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JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - JPSC (Jharkhand) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 for JPSC (Jharkhand) 2024 is part of JPSC (Jharkhand) preparation. The JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 questions and answers have been prepared according to the JPSC (Jharkhand) exam syllabus.The JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 MCQs are made for JPSC (Jharkhand) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 below.
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JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 1

Consider the following pairs :

How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 1
  • The middle palaeolithic industry of central and peninsular India is sometimes referred to as the Nevasan industry after the site of Nevasa, where the pioneering archaeologist H. D. Sankalia firstdiscovered middle palaeolithic artefacts in a stratified context. The tools, which include a widevariety of scrapers, are made of smooth, fine-grained stone such as agate, jasper, and chalcedony. Nevasa is situated along the Pravara river in the Godavari river basin not in Tapi river basin. So, Pair 1 is not correct.
  • Patne is located in Tapi valley and not in the Godavari river basin. Patne, the pre-historic site in Jalgaon, has evidence of middle and upper Paleolithic settlements Mesolithic tools. Patne excavation revealed stone tools, bones and even ostrich eggshells, which showed the existence of ostriches in this area around 25,000 to 40,000 years ago. So, Pair 2 is not correct.
  • The transition from a hunting-gathering stage to the beginnings of settled agriculture can be traced to Chopani Mando in the Belan valley. This is based on the discovery of wild rice at Mesolithic levels of this site which was reported from similar levels at Damdama as well. Belan Valley is located in the Ganga river basin in the eastern part of Uttar Pradesh. So, Pair 3 is correct.
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 2

With reference to Retail Direct Scheme, consider the following statements :
1. It is a one-stop solution to facilitate investment in Government Securities by Individual Investors.
2. By enacting it, India becomes the first country to allow its retail investors to participate in the government securities market.
3. Non-Resident retail investors are not eligible to invest in Government securities under this scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 2
  • The Reserve Bank of India’s Retail Direct scheme, a one-stop solution to facilitate investment in Government Securities by individual investors, has been issued. For free, investors can easily open and maintain their government securities accounts online with the RBI. By leveraging technological advancements, the scheme offers a portal avenue to invest in Central government securities, treasury bills, State development loans and sovereign gold bonds. So, Statement 1 is correct.
  • In India, this scheme would expand the scope for investment and improve customer grievance redressal mechanisms. The scheme places India in a list of select few countries offering such a facility. India will only be the third nation in the world, after the United States and Brazil, where retail participants can take direct exposure to the government bond market. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
  • Retail investors, that is, individuals (natural persons), are allowed to open an RDG account. Non-Resident retail investors are eligible to invest in Government Securities under Foreign Exchange Management Act 1999. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
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JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 3

The earliest epigraphic reference to image worship in Jainism is found in :

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 3

The 1st century BCE Hathigumpha inscription of the Kalinga king Kharavela refers to his retrieving an image of a Jina. This inscription is the earliest epigraphic reference to image worship in Jainism. The Udayagiri and Khandagiri caves in Orissa are among the oldest long-standing centres of Jaina monasticism. A large number of Jaina images and inscriptions from the Mathura area indicate the popularity of Jainism. Kharavela, the Chedi king of Kalinga (in eastern India), claims in his Hathigumpha inscription to have defied a king named Satakarni in his second regnal year. He also claims two years later, he defeated the Rathikas of the Maratha country and the Bhojas of Vidarbha, who seem to have been subordinates of the Satavahanas. A possible indication of Nanda military victories in Kalinga is suggested by the later Hathigumpha inscription of Kharavela, which mentions a king named Nanda building a canal and either conquering a place or taking away a Jaina shrine or image from Kalinga. So, Option (c) is correct.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 4

The Ashokan inscriptions mark the beginning of Indian epigraphy and are undoubtedly the most significant source of the Mauryan Period. In the context of these inscriptions and edicts, consider the following statements:
1. The Ashokan inscriptions were mainly written in the Prakrit language and Brahmi script.
2. The Maski edict revealed that Ashoka's inscriptions were carved under the name of Ashoka.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 4
  • The most significant source of the Mauryan period is undoubtedly the inscriptions of Ashoka. Ashoka’s inscriptions mark the beginning of Indian epigraphy. What sets Ashoka’s edicts apart is that they are issued in the first person, thereby revealing the voice and ideas of the king himself.
  • The edicts are written in the Prakrit language and Brahmi script, and occasionally in the Kharoshti script (in the northwestern parts of the subcontinent). There are a few inscriptions in Greek and Aramaic as well. A bilingual Greek-Aramaic inscription was found at Shar-iKuna near Kandahar in southeast Afghanistan and one in Taxila. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Ashoka himself had designated these edicts as Dhammalipi (Edicts of Piety). The Maski edict in the Prakrit language, carved in Brahmi script and dated 256 BC, remains a dharma shasana, an edict exhorting people to follow the tenets of Buddhism. The Maski edict clearly told the world that it was Ashoka who had got the inscriptions carved under the name ‘Devanampriya’. The inscription has a mention of ‘Devanampriya Asoka.’ Apart from associating the title ‘Devanampriya’ with Ashoka, the inscription suggests the spread of Mauryan rule up to the Krishna valley of north-eastern Karnataka. Hence statement 2 is correct.
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 5

With reference to the Saka rulers, consider the following statements:
1. The Vikram Samvat is reckoned with the event of the Saka ruler Vikramaditya defeating the ruler of Ujjain.
2. Saka ruler Rudradaman-I held a Buddhist council in Kashmir to finalize the doctrines of the Mahayana form of Buddhism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 5
  • •After the decline of the Mauryan Empire, northwest India was constantly under attack by various invaders from Central and West Asia. The Sakas (also written Sakas), alternatively known as Indo-Scythians, invaded northwest India from the first century BC onwards.
  • There were five branches of the Shakas with their seats of power in different parts of India and Afghanistan.
    • One branch of the Shakas settled in Afghanistan. Prominent rulers of this branch were Vonones and Spalirises.
    • The second branch settled in Punjab with Taxila as its capital. Maues was a prominent ruler.
    • The third branch settled in Mathura, where they ruled for about two centuries. Azilises was a prominent ruler.
    • The fourth branch established its hold over western India, where they continued to rule till the 4th century CE.
    • The fifth branch of the Shakas established its power in the upper Deccan.
  • The fourth branch of Sakas ruled for the maximum period owing to a flourishing economy based on the sea-borne trade in Gujarat and also issued a large number of silver coins. One of the famous Shaka rulers was Rudradaman 1 (CE 130-150). He ruled over Sindh, Kutch, and Gujarat and also recovered from the Satavahanas, Kokan, the Narmada valley, Malwa and Kathiawar. He is famous in history because of the repairs he undertook to improve Sudarsana lake in the semi-arid zone of Kathiawar. He was a great lover of Sanskrit and issued the first-ever long inscription in chaste Sanskrit.
  • The Shakas did not meet effective resistance from the rulers and the masses of India. The king of Ujjain (around 58 BCE), effectively fought and succeeded in throwing the Shakas out. He called himself Vikramaditya and an era called Vikram-Samvat is reckoned from the event of his victory over the Shakas in 58 BCE. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • From this time onwards, Vikramaditya became a coveted title, and whoever achieved anything great adopted this title, as the Roman emperors adopted the title Caesar in order to emphasize they are a great power.
  • Kanishka, who was a Kushan ruler, extended his whole-hearted patronage to Buddhism. He also convened the fourth Buddhist council to discuss matters relating to Buddhist theology and doctrine. It was held at the Kundalavana monastery near Srinagar (Kashmir) under the presidency of Vasumitra. It was in this council that Buddhism was split into two schools – the Hinayana and the Mahayana. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 6

Cosider the following statements with reference to the Chalcolithic period in India:
1. Milk and dairy products were the main components of the dietary culture of the Chalcolithic culture.
2. Ganeshwar was an urban Chalcolithic site that supplied copper objects to Harappa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 6
  • The cultures were based on the use of copper and stone implements called Chalcolithic. Technologically, the Chalcolithic stage is applied to the pre-Harappan phase. However, in various parts of India, the Chalcolithic cultures followed the Bronze Age Harappa culture. The Chalcolithic people mostly used stone and copper objects, but they also occasionally used low-grade bronze and even iron.
  • The Chalcolithic people domesticated cattle, sheep, and goats, which were tethered in the courtyard. In all probability, the domesticated animals were slaughtered for food and not used for milk and dairy products. The tribal people, such as the Gonds of Bastar, believe that milk is meant only to feed young animals, and, therefore, they do not milk their cattle. Consequently, the Chalcolithic people were not able to make full use of the animals. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • Ganeshwar is a Chalcolithic site in Rajasthan whose deposits are ascribed to 2800–2200 BC, they, by and large, predate the mature Harappan culture. Ganeshwar principally supplied copper objects to Harappa and did not receive much from it. The Ganeshwar people partly lived on agriculture and largely on hunting. Although their principal craft was the manufacture of copper objects, they were unable to urbanize. With its microliths and other stone tools, much of the Ganeshwar culture can be considered a pre-Harappan Chalcolithic culture that contributed to the making of the mature Harappan culture. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 7

In the context of the Mauryan taxation system, consider the following statements:
1. The kingdom attached greater importance to the assessment of taxes than to storage and deposition.
2. Sannidhata was the highest officer in charge of the assessment of taxes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 7
  • The Maurya period constitutes a landmark in the system of taxation in ancient India. Kautilya names many taxes which were collected from peasants, artisans, and traders. This required a strong and efficient machinery for assessment, collection, and storage. The Mauryas attached greater importance to assessment than to storage and deposit. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The samaharta was the highest officer in charge of assessment and collection, and the sannidhata was the chief custodian of the state treasury and storehouse. The assessor- cum-collector was far more important than the chief treasurer. The damage inflicted on the state by the first was thought to be more serious than any inflicted by the second. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • The epigraphic evidence for the existence of rural storehouses shows that taxes were also collected in kind. These granaries were probably also meant to help local people in times of famine, drought, etc.
  • From Ashoka’s inscription at Lumbini, it was inferred that land revenue was of two kinds — Bali and Bhaga. The assessment of the tax varied from region to region, from being on1/6th to a quarter of the produce of the land. 1/4th of the produce was paid in tax by the peasants. They also paid a tribute. Land tax (bhaga) was the main source of revenue. It was levied at 1/6th of the produce. The Lumbini edict of Ashoka says that during his visit to the birthplace of the Buddha, he exempted the village from the payment of bali and reduced the payment of Bhaga to 1/8th.
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 8

Consider the following pairs :

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 8
  • Paitkar paintings : One of the most ancient schools of painting in the country, Paitkar paintings are a creative expression of the state’s folk art. Popularly known as the scroll paintings of the east, Paitkar paintings are mostly based on themes drawn from Hindu epics like Mahabharata and Ramayana.
    • These traditional paintings tell the stories of the miracles performed by various gods and goddesses like Shiva and Durga. Paitkar painters usually make use of only primary colours like red, yellow and blue with palm leaves acting as a base.
    • The brushes used to paint are made from the hair of squirrels and goats. Most of the painted space in Paitkar paintings is occupied by human characters with elongated eyes, a prime characteristic of the Indian painting style.
    • Located in the eastern part of Jharkhand, Amadubi Village is home to families of talented Paitkar artists. The village is also known as the village of Paitkars and the art form is said to have originated here. The Santhal tribe of the state believes that Paitkar paintings can send wandering souls of dead people to heaven. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
  • Phad is an indigenous painting style of the state of Rajasthan, India, that depicts the narratives of the folk deities of the state. This style of painting is the blend of Rajput and Mughal styles of painting. Originated hundreds of years ago, this fabled heritage of Bhilwara is done on a long piece of canvas called Phad. Mostly, the stories of the folk deity Pabuji and the Gurjar Warrior, Devnarayanji are depicted on Phads.
    • Phad paintings are very detailed. Every inch of the canvas is used. Since the ancient stories are depicted in the paintings, Phads have a lot of human figures in them. The size and color of which depends upon the role and position they had. These paintings are done on clothes.
    • A thick fine paste of wheat/rice flour, prepared by boiling the mixture in water, is applied to the cloth which is then dried in sunlight. The cloth is then rubbed with Mohra|(a stone device) to bring out the smoothness and shine it. Now the cloth is ready to be painted. The colors used in Phad are all-natural, obtained from various plants and vegetable extracts. Earthen colors are used to bring the acrylic effect. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
  • Orissa Pattachitra is an ancient painting art form of rural Orissa that has been in existence for many centuries. The word pattachitra has evolved from the Sanskrit words ‘Patta’ and ‘Chitra’. In the Sanskrit language, the word Patta means “Canvas” or “A Piece of Cloth”, and Chitra means picture.
    • Orissa Pattachitra (Traditional Indian Painting) is a painting especially inspired by Lord Jagannath and temple tradition, the Puri district.
    • Themes for these paintings range from the events of Krishna’s life and the Avatars of Vishnu to the epic tales of Ramayana and Mahabharata.
    • The method of production for Pattachitra is very long and the entire process is completed in many steps, which include:
      (i) Preparation of Patta
      (ii) Preparation of Pigments
      (iii) Motif Selection and Layout
      (iv) Painting
    • Orissa Pattachitra paintings hold a Geographical Indication tag. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 9

Consider the following statements about Bitumen
1. It is a dense, highly viscous, petroleum-based hydrocarbon.
2. It is obtained as a residue of the distillation of crude oil.
3. It is commonly used to waterproof boats and other marine vessels.
Choose the incorrect statements:

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 9

Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 is Correct: 

It is a dense, highly viscous, petroleum-based hydrocarbon.
Composition:

  • It owes its density and viscosity to its chemical composition—mainly large hydrocarbon molecules known as asphaltenes and resins, which are present in lighter oils but are highly concentrated in bitumen.
  • In addition, bitumen frequently has a high content of metals, such as nickel and vanadium, and nonmetallic inorganic elements, such as nitrogen, oxygen, and sulfur.

Statement 2 is Correct: 
It is found in deposits such as oil sands and pitch lakes(natural bitumen) or is obtained as a residue of the distillation of crude oil.

  • At the temperatures normally encountered in natural deposits, bitumen will not flow. In order to be moved through a pipe, it must be heated and, in some cases, diluted with a lighter oil.
  • Bitumen can deform permanently under heavy loads. Continued stress on the material can result in cracking.

Statement 3 is Correct: 
Uses:

  • Bitumen is known for its waterproofing and adhesive properties and is commonly used in the construction industry, notably for roads and highways.
    • It is commonly used to waterproof boats and other marine vessels.
    • It is also used by companies that create and manufacture roofing products.
    • It is used for sealing and insulating purposes in various building materials such as carpet tile backing and paint.

Context: Goa Power Minister recently said that bitumen used in road construction is a major cause of pollution.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 10

Consider the following statements about District Legal Services Authority
1. It is formed under Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free legal aid and services to the weaker sections of the society.
2. It is a body that shall be constituted by the State Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court.
3. The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 provides that a District Authority requires the district judge as its chairman.
Choose the correct statements:

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 10

Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 is Correct:

  • It is formed under Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free legal aid and services to the weaker sections of this society to make sure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen because of economic or other disabilities.
  • It is a statutory body organized at the district level to provide effective monitoring of legal aid programmes and their composition.
  • Legal Services Authorities are statutory bodies that are formed or constituted in the various states of India by the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.

Statement 2 is Correct:
It is a body that shall be constituted by the State Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court.

Statement 3 is Correct:

  • The act provides that a District Authority requires the district judge as its chairman.
  • It shall also consist of a number of other members who have the experience and qualifications as prescribed by the State Government.
  • The members possessing such requirements may be nominated by the Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court.
  • The person to be appointed shall belong to the State Judicial Service not lowers than rank than that of a Subordinate Judge or Civil Judge posted at the seat of the District Judiciary as Secretary of the District Authority.
  • The Assistant Commissioner of the concerned District acts as the Member Secretary of the District Authority.

Context: Recently, under the Department of Justice’s (Ministry of Law and Justice) Nyaya Bandhu, Pro Bono Club, ICFAI Law School, The ICFAI University, Tripura, in association with District Legal Services Authority West Tripura, organized a Door-to-Door Legal Aid Campaign.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 11

Sadbhavana Diwas or Harmony Day is celebrated on the birth anniversary of which of the following personalities?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 11

The birth anniversary of India’s sixth prime minister Rajiv Gandhi is observed as Sadbhavana Diwas or Harmony Day every year on August 20 in the country.

  • ‘Sadbhavana’ in English means goodwill.
  • It is dedicated to the cause of encouraging peace, national integration, and communal harmony among all religions in the country.
  • The day was first observed in 1992, more than a year after Rajiv Gandhi was assassinated in a suicide bomb attack in Tamil Nadu.
  • Rajiv Gandhi became the youngest Prime Minister of India when he assumed the post at the age of 40.
  • He was posthumously awarded country’s highest civilian honour, Bharat Ratna in 1991.
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 12

Consider the following pairs: Akademi Well known for
1. Sangeet Natak Akademi Theatre training institution
2. National School of Drama Performing arts
3. Sahitya Akademi Visual Arts
4. Lalit Kala Akademi Development of Indian letters
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 12
  • Sangeet Natak Akademi: It is the apex body in the field of performing arts in the country. It was set up in 1953 for the preservation and promotion of India’s diverse culture expressed in forms of music, dance and drama.
  • The National School of Drama: It is one of the foremost theatre training institutions in the world and the only one of its kind in India. It was set up by the Sangeet Natak Akademi as one of its constituent units in 1959. In 1975, it became an independent entity.
  • The Sahitya Akademi (India’s National Academy of Letters): It was formally inaugurated on 12 March 1954 to work actively for the development of Indian letters and to set high literary standards, to foster and co-ordinate literary activities in all the Indian languages.
  • Lalit Kala Akademi (National Academy of Art): It was established on 5th August 1954 to focus on activities in the field of Visual Arts 
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 13

With reference to Indian art form, Consider the following pairs :

Art Form State
1. Burrakatha Andhra Pradesh
2. Seethakali Kerala
3. Yakshagana Rajasthan
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 13

Pair 1 and 2 are correctly matched and Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Burra Katha or Burrakatha

  • It is an oral storytelling technique in the Jangam Katha tradition, performed in villages of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
  • It is a narrative entertainment that consists of prayers, solo drama, dance, songs, poems and jokes. Seethakali
  • It is a centuries-old Dravidian dance form which is a blend of songs, storytelling and fast movements.
  • Seethakali is believed to have originated at Perinad in Kollam district of Kerala.
  • This art form was first performed some 150 years back by the people of Vedar and Pulayar communities.The folk art form was a part of Onam festivities in the past. Yakshagana
  • Yakshagana is a traditional theatre, developed in Dakshina Kannada, Udupi,and western parts of Chikmagalur districts, in Karnataka and in Kasaragod district in Kerala.
  • It combines dance, music, dialogue, costume, make-up, and stage techniques with a unique style and form.
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 14

With reference to ‘India Club’, Consider the following statements:
1. It was originally set up by the India League.
2. It has early roots in the Indian independence movement as a hub for nationalists including Krishna Menon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 14

 The India Club in London, with its early roots in the Indian independence movement is a hub for nationalists including Krishna Menon This is a historic meeting venue and eatery and has its roots in the India League, which campaigned for Indian independence in Britain, with its founding members including Krishna Menon – who went on to become the first Indian High Commissioner to the UK

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 15

With reference to the British India, consider the following statements regarding the Factory Acts of 1881 and 1891:
1. The Factory Act of 1891 regulated the working hours of women.
2. The early nationalists and moderates did not support the Factory Acts.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 15
  • The working conditions in factories and plantations in nineteenth-century India were miserable. Ironically, the first-ever demand for regulation of the condition of workers in factories in India came from the Lancashire textile capitalist lobby. They demanded the appointment of a commission for investigation into factory conditions. The first commission was appointed in 1875 although the first Factory Act was not passed before 1881.
  • The Indian Factory Act, 1881 dealt primarily with the problem of child labour (between 7 and 12 years of age). Its significant provisions were: o employment of children under 7 years of age prohibited, o working hours restricted to 9 hours per day for children, o children to get four holidays in a month, o hazardous machinery to be properly fenced off
  • The Indian Factory Act, 1891 o increased the minimum age (from 7 to 9 years) and the maximum (from 12 to 14 years) for children, o reduced maximum working hours for children to 7 hours a day, o fixed maximum working hours for women at 11 hours per day with a one-and-a-half hour interval (working hours for men were left unregulated). Hence statement 1 is correct. o provided weekly holiday for all
  • But these laws did not apply to British-owned tea and coffee plantations where the labour was exploited ruthlessly.
  • The early nationalists, especially the Moderates were indifferent to the labour’s cause. They believed that labour legislations would affect the competitive edge enjoyed by the Indian-owned industries. Also, did not want a division in the movement on the basis of classes. Hence, did not support the Factory Acts of 1881 and 1891 for these reasons. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 16

Consider the following statements:

1. Tea plantations requires well-drained soil, rich in humus and organic matter.

2. The tea plant grows in tropical and subtropical climates.

3. In India, it is practiced only in Assam, hills of Darjeeling, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 16
  • Statement 1 and 2 are correct: Tea cultivation is an example of plantation agriculture. The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates endowed with deep and fertile well-drained soil, rich in humus and organic matter. Tea bushes require warm and moist frost- free climate all through the year. Frequent showers evenly distributed over the year ensure continuous growth of tender leaves.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Major tea producing states are Assam, hills of Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri districts, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Apart from these, Himachal Pradesh, Uttaranchal, Meghalaya, Andhra Pradesh and Tripura are also tea-producing states in the country.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 17

With respect to minerals found in India, consider the following statements:

1. Peninsular rocks contain most of the reserves of coal, metallic minerals and mica.

2. Sedimentary rocks on the western and eastern flanks of the peninsula have most of the petroleum deposits.

3. Rajasthan is known for its reserves of Copper.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 17
  • All the statements are correct: Minerals found in India are unevenly distributed. Broadly, peninsular rocks contain most of the reserves of coal, metallic minerals, mica and many other non-metallic minerals. Sedimentary rocks on the western and eastern flanks of the peninsula, in Gujarat and Assam have most of the petroleum deposits. Rajasthan with the rock systems of the peninsula, has reserves of many non-ferrous minerals. The vast alluvial plains of north India are almost devoid of economic minerals. These variations exist largely because of the differences in the geological structure, processes and time involved in the formation of minerals. India is critically deficient in the reserve and production of copper. The Balaghat mines in Madhya Pradesh produce 52 per cent of India’s copper. The Singhbhum district of Jharkhand is also a leading producer of copper. The Khetri mines in Rajasthan are also famous.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 18

Consider the following statements:

1. Majority of India's foreign trade volume is moved by sea.

2. The Brahmaputra river between Sadiya and Dhubri has been declared as National

Waterway - 1.

3. The Paradip port in Andhra Pradesh specializes in the export of iron ore.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 18
  • Option 1 is correct: India’s trade with foreign countries is carried from the ports located along the coast. Approximately 95 per cent of the country’s trade volume (68 per cent in terms of value) is moved by sea.

  • Option 2 is incorrect: The Brahmaputra river between Sadiya and Dhubri has been declared as National Waterway 2.

  • Option 3 is incorrect: Paradip port is located in Odisha and Visakhapatnam port is located in Andhra Pradesh. Both the ports specialize in export of iron ore. KB) Apart from these, Other National waterways are - National Waterway-1: Allahabad-Haldia stretch of the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river in the states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal National Waterway-3: Kollam-Kottapuram stretch of West Coast Canal and Champakara and Udyogamandal canals in the state of Kerala National Waterway-4: In the states of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu and the Union Territory of Puducherry National Waterway-5: In the states of West Bengal and Odisha National Waterways 6: National Waterways 6 is a proposed waterway between Lakhipur and Bhanga of the Barak River with a length of 121 km.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 19

Consider the following statements:

1. Minerals in igneous and metamorphic rocks occur in beds or layers.

2. Minerals in sedimentary rocks occur in ‘veins’ and ‘lodes’.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 19
  • Minerals are usually found in “ores”. The term ore is used to describe an accumulation of any mineral mixed with other elements. The mineral content of the ore must be in sufficient concentration to make its extraction commercially viable. The type of formation or structure in which they are found determines the relative ease with which mineral ores may be mined.

  • This also determines the cost of extraction. It is, therefore, important for us to understand the main types of formations in which minerals occur. Minerals generally occur in these forms:

    (i) In igneous and metamorphic rocks minerals may occur in the cracks, crevices, faults or joints. The smaller occurrences are called veins and the larger are called lodes. Thus statement 1 is incorrect. In sedimentary rocks a number of minerals occur in beds or layers. They have been formed as a result of deposition, accumulation and concentration in horizontal strata. Thus statement 2 is incorrect.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 20

This River flows in a rift valley and is a west flowing river. It rises in Satpura ranges, in Madhya Pradesh. The basin of the river covers parts of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra.

Which of the following rivers is mentioned here?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 20
Option (d) is the correct answer.
  • Option A is not the correct answer. Naramada rises in Amarkantak hills, Madhya Pradesh. It flows towards the west in a rift valley formed due to faulting. Its basin covers parts of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat.

  • Option B is not the correct answer. Sabarmati River is one of the major west-flowing rivers in India. It originates in the Aravalli Range, Rajasthan and meets the Arabian Sea. Its drainage basin covers Rajasthan and Gujarat.

  • Option C is not the correct answer. Mahanadi is an east flowing river and drains into Bay of Bengal. It rises in the highlands of Chhattisgarh. Its drainage basin covers states of Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Odisha.

  • Option D is the correct answer. The Tapi River rises in Satpura ranges in Betul district of Madhya Pradesh. It is a west flowing river and drains in Arabian Sea. It flows in a rift valley parallel to Narmada. Its basin covers parts of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra. KB) Other major west flowing rivers are: Mahi, Bharathpuzha, Periyar.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 21

The largest riverine island of the world – Majuli lies in the state of?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 21
Option (a) is the correct answer.
  • Majuli is a river island in the Brahmaputra River, Assam and in 2016 it became the first island to be made a district in India. Majuli has shrunk as the river surrounding it has grown. Majuli is currently listed as the world's largest river island in the Guinness Book of World Records.

  • The island has been the hub of Assamese neo-Vaishnavite culture, initiated around the 15th century by the revered Assamese saint Srimanta Sankardeva and his disciple Madhavdeva. Many ‘Satras’ or monasteries constructed by the saint still survive and represent the colourful Assamese culture The Mising (or Miris) community has the largest population in the island.

  • They are also found in the state of Arunachal Pradesh. Misings are recognised as a Scheduled Tribe by the Indian government under the name 'Miri'.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 22

Consider the following statements regarding ‘sacred groves’:

1. These patches of forest have been left untouched by the local people and any interference with them is banned.

2. They are used for Nature worship by tribal people

3. Mahua and Kadamba trees are found in sacred groves.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 22
Option (d) is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 and 2 is correct. Sacred groves - a wealth of diverse and rare species. Nature worship is an age-old tribal belief based on the premise that all creations of nature have to be protected. Such beliefs have preserved several virgin forests in pristine form called Sacred Groves (the forests of God and Goddesses). These patches of forest or parts of large forests have been left untouched by the local people and any interference with them is banned.

  • Statement 3 is correct. The Mundas and the Santhal of Chhota Nagpur region worship mahua (Bassia latifolia) and kadamba (Anthocephalus cadamba) trees, and the tribals of Orissa and Bihar worship the tamarind (Tamarindus indica) and mango (Mangifera indica) trees during weddings. To many of us, peepal and banyan trees are considered sacred.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 23

Consider the following statements with reference to ocean basins:

  1. They contain 97.2 per cent of the world’s total water on the Earth.

  2. They account for four-fifths of the Southern Hemisphere and three-fifth of the Northern Hemisphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 23
  • Ocean basins cover approximately 71 per cent of Earth's surface. Their average depth is 5,000 meters. There are five major subdivisions of the world ocean: the Pacific Ocean, Atlantic Ocean, Indian Ocean, Southern Ocean, and the Arctic Ocean.

  • The Pacific, Atlantic, and Indian Oceans are conventional ocean basins and are bounded by the continental masses or by ocean ridges and currents; they merge below 40° South latitude in the Antarctic Circumpolar Current, or west Wind Drift, at the Southern (or Antarctic) Ocean. In the North Polar Region, the nearly circular Arctic Ocean, almost landlocked except between Greenland and Europe, is considered the fifth ocean subdivision.

  • Oceans form a single, large, continuous body of water encircling all the landmass of the earth. They account for four-fifths of the Southern Hemisphere and three-fifth of the Northern Hemisphere. They contain 97.2 per cent of the world’s total water. Hence both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

  • There are four principal oceans in the world which are separated largely on the basis of their geographical locations. These are the Pacific Ocean, the Indian Ocean, the Atlantic Ocean and the Arctic Ocean. All the other seas, inland seas or the arms of the oceans, are counted within these four main oceans.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 24

Consider the following statements with respect to the Mercalli scale and Richter scale:

  1. Mercalli scale is linear whereas the Richter scale is logarithmic.

  2. The Mercalli scale measurement is based on the observation of the earthquake's effect on the earth's surface and Richter scale's measurement is based on the amplitude of Seismic waves.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 24
  • Earthquakes are tremors which are produced by the passage of vibratory waves through the rocks of the earth. The severity of an earthquake can be expressed in terms of both intensity and magnitude. Intensity is based on the observed effects of ground shaking on people, buildings, and natural features. It varies from place to place within the disturbed region depending on the location of the observer with respect to the earthquake epicenter. Magnitude is related to the amount of seismic energy released at the hypocenter of the earthquake. It is based on the amplitude of the earthquake waves recorded on instruments which have a common calibration.

  • Both statements are correct: Mercalli scale is a seismic intensity scale used for measuring the intensity of shaking produced by an earthquake. It measures the effects of an earthquake at a given location. It measures the intensity of an earthquake by observing its effect on people, the environment and the earth’s surface. It is a linear measurement.

  • Richter scale is a quantitative measure of an earthquake’s magnitude (size). The earthquake’s magnitude is determined using the logarithm of the amplitude (height) of the largest seismic wave calibrated to a scale by a seismograph. The Richter Scale measures the energy released by an earthquake using a seismograph.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 25

Which of the following languages are listed as a part of the official languages in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?

  1. Hindi

  2. Urdu

  3. Dogri

  4. Pashto

  5. Punjabi

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 25
  • The Indian Parliament recently passed a Bill for the inclusion of Kashmiri, Dogri and Hindi in the list of official languages in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir, in addition to the existing Urdu and English. Hence option (c) is the correct answer. Punjabi was not included in the Bill.

  • The Dardic languages are a sub-group of the Indo-Aryan languages natively spoken in Northern Pakistan’s Gilgit Baltistan and Khyber Pakhtunkhwa, Northern India’s Jammu and Kashmir and Eastern Afghanistan. Kashmiri along with Shina and Khowar spoken in the J&K region belong to Dardic group.

  • Kashmiri is the most spoken language in the entire J&K with close to 9 million speakers. Kashmiri is also the only Dardic language that is one of the 22 scheduled languages as per the Indian Constitution. Within the whole Kashmir region, there is a unique language called Burushaski spoken in Hunza & Nagar areas of Gilgit-Baltistan.

  • Pashto, Pukhto or Pakhto, is an Eastern Iranian language of the Indo-European family. It is known in Persian literature as Afghani. Speakers of the language are called Pashtuns or Pukhtuns/Pakhtuns. Pashto and Dari are the two official languages of Afghanistan.

  • Other important languages spoken in the UT of J& K and Ladakh include Gojri, Urdu, Wakhi, Ladakhi (Bhoti), Balti, Purgi, Zangskari, Pahari etc.

JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 26

Who among the following introduced the portfolio system in India?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 26

Option (a) is correct:
The Indian Council Act of 1861 recognized the ‘Portfolio System’ introduced by Lord Canning in 1859. Under this, a member of the Viceroy’s council was made in-charge of one or more departments of the government with authority to issue final order on behalf of the council on matters of his department(s).
Features of Indian Council Act, 1861: 

  • Beginning of representative institutions as Indians were allowed to participate in the law-making process as non-official members of the council. Lord canning nominated 3 Indians (the Raja of Benaras, the Maharaja of Patiala and sir Dinkar Rao) in this process.
  • It restored the legislative power of Bombay and Madras presidency which was taken away by the Act of 1833 (beginning of decentralisation). This policy of legislative devolution resulted in the grant of almost complete internal autonomy to the provinces in 1937.
  • The Act provided for the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal, North-Western Frontier Province (NWFP) and Punjab, which were established in 1862, 1866 and 1897 respectively.
  • The Act gave a recognition to the ‘portfolio’ system, introduced by Lord Canning in 1859. Under this, a member of the Viceroy’s council was made in- charge of one or more departments of the government and was authorised to issue final orders on behalf of the council on matters of his department(s).
  • The Act empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinances (valid for 6 months), without the concurrence of the legislative council, during an emergency.
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 27

Consider the following statements with respect to the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR):
1. It is a statutory body constituted under the Child Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Act, 1986.
2. It has been designated as the agency to monitor provisions of the Right to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 27
  • The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament, the Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005. The Commission works under the aegis of the Ministry of Women and Child Development. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) emphasizes the principle of universality and inviolability of child rights and recognizes the tone of urgency in all the child-related policies of the country. For the Commission, the protection of all children in the 0 to 18 years age group is of equal importance.
  • The Commission shall perform the following functions, namely:
    • Examine and review the safeguards provided by any law for the protection of child rights and recommend measures for their effective implementation.
    • Present to the central government, reports upon working of those safeguards;
    • Inquire into violation of child rights
    • Examine all factors that inhibit the enjoyment of rights of children affected by terrorism, communal violence, riots,
    • Look into matters relating to children in need of special care and protection etc.
  • The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) has been designated as the agency to monitor provisions of the Right to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act. Under the Act, NCPCR can investigate complaints and have the powers of a civil court in trying cases. Hence statement 2 is correct.
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 28

Consider the following statements with reference to the idea of liberalism in the context of the Indian Constitution:
1. Indian liberalism gives primacy to the rights of the individuals over the rights of the community.
2. Reservations for SC/ST community in the constitution are an example of Indian liberalism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 28
  • Statement 1 is not correct: Indian liberalism is different from classical or western liberalism. Classical liberalism is more concerned with individual freedom. While in India, an individual identifies himself with the community to which he/she belongs. So Indian liberalism gives primacy to the rights of the individuals over the demands of social justice and community values.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The reservation to deprived classes to meet their demands for social justice signifies the idea of Indian liberalism.
     
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 29

Which of the following statements are true?
1. The presidential system is based on the principle of cooperation and coordination between the legislative and executive organ of the Government.
2. The parliamentary system is based on the doctrine of separation of powers between the legislative and executive organ of
the Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 29

Option (d) is correct:
The Constitution of India has opted for the British parliamentary System of Government rather than American Presidential System of Government. The parliamentary system is based on the principle of cooperation and coordination between the legislative and executive organs while the presidential system is based on the doctrine of separation of powers between the two organs. The parliamentary system is also known as the ‘Westminster’ model of government, responsible government and cabinet government. The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre but also in the states.
The features of parliamentary government in India are:

  • Presence of nominal and real executives
  • Majority party rule
  • Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature
  • Membership of the ministers in the legislature
  • Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister
  • Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly). In a parliamentary system whether in India or Britain, the role of the Prime Minister has become so significant and crucial that the political scientists like to call it a ‘Prime Ministerial Government’.
JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 30

Which of the following Acts are associated with the communal representation?
1. Indian Council Act, 1909
2. Government of India Act, 1919
3. Government of India Act, 1935
4. Rowlatt Act, 1919
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 9 - Question 30

Option (c) is correct:
The Indian Council Act, 1909 introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’. Under this, the Muslim members were to be elected only by Muslim voters. Thus, the Act ‘legalised communalism’ and Lord Minto came to be known as the Father of Communal Electorate. The Government of India Act, 1919 extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians and Europeans. The Government of India Act, 1935 further extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for depressed classes (scheduled castes), women and labour (workers).

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