JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - JPSC (Jharkhand) MCQ

Statement 1 is incorrect. Abu osman Minhajuddin bin Sirajuddin or Minhaj-i-siraj was a 13th century Persian Historian who came to India with Qutubuddin aibak who set up the Mamluk dynasty in Delhi. He was a chronicler who wrote in Persian. Mihaj-i-siraj was the principal historian of the Mamluk dynasty. In the 13th century Minhaj-i-siraj used the term ‘Hindustan’ by which he meant areas of Punjab, Haryana and the land between the Ganga and Yamuna.

Statement 2 is correct. He also used the term in a political perspective for areas which were part of the dominions of Delhi Sultan of Mamluk dynasty. Statement 3 is correct. In the early 16th century Babur used the term Hindustan in a similar way it was used by 14th century poet Amir khusrau, who used the word ‘Hind’ to describe the geography, the fauna and the culture of the inhabitants of the subcontinent.

Statement 1 is correct. During that time, A group of people who performed a specific work or we can say where in the same occupation, formed a Jati. These Jatis were ranked on the basis of the Importance of occupation they were involved in and how much power, influence and resources they hold.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Ranks of Jatis varied according to the power source and influence exerted by members of the Jati.

Statement 3 is correct. Every Jati framed their own rules and regulations to manage the conduct of their people and these rules were enforced by an assembly of elders of the Jati which was known as Jati Panchayat. Statement 4 is correct. People from every Jati lived in a village and every member of each Jati had to follow the rules and regulations of the Village also which was governed by a Chieftain.

Statement 1 is Correct- Satavahana rulers were identified through metronymics (names derived from that of their mothers). This suggests that mothers were important and relatively held a higher social position than otherwise.

Statement 2 is Correct- Despite following metronymics, Satavahana’s succession to the throne was generally patrilineal.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Kitab ul-Hind was about the people, their customs and culture. It was not about Sultan Mahmud. Kitab-i-yamini written by Al-utbi contains the life history of Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni. Statement 2 is Incorrect. Kitab ul-Hind was written in Arabic and not Persian.

Statement 3 is correct. Kitab ul-Hind was an account of people who were conquered by Sultan mahmud. Sultan was keen on knowing about the culture, language etc of the people he conquered so he asked Al-Biruni to make an account of it. Generally (though not always), Al-Biruni adopted a distinctive structure in each chapter, beginning with a question, following this up with a description based on Sanskritic traditions, and concluding with a comparison with other cultures. Some present-day scholars have argued that this almost geometric structure, remarkable for its precision and predictability, owed much to his mathematical orientation. Al-Biruni, who wrote in Arabic, probably intended his work for people living along the frontiers of the subcontinent.

He was familiar with translations and adaptations of Sanskrit, Pali and Prakrit texts into Arabic – these ranged from fables to works on astronomy and medicine. However, he was also critical about the ways in which these texts were written, and clearly wanted to improve on them. Al-Biruni depended almost exclusively on the works of Brahmanas, often citing passages from the Vedas, the Puranas, the Bhagavad Gita, the works of Patanjali, the Manu smriti, etc. to provide an understanding of Indian society and the prevalent caste system. However, in real life the system was not quite as rigid.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Alauddin constructed a new garrison town named Siri for his soldiers, whereas rather than constructing a new garrison town, Muhammad Bin Tughlaq emptied the oldest of the four cities of Delhi (Dehli-i Kuhna) and soldiers were garrisoned there.

Statement 2 is correct. Alauddin’s administrative measures were quite successful and chroniclers praised his reign for its cheap prices and efficient supplies of goods in the market. He successfully withstood the threat of Mongol invasions. Muhammad Tughluq’s administrative measures were a failure. His campaign into Kashmir was a disaster. He then gave up his plans to invade Transoxiana and disbanded his large army. Meanwhile, his administrative measures created complications. The shifting of people to Daulatabad was resented. The raising of taxes and famine in the Ganga-Yamuna belt led to widespread rebellion. And finally, the “token” currency had to be recalled. However, one must remember that Allaudin’s measures were defensive in nature whereas Muhammad bin Tughlaq was the only king to go on the offensive against the Mongols.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Lapis lazuli is a blue precious stone used for decoration in panels on walls and ceilings in the Indo-Islamic architecture.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Pietra Dura called ‘Parchinkari’ in the Indian Subcontinent, is a term for the inlay technique of using cut and fitted, highly polished colored stones to create images.

It is considered a decorative art. The stonework, after the work is assembled loosely, is glued stone-by-stone to a substrate after having previously been sliced and cut in different shapes sections; and then assembled together so precisely that the contact between each section was practically invisible. From the 16th century onwards arches were designed with trefoil or multiple foliations. Trefoil is a pattern consisting of 3 leaves and foliation is in the form of a leaf.

Statement 2 is correct. Bacha Khan's goal came to be the formulation of a united, independent, secular India. To achieve this end, he founded the Khudai Khidmatgar ("Servants of God"), commonly known as the "Red Shirts" (Surkh Pōsh), during the 1920s. The Khudai Khidmatgar was founded on a belief in the power of Gandhi's notion of Satyagraha, a form of active non-violence as captured in an oath.

Statement 3 is correct. Bacha Khan strongly opposed the proposal for the partition of India, siding with the Indian National Congress. When the Indian National Congress declared its acceptance of the partition plan without consulting the Khudai Khidmatgar leaders, he felt deeply betrayed and hurt by this, telling the Congress, "you have thrown us to the wolves." In June 1947, Khan and other Khudai Khidmatgars declared the Bannu Resolution, demanding that the Pashtuns be given a choice to have an independent state of Pashtunistan, composing all Pashtun territories of British India, instead of being made to join Pakistan. However, the British Raj refused to comply with the demand of this resolution.

The Government of India Act, 1935:

● The Act provided for the establishment of an All India Federation and a new system of government for the provinces on the basis of provincial autonomy.

● The federation was to be based on the union of the provinces of British India and the Princely States (States).

● There was to be a bicameral federal legislature in which the States were given disproportionate weightage.

● The representatives of the States were not to be elected by the people, but Appointed directly by the rulers.

● Only 14 percent of the total population in British India was given the right to vote.

● The Governor-General and the Governors were to be appointed by the British Government and were to be responsible to it.

The Act could not satisfy the nationalist aspiration for both political and economic power to continue to be concentrated in the hands of the British Government, foreign rule was to continue as before, only a few popularly elected ministers were to be added to the structure of British administration in India. The Congress condemned the Act as “totally disappointing,”

Many other nationalists such as Abul Kalam Azad had also been kept behind bars. The Government now decided to arm itself with more far-reaching powers, which went against the accepted principles of rule of law, to be able to suppress those nationalists who would refuse to be satisfied with the official reforms. For this reason, in March 1919, the Government passed the Rowlatt Act even though every single Indian member of the Central Legislative Council opposed it.

Three of them, Mohammed Ali Jinnah, Madan Mohan Malaviya and Mazhar-ul-Huq resigned from their membership of the Council. This Act authorised the Government to imprison any person without trial and conviction in a court of law. The Act would thus also enable the Government to suspend the right of Habeas Corpus which had been the foundation of civil liberties in Britain.

Recommendations of Nehru Report:

● Statement 1 is incorrect. India should be given Dominion Status with the Parliamentary form of Government and a bi-cameral legislature that consists of a Senate and House of Representatives.

● The Senate shall comprise two hundred members elected for seven years, while the House of Representatives shall consist of five hundred members elected for five years.

● The Governor-General will act on the advice of the executive council. It was to be collectively responsible to the parliament.

● Statement 2 is correct. There should be a Federal form of Government in India with Residuary powers to be vested in the Centre.

● Statement 4 is incorrect. There will be no separate electorate for minorities because it awakens communal sentiments therefore it should be scrapped and a joint electorate should be introduced.

● There will be no reserved seats for communities in Punjab and Bengal. However, reservation of Muslim seats could be possible in the provinces where Muslim population is at least ten percent.

● Judiciary should be independent from the Executive.

● Statement 3 is correct. Nineteen fundamental rights including the right to vote for men and women above 21 years of age, unless disqualified.

● There should be 1/4th Muslim Representation at the Centre.

● Sindh should be separated from Bombay provided it proves to be financially self-sufficient.

• Non-conventional energy sources are sustainable energy sources that are continuously replenished by natural processes.

• These cannot be exhausted easily and can be generated constantly so that they can be used again and again.

• These energy sources are more equitably distributed and environmentally friendly.

• Natural gas is a conventional source of energy as it is not renewable. It is a fossil energy source formed beneath the earth's surface. Hence option 1 is not correct.

• It is called natural gas because it is formed naturally however, it is available in limited amounts.

• Bio-energy refers to energy derived from biological products which include agricultural residues, municipal, industrial, and other wastes. It is a non-conventional source of energy. Hence option 2 is correct.

• Bioenergy is a potential source of energy conversion. It can be converted into electrical energy, heat energy, or gas for cooking.

• It will also process the waste and garbage and produce energy.

• Ocean currents are the storehouse of infinite energy. Tides and Waves are important sources of non- conventional source of energy in the form of Tidal and Wave energy. Hence option 3 is correct.

• India has great potential for tidal and waves energy however, it is not utilized fully yet.

• Firewood is the wood that is burned and used as fuel. Since the green cover is also limited and not replenished naturally, therefore, it is a conventional source of energy. Hence option 4 is not correct.

• Secondary activities are those activities that involve the manufacturing of finished goods by processing the raw materials that are found in nature.

• Secondary activities add value to natural resources by transforming raw materials into valuable products. Secondary activities are concerned with manufacturing, processing, and construction (infrastructure) industries.

• Cotton in the boll has limited use but after it is transformed into yarn, becomes more valuable and can be used for making clothes. The cotton textile industry involves spinning, weaving, and finishing fabrics.

• Iron ore, cannot be used; directly from the mines, but after being converted into steel it gets its value and can be used for making many valuable machines, tools, etc. Iron is extracted from iron ore by smelting in a blast furnace with carbon (coke) and limestone.

• Agro-processing (food processing) involves the processing of raw materials from the field and the farm into finished products for rural and urban markets. Majoragro-processing industries are food processing, sugar, pickles, fruit juices, beverages (tea, coffee, and cocoa), spices and oils fats and textiles (cotton, jute, silk), rubber, etc.

• The mining of Iron ore is a primary activity. Primary activities are directly dependent on the environment as these refer to the utilization of the earth's resources such as land, water, vegetation, building materials, and minerals.

Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

• India is endowed with fairly abundant resources of iron ore. It has the largest reserve of iron ore in Asia. Haematite and magnetite two types of ores found in India. About 95 percent of the total reserves of iron ore are located in the States of Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, Goa, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu.

• The districts of Chandrapur, Bhandara, and Ratnagiri in Maharashtra produce iron ore.

• Durg is an important mine in Chhattisgarh. It forms the Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur belt of iron ore- producing areas. This belt is in Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh.

• Jharkhand has some of the oldest iron ore mines and most of the iron and steel plants are located around them. Most of the important mines such as Noamundi and Gua are located in Poorbi and Pashchimi Singhbhum districts.

• In Odisha, iron ore occurs in a series of hill ranges in Sundergarh, Mayurbhanj, and Jhar. The important mines are Gurumahisani, Sulaipet, Badampahar (Mayurbhaj), Kiruburu (Kendujhar) and Bonai (Sundergarh).

Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

• Most of the metallic minerals in India occur in the peninsular plateau region in the old crystalline rocks. Minerals are generally concentrated in three broad belts in India. There may be some sporadic occurrences here and there in isolated pockets.

• These belts are The North-Eastern Mineral belt, The South-Western Mineral belt, and The North- Western Mineral belt.

• The Himalayan belt is another mineral belt where copper, lead, zinc, cobalt, and tungsten are known to occur. They occur in both the eastern and western parts.

• The southwestern belt covers the southwestern plateau region. It extends over Karnataka, Goa, and contiguous Tamil Nadu uplands and Kerala.

• Bauxite and ferrous metals are abundant in this belt. There is also high-grade iron ore, manganese, and limestone. Except for Neyveli lignite, this area is devoid of any coal reserves.

• This belt does not have as diversified mineral deposits as the northeastern belt. It contains deposits of iron ore, ilmenite, zircon, monazite sands, garnet, china-clay, bauxite, mica, limestone, and soapstone.

• Kerala has deposits of monazite and thorium, bauxite clay. Goa has iron ore deposits.

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

For a suitable pitch, the clay content should be more than 50 percent, the sand content should be less than 5 percent, the fine sand should be less than 20 percent, the silt should be less than 20 percent, and the PH value should be between 630 and 730. Generally, Red soil has less clay content, and it will easily deteriorate the pitch due to more wear and tear of the pitch. More matches on Red soil expect the spinners to dominate the matches as it generally supports spin bowling. Ex: Pitches in Mumbai are of Red soil with low clay content. Red soil is mixed with yellow soil at various matches to increase the clay content. As compared to red soil, Black soil has more water-holding capacity. Black soil has more clay content and more elasticity, so it lasts for a longer time and mainly supports the fast bowlers to bounce the ball, whereas the Red soil has less clay content, and the matches last for a shorter time. For Example, Australian pitches are mostly of black soil containing 50 to 70 percent of clay content; thus, they get so much bounce on tracks. So, Option (d) is correct.

• Lithium is a chemical element with the symbol Li and atomic number 3. It is a soft, silvery-white alkali metal.
• Like all alkali metals, lithium is highly reactive and flammable, and must be stored in vacuum, inert atmosphere, or inert liquid such as purified kerosene or mineral oil.
• Chile, Australia, Argentina, Bolivia and China contain most of the reserves discovered so far globally.
• Argentina, Bolivia and Chile are known as the ‘Lithium Triangle’ and contain about 54% of the world’s Lithium reserves.

Statement 1 is correct: Asteroids, sometimes called minor planets, are rocky remnants left over from the early formation of the solar system about 4.6 billion years ago.

• The three broad composition classes of asteroids are C-, S-, and M-types. The C-type (chondrite) asteroids are most common. They probably consist of clay and silicate rocks, and are dark in appearance. They are among the most ancient objects in the solar system. The S-types (“stony”) are made up of silicate materials and nickel-iron. The M-types are metallic (nickel-iron). The asteroids’ compositional differences are related to how far from the Sun they formed.

Statement 2 is not correct: Bennu is a small near-Earth asteroid that passes close to Earth every six years.

• A 4.5 billion-year-old relic of the solar system’s early days, asteroid Bennu has seen it all.
• Bennu’s current composition, according to scientists, was established within 10 million years of the formation of solar system.

• Kenya is a country in East Africa with coastline on the Indian Ocean. It encompasses savannah, lakelands, the dramatic Great Rift Valley and mountain highlands.
• Capital: Nairobi
• Kenya is bisected horizontally by the Equator.
• Kenya is bordered to the north by South Sudan and Ethiopia, to the east by Somalia and the Indian Ocean, to the south by Tanzania, and to the west by Lake Victoria and Uganda.

Cyclones

• About: A cyclone is any low-pressure area with winds spiralling inwards and is caused by atmospheric disturbances around a low-pressure area It is distinguished by swift and often destructive air circulation. Pattern of circulation: The air circulates inward in an anticlockwise direction in the Northern hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern hemisphere. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• Types of Cyclones:
  • Tropical Cyclone: Cyclones that develop in the regions between the Tropics of Capricorn and Cancer are called tropical cyclones. Tropical cyclones are large-scale weather systems developing over tropical or subtropical waters, where they get organised into surface wind circulation.
  • Extra tropical Cyclone (also called Temperate Cyclone): They occur in temperate zones and high latitude regions. In contrast with tropical cyclones, extratropical cyclones produce rapid changes in temperature and dew point along broad lines, called weather fronts, about the center of the cyclone. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Scientists discovered a hidden landscape ‘frozen in time’ under Antarctic ice.

• Scientists used satellite photos combined with radio-echo sounding data to create an image of Antarctica’s hidden landscape.
• It is located in East Antarctica’s Wilkes Land region bordering the Indian Ocean, covering an area roughly the size of Belgium or the U.S. state of Maryland.
• It is a vast, hidden landscape of hills and valleys carved by ancient rivers. The area spreads across 32,000 square kilometres (12,000 square miles) and was once home to trees, forests and probably animals,
• It has been “frozen in time” under the Antarctic ice for millions of years

Article 21 A declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such a manner as the State may determine.

Statement 1 is correct. Thus, this provision makes only elementary education a Fundamental Right and not higher or professional education.

Statement 2 is correct. This provision was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002. This amendment amended the Fundamental Right (Article 21A), Directive Principle of State Policy (Article 45) and Fundamental Duties (article 51A).

• Statement 1 is Incorrect. Article 76 does not mention about the solicitor general and additional solicitor general. It should be noted that only the office of the AG is created by the Constitution.

• Statement 2 is correct. In addition to the AG, there are other law officers of the Government of India. They are the solicitor general of India and additional solicitor general of India. They assist the AG in the fulfilment of his official responsibilities.

All the rights mentioned above are granted by the constitution to the citizens of India only and not to aliens (foreigners).

The Constitution confers the following rights and privileges on the citizens of India (and denies the same to aliens):

1. Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article 15).

2. Right to equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment (Article 16).

3. Right to freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession (Article 19).

4. Cultural and educational rights (Articles 29 and 30).

5. Right to vote in elections to the Lok Sabha and state legislative assembly.

6. Right to contest for the membership of the Parliament and the state legislature.

7. Eligibility to hold certain public offices, that is, President of India, Vice-President of India, judges of the Supreme Court and the high courts, governor of states, attorney general of India and advocate general of States.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 15 provides that the State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. The two crucial words in this provision are ‘discrimination’ and ‘only’. The word ‘discrimination’ means ‘to make an adverse distinction with regard to’ or ‘to distinguish unfavourably from others’. The use of the word ‘only’ connotes that discrimination on other grounds is not prohibited.

The second provision of Article 15 says that no citizen shall be subjected to any disability, liability, restriction or condition on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth with regard to

(a) access to shops, public restaurants, hotels and places of public entertainment;

Statement 2 is correct. This provision prohibits discrimination only by the State and not by private individuals.

(b) the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads and places of public resort maintained wholly or partly by State funds or dedicated to the use of the general public. This provision prohibits discrimination both by the State and private individuals.

KB) There are three exceptions to this general rule of non-discrimination:

(a) The state is permitted to make any special provision for women and children. For example, reservation of seats for women in local bodies or provision of free education for children.

(b) The state is permitted to make any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes. For example, reservation of seats or fee concessions in public educational institutions.

(c) The state is empowered to make any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the scheduled castes or scheduled tribes regarding their admission to educational institutions including private educational institutions, whether aided or unaided by the state, except the minority educational institutions.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Dakshina Bharat Hindi Prachar Sabha was established in the year 1918 by Father of the Nation Mahatma Gandhi with the sole aim of propagating Hindi in southern states.The first Pracharak was Devadoss Gandhi son of Mahatma Gandhi.

Statement 2 is correct. The Sabha is divided into four divisions, one each for the states of (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Karnataka (c)Kerala and (d) Tamil Nadu. The organisation headquarters is at Chennai.

KB) Nandalal Bose, an artist of Santiniketan, perfectly expressed the key of inspiration of the artists from the life of Mahatma Gandhi. He wrote: “Mahatmaji may not be an artist in the same sense that we professional artists are, nevertheless I cannot but consider him to be a true artist. All his life he has spent in creating his own personality and in fashioning others after his high ideals. His mission is to make Gods out of men of clay. I am sure his ideal will inspire the artists of the world.”