TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - TNPSC (Tamil Nadu) MCQ

Anamalai wildlife sanctuary is located about 90 km from Coimbatore at an altitude of 1,400 m in the Western Ghats near Pollachi.

Jackfruit is the stste fruit of tamilnadu. The jackfruit, also known as jack tree, is a species of tree in the fig, mulberry, and breadfruit family. Its origin is in the region between the Western Ghats of southern India,

Aanaimalai Tiger Reserve was also known as Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary and National Park is located in the state of Tamil Nadu. The practice of sliding timber logs down the hills from a place located in the northeast corner of the park is named as “Topslip”. It is a famous tourist attraction.

kodi Kaatha Kumaran died from injuries sustained from a police assault on the banks of Noyyal River in Tiruppur during a protest march against the British government on 11 January 1932.

Rajaji's idea of the Madras Scheme of Elementary Education in 1953 was dubbed by its critics as Kula Kalvi Thittam (Hereditary Education Policy) and was a controversial education reform which was aborted.

The latitude and longitudes of Tamil Nadu are as follows: Latitude 8° 5′ N and 13° 35′ N and Longitudes 76° 15′ E and 80° 20′ E.

The Mail, known as The Madras Mail till 1928, was an English- language daily evening newspaper published in the Madras Presidency (later Madras State, and then, Tamil Nadu) from 1868 to 1981. It was the first evening newspaper in India.

Battle of Madras refers to a battle in 1746, when the Fort St. George was seized by the French. In this battle the British troops surrendered and were poisoned. Lord Clive escaped the prison and this was for the first time when he came under limelight. The Battle was ended with Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle that ended the war made provision for Madras to be returned to the British in exchange for Louisburg in Nova Scotia which had been captured by British forces in 1745.

Chennai was previously called Madras. Madras was the shortened name of the fishing village Madraspatnam, where the British East India Company built a fort and factory (trading post) in 1639-40. Tamil Nadu officially changed the name of the city to Chennai in 1996.

Option (d) is the correct answer.

The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department

Statement 1 is Correct - He is the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both levels—the Centre and the state. His duty is to uphold the Constitution of India and laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration. He is one of the bulwarks of the democratic system of government in India; the others being the Supreme Court, the Election Commission and the Union Public Service Commission.

Statement 2 is Correct.- The CAG is appointed by the president of India by a warrant under his hand and seal. The CAG, before taking over his office, makes and subscribed before the president an oath or affirmation he can be removed by the president on the basis of a resolution passed to that effect by both the Houses of Parliament with special majority, either on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity

Statement 1 is correct. The Delimitation Commission decides the basis on which constituencies are reserved for SC and ST candidates as well as declares which of the constituencies would be reserved.

A quota of constituencies to be reserved in each State is fixed depending on the proportion of SC or ST in that State. After drawing the boundaries, the Delimitation Commission looks at the composition of population in each constituency. Those constituencies that have the highest proportion of Scheduled Tribe population are reserved for ST. In the case of Scheduled Castes, the Delimitation Commission looks at two things. It picks constituencies that have higher proportion of Scheduled Caste population. But it also spreads these constituencies in different regions of the State. This is done because the Scheduled Caste population is generally spread evenly throughout the country. These reserved constituencies can be rotated each time the

Delimitation exercise is undertaken Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India. It is appointed for the purpose of drawing up the boundaries of constituencies all over the country.

• Statement a is incorrect: All Fundamental rights guarantee the rights of an individual against the state but not all are available against the action of private individuals. For example, the first provision of Article -15 that the state shall not discriminate against any citizen on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth prohibits discrimination only by state and not by private individuals. While the second provision of not allowing citizens access to shops, public place on the basis of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth prohibits discrimination both by state and by private individuals. Article 19 are protected only against state and not against private individuals.

• Statement b is incorrect: These rights are binding upon all the authority that has got power to make laws whether it be central government or state government or local government.

• Statement c is incorrect. The role of guiding the Indian state to promote social and economic welfare is the function of DPSPs (Directive principles of state policy) and not of Fundamental rights.

• Statement d is correct. Both the Supreme court under Article 32 and High courts under Article 226 can issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental rights. However, a person can go directly to Supreme court for his violation of fundamental rights. It is not necessary that he can go to Supreme court only by the way of appeal mechanism.

Statement 1 is correct. The writ of habeas corpus can be issued against both public authorities as well as private individuals. The writ, on the other hand, is not issued where the (a) detention is lawful, (b) the proceeding is for contempt of a legislature or a court, (c) detention is by a competent court, and (d) detention is outside the jurisdiction of the court.

Statement 2 is correct. The writ of certiorari could be issued against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities, and against administrative authorities. It is not available against legislative bodies and private individuals or bodies.

Statement 3 is correct. The writ of prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies.

Some other writs:

1) Mandamus literally means ‘we command’. It is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose.

2) Quo-Warranto means ‘by what authority or warrant’. It is issued by the court to enquire into the legality of claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person.

• Article 359 authorises the President to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency. This means that under Article 359, the Fundamental Rights as such are not suspended, but only their enforcement. The said rights are theoretically alive but the right to seek remedy is suspended. The suspension of enforcement relates to only those Fundamental Rights that are specified in the Presidential Order. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 restricted the scope of Article 359 in two ways.

  • Firstly, the President cannot suspend the right to move the Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 20 to 21. In other words, the right to protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20) and the right to life and personal liberty (Article 21) remain enforceable even during emergency.

  • Secondly, only those laws which are related with the emergency are protected from being challenged and not other laws and the executive action taken only under such a law, is protected.

• Article 359 operates in case of both when National Emergency is declared on grounds of war or external aggression as well as on the ground of armed rebellion.

• Article 359 may extend to the entire country or a part of it. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

• Article 359 does not empower the President to promulgate ordinance in a state. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

Statement 2 is correct. Till 1989, the voting age was 21 years. The Constitution (Sixty first Amendment) Act, 1988, lowered the voting age of elections to the Lok Sabha and to the Legislative Assemblies of States from 21 years to 18 years.

Provisions borrowed from Constitutions of different countries

British Constitution

• First Past the Post

• Parliamentary Form of Government

• The idea of the rule of law

• Institution of the Speaker and his role and Law Making procedure

United States Constitution

• Charter of Fundamental Rights

• Power of Judicial Review and independence of the judiciary

Irish Constitution

• Directive Principles of State Policy

French Constitution

• Principles of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity

Canadian Constitution

• A quasi-federal form of government (a federal system with a strong central government)

• The idea of Residual Powers

  Therefore option (c) is the correct answer

Statement 1 is correct: The right to move the Supreme Court can be suspended by the President during a national emergency (Article 359).

Statement 2 is correct: The remedy under Article 32 is a fundamental right in itself hence, the supreme court cannot refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction. On the other hand, a remedy under Article 226 is discretionary and hence, a high court may refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction. However, Court Martial i.e. the tribunals established under the military law have been exempted from the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the high courts via article 33.

Article 32 provides the Right to Constitutional Remedies which means that a person has the right to move to the Supreme Court (and high courts also) for protecting his fundamental rights. While Supreme Court has power to issue writs under article 32, High Courts have been given the same powers under article 226.

Further, the power to issue writs can also be extended to any other court (including local courts) by the Parliament. In addition, the constitution also provides for the parliament to confer on the Supreme Court power to issue writs for the purpose other than the one mentioned above. Similarly, High courts in India are also empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of any of the rights conferred by Part III and for any other purpose.

There are five types of writs that the Courts (both Supreme Court and the High Court) can use –Habeas corpus, Quo Warranto, Mandamus, Certiorari and Prohibition.

• The National Pension Scheme is a social security initiative by the Central Government. Earlier, the NPS scheme covered only the Central Government employees. Now, however, the PFRDA has made it open to all Indian citizens on a voluntary basis. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• NPS scheme holds immense value for anyone who works in the private sector and requires a regular pension after retirement.

• NRI can open an NPS account. Contributions made by NRI are subject to regulatory requirements as prescribed by RBI and FEMA from time to time. However, OCI (Overseas Citizens of India) and PIO (Person of Indian Origin) cardholders and HUFs are not eligible for the opening of an NPS account. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• NPS account can be opened only in an individual capacity and cannot be opened or operated jointly or for and on behalf of HUF.

India has moved up by six slots to improve its position and rank 61st as per the Network

Readiness Index 2022 (NRI 2022). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

This report was prepared by a US-based Portulans Institute, an independent non-profit

research and educational institute.

India leads in several indicators of the Network Readiness Index (NRI) 2022:

India secured

• 1st rank in “AI talent concentration”. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• 2nd rank in “Mobile broadband internet traffic within the country” and “International Internet bandwidth”.

• 3rd rank in “Annual investment in telecommunication services” and “Domestic market Size”

• 4th rank in “ICT Services exports”.

• 5th rank in “FTTH/Building Internet subscriptions” and “AI scientific publications”

Knowledge Base: other provisions of the Cabinet mission plan:

1. The representatives of each community were to be elected by members of that community in the provincial legislative assembly and voting was to be by the method of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.

2. The representatives of the princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the princely states.

Statement 1 is not correct: The Vice-President of India is the second highest constitutional office in the country.

• He serves for a five-year term, but can continue to be in office, irrespective of the expiry of the term, until the successor assumes office.

• The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament, in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and the voting in such election is by secret ballot(Article 66 (1)).

Statements 2 and 3 are correct: The Election Commission of India conducts the election to the office of the Vice-President.

• The Election Commission is mandated to ensure that the election to the office of the VicePresident of India must be a free and fair election and the Commission is taking all necessary steps for discharging its constitutional responsibility

• All doubts and disputes arising in connection with the election of the Vice-President are enquired into and decided by the Supreme Court of India whose decision is final.

• A petition challenging the election of the Vice-President is heard by a five-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India.

Statement 1 is not correct: The Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY) was

announced in 2003 with the objectives of correcting regional imbalances in the availability of

affordable/ reliable tertiary healthcare services and also to augment facilities for quality

medical education in the country. PMSSY has two components:-

1. Setting up of AIIMS like Institutions

2. Upgradation of Government Medical College(GMC)/ Institutions.

Statement 2 is correct: The nodal Ministry is the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Statement 2 is correct. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) presides over the Election Commission, but does not have more powers than the other Election Commissioners. The CEC and the two Election Commissioners have equal powers to take all decisions relating to elections as a collective body.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Constitution ensures the security of the tenure of the CEC and Election Commissioners. They are appointed for a six-year term or continue till the age of 65, whichever is earlier.

• The Constitution does not contain any classification of Directive Principles. However, on the basis of their content and direction, they can be classified into three broad categories as socialistic, Gandhian, and liberal-intellectual.

• Gandhian Principles are based on Gandhian ideology. They represent the program of reconstruction enunciated by Gandhi during the national movement. In order to fulfill the dreams of Gandhi, some of his ideas were included as Directive Principles.

  • To organize village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and authority to enable them to function as units of self-government (Article 40).

  • To promote cottage industries on an individual or cooperation basis in rural areas (Article 43).

  • To promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control, and professional management of cooperative societies (Article 43B).

  • To promote the educational and economic interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker sections of the society and to protect them from social injustice and exploitation (Article 46).

  • To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs which are injurious to health (Article 47).

  • To prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves, and other milch and draught cattle and to improve their breeds (Article 48).

• To secure the right to work, to education, and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, and disablement (Article 41). This is a socialistic directive principle

• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

The first Chief Justice of India took office in 1950.