider the following syntax:

Syntax

SELECT column1, column2, ...
FROM table_name
WHERE columnN LIKE pattern;

SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 30

________________ is a piece of software made to keep track of (log) each keystroke made on the computer it is running on.

Detailed Solution for SSC CGL (Tier II) Practice Test - 23 - Question 30

Keylogger is a piece of software made to keep track of (log) each keystroke made on the computer it is running on.

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