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30 Questions MCQ Test - Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1

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Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 1

Who was the director of the first Manipuri film "Matamgi Manipur"

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 2

Who among the following rulers of the Pallava Empire constructed a temple oriented to the east, facing the ocean, and housing two Shiva shrines and one Vishnu shrine?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 2

The shore temple at Mahabalipuram was built in the reign of Narasimhavarman II, also known as Rajasimha, who reigned from 700 CE to 728 CE. Now it is oriented to the east, facing the ocean, but if you study it closely, you will find that it actually houses three shrines, two to Shiva, one facing east and the other west, and a middle one to Vishnu. This is unusual, because the temples generally have a single main shrine and not three areas of worship.

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Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 3

Arrange the following elements of the Buddhist Stupa structure in the correct sequence of their arrangement from bottom to top.

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 3
  • Buddhist stupa structure: The Buddhist stupa is a sacred monument that represents important aspects of Buddha's teachings and serves as a place of meditation and veneration.
  • The structure of a stupa can vary, but the f ollowing elements are commonly found from bottom to top:
    • Platform/Base (Adhisthana): The stupa is usually elevated on a square or circular platform, called the adhisthana. It symbolizes the earth element and provides a solid foundation for the entire structure.
    • Hemispherical Dome (Anda): Atop the base, there is a hemispherical dome representing the abode of enlightenment or nirvana. The dome represents the water element and embodies the vastness of the cosmos.
    • Harmika: Above the dome, there is a square railing known as the harmika. It symbolizes the transition from the human to the divine realm. The harmika represents the air element.
    • Chattra (Umbrella): On top of the harmika, there is an umbrella-like structure called the chattra, which represents protection and spiritual guidance. It signifies the fire element.
    • Yashti (Shaft): Rising from the center of the chattra, there is a vertical shaft known as the yasti, which symbolizes the axis mundi, connecting the earthly and heavenly realms. The yasti represents the space element.
    • Chhatri (Finial): At the top of the yasti, there is a crowning element known as the chhatri. It is usually in the shape of a lotus or other decorative forms, symbolizing purity and enlightenment.


Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 4

What does "criticality" refer to in the context of a nuclear reactor?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 4
  • Recent context: The third unit of the Kakrapar Atomic Power Project (KAPP-3) in Gujarat achieved its ‘first criticality’.
    • This is a landmark event in India’s domestic civilian nuclear programme given that KAPP-3 is the country’s first 700 MWe (megawatt electric) unit, and the biggest indigenously developed variant of the Pressurised Heavy Water Reactor (PHWR).
    • The PHWRs, which use natural uranium as fuel and heavy water as moderator, are the mainstay of India’s nuclear reactor fleet.
    • PHWR technology started in India in the late 1960s with the construction of the first 220 MWe reactor, Rajasthan Atomic Power Station.
  • Reactors are the heart of an atomic power plant, where a controlled nuclear fission reaction takes place that produces heat, which is used to generate steam that then spins a turbine to create electricity.
    • Fission is a process in which the nucleus of an atom splits into two or more smaller nuclei, and usually some byproduct particles.
    • When the nucleus splits, the kinetic energy of the fission fragments is transferred to other atoms in the fuel as heat energy, which is eventually used to produce steam to drive the turbines.
    • For every fission event, if at least one of the emitted neutrons on average causes another fission, a selfsustaining chain reaction will take place.
    • A nuclear reactor achieves criticality when each fission event releases a sufficient number of neutrons to sustain an ongoing series of self sustained chain reactions.
      • Criticality is the state of a nuclear reactor when enough neutrons are created by fission to make up for those lost by leakage or absorption such that the number of neutrons produced in fission remains constant.

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 5

Which of the following steps were taken by rulers in the medieval times to earn support of their subjects?

  1. Declaring their close relationship with god through titles like “Shadow of God”.

  2. Constructing public buildings like markets and water tanks.

  3. Offering patronage to the learned and pious people.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 5
All the statements are correct

As each new dynasty came to power, kings wanted to emphasize their moral right to be rulers. They took following steps in this regard - Constructing places of worship provided rulers with the chance to proclaim their close relationship with God, especially important in an age of rapid political change. Temples and mosques were constructed because they were places of worship and were meant to demonstrate the power, wealth and devotion of the patron.

The largest temples were all constructed by kings. These temples served a miniature model of the world ruled by the king and his allies. As they worshipped their deities together in the royal temples, it seemed as if they brought the just rule of the gods on earth. For instance, in Rajarajeshvara temple, an inscription mentions that it was built by King Rajarajadeva for the worship of his god, Rajarajeshvaram. Thus, the king took the god’s name because it was auspicious and he wanted to appear like a god -through the rituals of worship in the temple one god (Rajarajadeva) honoured another (Rajarajeshvaram).

Persian court chronicles described the Sultan as the “Shadow of God”. For instance, an inscription in the Quwwat al-Islam mosque explained that the God chose Alauddin as a king as he had the qualities of Moses and Solomon, the great lawgivers of the past.

Rulers also offered patronage to the learned and pious, and tried to transform their capitals and cities into great cultural centers that brought fame to their rule and their realm.

Kings were expected to care for their subjects, and by making structures for their use and comfort, rulers hoped to win their praise.

Between the eighth and the eighteenth centuries kings and their officers built two kinds of structures:

  • The first were forts, palaces, garden residences and tombs – safe, protected and grandiose places of rest in this world and the next;

  • The second were structures meant for public activity including temples, mosques, tanks, wells, caravanserais and bazaars.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 6

Which of the following statements best describe “Virgin Vegetation”?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 6
  • The type of vegetation which has grown on its own naturally without any aid from human beings or those which have been left untouched or undisturbed by the human beings for a long time are termed as “Virgin vegetation”.

  • The virgin vegetation, which are purely Indian are known as endemic or indigenous species but those which have come from outside India are termed as exotic plants. Thus statement 3 is correct. Example - Unreachable areas of the Amazon rainforest, Trenches in the Ocean etc. Plant community which is endemic to a particular area is known as native species.

  • Plant community formed due to primary succession in an ecosystem are known as Pioneer species. Plant community newly introduced in an ecosystem is known as exotic species.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 7

Consider the following statements:

  1. The highest peak of peninsular India Anamudi, lies on the border of Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

  2. Meghalaya- Mikir uplands forms a part of Peninsular India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 7
Option (b) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Anaimudi is the highest peak of peninsular India. Peninsular India comprises Deccan Plateau and the mountain ranges – Aravali, Vindhya, Satpura, Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats.

Anamudi/Anamudi Peak of Munnar is Located at the junction of the Cardamom Hills, Anaimalai Hills and Palani Hills in Kerala. It is the highest peak of western Ghats. It has an elevation of 2,695 metres above sea level. The name Anamudi literally translates to “elephant’s forehead”.

Statement 2 is correct. Meghalaya includes the Khasi, Garo, Jaintia hills and the Assam ranges at its border. Meghalaya represents the extension of peninsular India towards the north-east. The height of the dissected Meghalaya Plateau is 150m to 1961m above sea level. This place is detached from the Indian peninsula

by the Malda Gap.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 8

Which of the following is/are warm ocean currents?

  1. Canary current

  2. Mozambique current

  3. North Equatorial Current

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 8
  • The Canary Current (cold) is a wind-driven surface current that is part of the North Atlantic Gyre. This eastern boundary current branches south from the North Atlantic Current and flows southwest about as far as Senegal where it turns west and later joins the Atlantic North Equatorial Current. Hence option 1 is not correct.

  • The Mozambique Current is an ocean current in the Indian Ocean, usually defined as warm surface waters flowing south along the African east coast in the Mozambique Channel, between Mozambique and the island of Madagascar. Hence option 2 is correct.

  • The North Equatorial Current (warm) is found in the North Atlantic from about 7°N to about 20°N. Fortified by the Atlantic trade wind belt, the NEC is a broad westward flowing current that forms the southern limb of the North Atlantic subtropical gyre. The current originates from the northwestern coast of Africa, where it is fed mainly by the cooler waters flowing from the northeast Atlantic. Hence option 3 is correct.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 9

Consider the following statements regarding the making of Indian Constitution:
1. Satyendra Prasad Sinha was the fi rst Indian to join Viceroy Executive Council under Morley-Minto reforms of 1909.
2. Montagu-Chelmsford reforms for the fir st time authorized the provincial legislatures to enact their own budgets.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 9

Making of Indian Constitution

  • The Act of 1861 was important in the constitutional history because it enabled the Governor-General to associate the people of the land with work of legislation. And by vesting legislative powers in the Governments of Bombay and Madras which ultimately culminated in grant of almost complete internal autonomy to the provinces in the 1937.
  • However, the legislative councils were merely talk shops with no power to criticize the administration or ask for some information.
  • Their scope was fi xed in legislation purpose alone; they had no right to move some kind of vote of no confid ence. Further, there was no statutory / specifi c provision for the nomination of Indians.
  • This nomination power of the Viceroy could be used only to placate the princes who could help the British to keep their stronghold.
  • Further, the ordinance making power of the Governor General allowed him to make laws it his own whim. In summary, the Indian Councils Act 1861 failed to satisfy the aspirations of the people of India.
  • Satyendra Prasad Sinha was the fi rst Indian to join viceroy executive council under Morley-Minto reforms of 1909.
  • Montagu-Chelmsford reforms for the fir st time authorized the provincial legislatures to enact their own budgets
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 10

There are the several landmark cases in Indian constitutional history have shaped and reaffi rmed under Article 21. In this context, consider the following cases:

1. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) - Right to life
2. Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985) - Right to livelihood

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 10

Right to life

  • Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978): In this case, the Supreme Court held that the right to life under Article 21 is not limited to mere animal existence but encompasses a wider range of rights. The court emphasized that the procedure established by law must be fair, just, and reasonable, and any law depriving a person of life or personal liberty must satisfy the test of reasonableness.
  • Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985): The Supreme Court, in this case, upheld the right to livelihood as an integral part of the right to life. It held that the right to life includes the right to earn a livelihood, and any action that deprives a person of their livelihood without a reasonable justific ation would violate Article 21.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 11

Consider the following:

1. Public Service Commissions
2. Federal Scheme
3. Emergency Powers
4. Co-operative Societies
5. Three-tier Government

How many of the above are the administrative sources of the Indian Constitution are drawn from the Government of India Act, 1935?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 11

Government of India Act, 1935

  • The Constitution is known as the supreme law of the land. All the other Legislation must follow it. It has a set of rules that govern the Government and its interactions with the citizens. A constitution is concerned with two primary aspects: the relationship between the various levels of Government and the relationship between the Government and the people.
  • The Constitution is not an instrument for the Government to restrain the people. It is an instrument for the people to control the Government. - Patrick Henry
  • The most profound infl uence and material source of the Constitution is the Government of India Act, 1935. The Federal Scheme, Judiciary, Governors, Emergency Powers, the Public Service Commissions and most of the administrative details are drawn from this Act.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 12

With reference to Market Intervention Scheme (MIS), consider the following statements:
1. The objective of this scheme is to promote the domestic production of those food crops that India imports from
abroad.
2. Under the MIS, a pre-determined quantity at a fixed Market Intervention Price (MIP) is procured by NAFED as
the central agency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 12
  • The Market Intervention Scheme (MIS) is a price support mechanism implemented at the request of state governments for the procurement of perishable and horticultural commodities in the event of a fall in market prices. Hence statement 1 is not correct. 
  • Its objective is to protect the growers of these horticultural/agricultural commodities from making distress sales in the event of a bumper crop. It is implemented when there is at least a 10% increase in production or a 10% decrease in the ruling rates over the previous normal year. 
  • Under the MIS, a pre-determined quantity at a fixed Market Intervention Price (MIP) is procured by NAFED as the central agency. The area of operation is restricted to the concerned state only. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
  • Proposal of MIS is approved on the specific request of State/UT Government, if they are ready to bear 50% loss (25% in case of North-Eastern States), if any, incurred on its implementation. 
  • Under MIS, funds are not allocated to the States. Instead, the central share of losses as per the guidelines of MIS is released to the State Governments/UTs, for which MIS has been approved based on specific proposals received from them.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 13

Which of the following statements is not true with regard to the monetisation of deficit ?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 13

The monetized deficit is the monetary support the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) extends to the Centre as part of the Government's borrowing programme. In other words, the term refers to the purchase of government bonds by the central bank to finance the Government's spending needs. Monetisation of Deficit means printing more money. Monetization of deficit was in practice in India till 1997, whereby the central bank automatically monetized government deficit by issuing adhoc treasury bills. Two agreements were signed between the Government and RBI in 1994 and 1997 to completely phase out funding through ad hoc treasury bills. And later, with the enactment of the FRBM Act 2003, RBI was completely barred from subscribing to the primary issuances of the Government from April 2006. The important consequence of Deficit monetization is that it triggers a spike in the inflation rate. It won't immediately translate into a higher inflation rate in India due to the demand slowdown the economy is experiencing. However, an increased money supply could proportionately lead to a higher inflation rate when the economy enters the recovery path. So, Option (d) is correct.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 14

Consider the following statements:

1. When Income increases, the demand curve shifts upwards for all goods.

2. The decrease in sales for a product attributed to shift towards cheaper alternatives in market.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 14
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The income effect describes how an increase in income can change the quantity of goods that consumers will demand. For normal goods, as income raises so does the demand for them (and vice-versa).
  • Statement 2 is correct: The substitution effect is the decrease in sales for a product that can be attributed to consumers switching to cheaper alternatives when its price rises.

Demand and Supply

  • This is reflected in microeconomics via an upward shift in the downward-sloping demand curve.
  • This effect, however, can vary depending on the availability of substitutes and the good’s elasticity of demand.
  • For inferior goods, the income effect dominates the substitution effect and leads consumers to purchase more of a good, and less of substitute goods, when the price rises.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 15

Arrange the following steps in the process of decomposition in sequence.
1. Catabolism
2. Humification
3. Mineralisation
4. Leaching

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 15

Decomposition:

  • Decomposition is an important process in an ecosystem. It will keep the ecosystem clean and make our soil fertile. The decomposition process is done by the organisms called decomposers and it is a five-stage process in which dead organisms or substances are broken down into simpler organic or inorganic matter. It maintains the balance of an ecosystem.

Decomposition Process:

  • Fragmentation: Fragmentation is the first stage of the decomposition process. In this process, the invertebrates (Detitivoes) feed on the dead remains of plants and animals(Detritus). The complex organic matter passes through the digestive tract of detritivores and is degraded into small particles.
  • Leaching: Leaching is the second stage of the decomposition process. In this process, the water-soluble organic particles are transferred to the soil horizon and it gets precipitated as unavailable salt.
  • Catabolism: Catabolism is the third stage of the decomposition process. After breaking down the complex organic matters and removing water-soluble nutrients, the detritus is converted into small inorganic compounds. This process is done by various bacteria and fungi(Decomposers)
  • Humification: The above three stages are simultaneous. After that, the detritus is converted into humus. The process of formation of humus is known as humification and it is a rich fertilizer for the soil. It is highly resistant to microbial actions so it decomposes at an extremely slow rate. This stage of decomposition takes more time than other stages.
  • Mineralization: This is the last stage of the decomposition process. In this, the humus (colloidal nature) is converted into inorganic nutrients by some microbes. The inorganic nutrients are again used by plants and again the food chain begins.

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 16

Copper is used to layer the boats made o f wood because of which of the following reasons? 

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 16
  • Ship hulls are under continuous attack by shipworm and various marine weeds, all of which have some adverse effect on the ship, be it structurally, as in the case of the worm, or affecting speed and handling in the case of the weeds.
  • Copper sheathing is the method for protecting the hull of a wooden vessel from attack by shipworm, barnacles and other marine growth through the use of copper plates affixed to the surface of the hull, below the waterline.
  • Copper has anti-bacterial properties and prevents the growth of bacteria on the ship and prevents it decay. While other functions like providing strength etc. can be done by other metals too but preventing the growth of bacteria is the one that makes it unique for the use in boats.

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 17

With reference to the coagulation of blood in human beings, consider the following statements:

  • Haemostasis leads to cessation of bleeding from a blood vessel which is the first stage of wound healing.
  • Haemophilia is a genetic disorder in which the blood does not clot properly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 17
  • Blood coagulation or clotting is an important phenomenon to prevent excess loss of blood in case of injury or trauma. The blood stops flowing from a wound in case of injury. The blood clot or ‘coagulum’ is formed by a network of fibrin threads.
  • In this network, deformed and dead formed elements (erythrocytes, leukocytes and platelets) get trapped.
  • Prothrombin is the inactive form of thrombin that is present in the plasma. Thrombokinase converts prothrombin to active thrombin which in turn activates fibrinogen to fibrin. All these clotting factors help in blood coagulation.
  • An injury stimulates platelets or thrombocytes to release various factors that initiate the blood clotting cascade. Calcium ions play an important role in blood coagulation.
  • The process of blood coagulation leads to haemostasis, i.e. prevention of bleeding or haemorrhage.
    Hence statement 1 is correct.
    • Primary haemostasis involves platelet aggregation and formation of a plug at the site of injury, and
    • Secondary haemostasis involves strengthening and stabilisation of platelet plug by the formation of a network of fibrin threads.
    • Haemophilia is the main blood clotting disorder.
    • Haemophilia is characterised by excessive bleeding.
    • It is due to the absence of some of the factors required in the blood clotting cascade. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • It is usually an inherited bleeding disorder in which the blood does not clot properly.
    • This can lead to spontaneous bleeding as well as bleeding following injuries or surgery. Blood contains many proteins called clotting factors that can help to stop bleeding.
    • People with hemophilia have low levels of either factor VIII (8) or factor IX (9). The severity of hemophilia that a person has is determined by the amount of factor in the blood.
    • The lower the amount of the factor, the more likely it is that bleeding will occur which can lead to serious health problems.

Thrombosis is the formation of a blood clot inside the blood vessel. It blocks the flow of blood. Thrombosis can occur in arteries as well as veins. Arterial thrombosis affects the blood supply and leads to the damage of tissue, i.e. ischemia or necrosis. The clot may sometimes break free and circulate in the body and lead to embolism.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 18

Consider the following with respect to ‘Know India Programme (KIP)’

  1. The KIP is primarily aimed at Indian diaspora youth between the ages of 21-35.
  2. KIP participants visit various Indian states to experience regional diversity and cultural heritage.
  3. The program comes under Ministry of Tourism.

Select the correct statement(s)

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 18

Statement 1
The Know India Programme (KIP) is a unique initiative by the Indian Ministry of External Affairs, designed specifically for Indian diaspora youth aged 21-35.
It aims to bridge the gap between these young people and their ancestral homeland, fostering a deeper understanding and appreciation for contemporary India
Statement 2
KIP participants get an opportunity to acquaint themselves with the history and culture of India as a civilization as well as  the advancements and achievements of modern India across diverse domains, including but not limited to the realms of economy, industry, education, science and technology, telecommunications, information technology, and space science.
Statement 3
The Know India Programme (KIP) is a unique initiative by the Indian Ministry of External Affairs.
 

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 19

Which Mahajanapada was situated in present-day Madhya Pradesh and was ruled by King Mahapadma Nanda?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 19

Avanti, located in Madhya Pradesh, was ruled by King Mahapadma Nanda, who expanded its territories significantly.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 20

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Satavahana dynasty emphasized the Vedic rituals and Brahmanical practices in their reign.
Statement-II: This emphasis was reflected in their support for Vedic education and construction of Vedic altars and temples.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 20
  • Statement-I is correct. The Satavahana dynasty did emphasize Vedic rituals and Brahmanical practices as seen in their inscriptions and the patronage of Brahmin priests.
  • Statement-II is correct and serves as a correct explanation. The emphasis on Vedic rituals was manifest in the construction of Vedic altars and temples, and support for Vedic education, aligning with the dynasty's overall cultural and religious policies to consolidate and legitimize their rule through the endorsement of Brahmanical orth.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 21

Harsha's play, "Nagananda," is written in which language?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 21

Harsha's play, "Nagananda," was written in Sanskrit. It is one of the earliest extant Sanskrit plays.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 22

Which dynasty succeeded the Haryanka dynasty in the Magadhan Empire?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 22

The Haryanka dynasty was succeeded by the Shishunagas in the Magadhan Empire. Shishunaga was a viceroy of Banaras and was invited by the people to take over the throne.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 23

What was the term used for a mansabdar who had to maintain and was paid for double the quota of troopers indicated by his sawar rank during the reign of Jahangir?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 23

The term "du-aspah sihaspah" implied that a mansabdar had to maintain and was paid for double the quota of troopers indicated by his sawar rank.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 24

Which route served as a channel for cultural transmission and the spread of Indian culture in Central Asia?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 24

The Silk Route was primarily opened for trade and later was used by scholars, monks, and missionaries. This route served as a channel for cultural transmission and the spread of Indian culture in Central Asia.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 25

Who is known as the "Grand Old Man of India"?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 25

Dadabhai Naoroji, a prominent Indian nationalist, is known as the "Grand Old Man of India." He was one of the early leaders of the Indian National Congress and advocated for Indian self-rule.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 26

The Battle of Plassey took place in the year:

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 26

The Battle of Plassey, a significant event in the history of British India, took place on June 23, 1757. It was fought between the forces of the British East India Company, led by Robert Clive, and the Nawab of Bengal, Siraj-ud-Daulah. The British East India Company's victory in this battle marked the beginning of British control over large parts of India.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 27
What were the factors that led to the rise of the Swadeshi Movement?
Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 27
The rise of the Swadeshi Movement was a result of several factors, including the callousness and repression of the Anglo-Indian bureaucracy, frustration and disillusionment among nationalists at the British attitude in initiating political reforms, and the rising aspirations of the educated class.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 28
Who founded the Indian National Congress?
Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 28
The Indian National Congress was founded by Allan Octavian Hume in 1885. Initially, it aimed to provide a platform for educated Indians to discuss their grievances and demands with the British colonial government.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 29

The Ain-i-Akbari, a detailed document of Akbar's reign, was written by:

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 29

The Ain-i-Akbari was written by Abul Fazl, a courtier and historian during the reign of Akbar.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 30

The discovery of the Indus Valley Civilization was made in which decade?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 1 - Question 30

The discovery of the Indus Valley Civilization was made in the 1920s by archaeologists such as Sir John Marshall.

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