Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Manipur CSCCE MCQ

The poverty of India was not a product of its geography or of the lack of natural resources, or of some „inherent‟ defect in the character and capabilities of the people. Nor was it a remnant of the Mughal period or of the pre-British past. It was mainly a product of the history of the last two centuries.
Before that, India was no more backward than the countries of Western Europe. Nor were the differences in the standards of living at the time very wide among the countries of the world. Precisely during the period that the countries of the West developed and prospered, India was subjected to modern colonialism and was prevented from developing.

The basic fact is that the same social, political and economic processes, that produced industrial development, and social and cultural progress in Britain, also produced, and then maintained economic underdevelopment, and social and cultural backwardness in India. The reason for this is obvious. Britain subordinated the Indian economy to its own economy and determined the basic social trends in India according to her own needs. The result was stagnation of India‘s agriculture and industries.

Statement 3 is Correct. The 1853 Charter Act ended the Company’s patronage, enjoining recruitment to be through an open competition henceforth. But the examination was held in England in English language, based on classical learning of Greek and Latin. The maximum permissible age was gradually reduced from 23 (in 1859) to 22 (in 1860) to 21 (in 1866) and to 19 (1878).

• Treaty of Ryswick: In July 1697 the treaty brought to an end the Nine Years War, in which Louis XIV's France faced a grand coalition of England, the Dutch, and Spain. Louis agreed to return most of his territorial acquisitions or réunions made since Nijmegen, but retained the important fortress town of Strasbourg.

  • The Dutch were allowed to garrison barrier fortresses in the Spanish Netherlands. In India Pondicherry was restored to French by Dutch.

  • The treaty, negotiated with much difficulty, lasted only four years before the War of the Spanish Succession broke out.

• Treaty of Aix-La Chapelle: It was signed between British and French in 1748 after first Carnatic war. Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle 1748 was negotiated largely by Britain and France with the other powers following their lead, ending the War of the Austrian Succession (1740–48).

  • The treaty was marked by the mutual restitution of conquests, including the fortress of Louisburg on Cape Breton Island, Nova Scotia, to France; Madras in India, to England.

• Treaty of peace of Paris: The Treaty of Paris of 1763 ended the French and Indian War/Seven Years’ War between Great Britain and France, as well as their respective allies.

  • In the terms of the treaty, France gave up all its territories in mainland North America, effectively ending any foreign military threat to the British colonies there. In India Pondicherry, Karaikal and other French possessions were returned to the French on condition that they should not fortify them and it ended the third Carnatic war in 1763.

• In November 1927, the British Government appointed the Indian Statutory Commission, known popularly after the name of its Chairman as the Simon Commission, to go into the question of further constitutional reform. It was formed by the Conservative Government of Britain. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• All the members of the Commission were Englishmen. This announcement was greeted by a chorus of protest from all Indians. What angered them most was the exclusion of Indians from the Commission and the basic notion behind this exclusion that foreigners would discuss and decide upon India's fitness for Self government. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• At its Madras Session in 1927, presided over by Dr. Ansari, the National Congress decided to boycott the Commission 'at every stage and in every form.' The Muslim League and the Hindu Mahasabha decided to support the Congress decision.

• The action began as soon as Simon Commission landed at Bombay on 3 February 1928. That day, people were out on the streets participating in black-flag demonstrations. In Madras, T. Prakasam symbolized the defiant spirit of the occasion by baring his chest before the armed policemen. In Lucknow, Khaliquzzaman executed the brilliant idea of floating kites and balloons imprinted with the popular slogan ‘Go Back Simon’ over the reception organized in Kaiserbagh by the taluqdars for members of the Commission.

• In Lucknow, Jawaharlal and Govind Ballabh Pant were beaten up by the police. But the worst incident happened in Lahore where Lala Lajpat Rai, the hero of the Extremist days and the most revered leader of Punjab, was hit on the chest by lathis on 30 October and succumbed to the injuries on 17 November 1928. It was his death that Bhagat Singh and his comrades were seeking to avenge when they killed the white police official, Saunders, in December 1928.

• The Simon Commission report contained no mention of the Dominion Status and was in other ways also a regressive document. It disappointed national leaders including moderates.

Hence statement 3 is not correct.

• Statement 1 is correct. Eastern Ghats are a discontinuous range of mountains along India's coast due to the large number of rivers dissecting the eastern ghats as they flow towards the Bay of Bengal. They run from northern Odisha through Andhra Pradesh to Tamil Nadu in the south passing some parts of Karnataka and Wayanad district of Kerala.

• Statement 2 is not correct. The western coastal plains are narrow strip of coastal plain 50 kilometers in width between the west coast and the western ghats whereas the Eastern coastal plains are much broader stretch of landmass of India, lying between eastern Ghats and the bay of bengal.

• Statement 3 is correct. A number of east flowing rivers, Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri, Vaigai drain into the bay of bengal. This happens due to the SoutEast slope of the peninsular plateau.

• Statement 1 is correct. The Aravalli Range is one of the oldest fold mountain ranges in the world stretching about 300 miles from the northeast to the southwest. These are fold mountains of which rocks are formed primarily of folded crust, when two convergent plates move towards each other by the process called orogenic movement.

• Statement 2 is correct. The Aravallis height increases as one moves from South of Delhi to Gujarat. Guru Shikhar is the highest point which is located in Mount Abu. in Gujarat.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The length of the Aravallis is about 1100 km which extends from Delhi to Ahmedabad.

Knowledge Base: The system is divided into two sections: the Sambhar-Sirohi ranges, taller and including Guru Peak on Mount Abu, the highest peak in the Aravalli Range (5,650 feet [1,722 metres]); and the Sambhar-Khetri ranges, consisting of three ridges that are discontinuous. The Aravalli Range is rich in natural resources (including minerals) and serves as a check to the growth of the western desert. It gives rise to several rivers, including the Banas, Luni, Sakhi,

and Sabarmati. Though heavily forested in the south, it is generally bare and thinly populated, consisting of large areas of sand and stone and of masses of rose-coloured quartzite.

• Tropical cyclones originate and intensify over warm tropical oceans. The conditions favourable for the formation and intensification of tropical storms are:

  • Large sea surface with a temperature higher than 27° C; Hence option 1 is correct.

  • Presence of the Coriolis force Hence option 2 is not correct.

  • Small variations in the vertical wind speed; Hence option 3 is not correct.

  • A pre-existing weak low-pressure area or low-level-cyclonic circulation.

  • Upper divergence above the sea level system.

• The cyclones, which cross 20°N latitude generally, recurve and they are more destructive (cyclones do not form near the equator due to the absence of Coriolis force).

• A mature tropical cyclone is characterized by the strong spirally circulating wind around the centre, called the eye. The diameter of the circulating system can vary between 150 and 250 km. The eye is a region of calm with subsiding air.

• Around the eye is the eyewall, where there is a strong spiralling ascent of air to a greater height reaching the tropopause. The wind reaches maximum velocity in this region, reaching as high as 250 km per hour. Torrential rain occurs here.

• From the eyewall, rain bands may radiate and trains of cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds may drift into the outer region. The diameter of the storm over the Bay of Bengal, the Arabian Sea and Indian ocean is between 600 and 1200 km. The system moves slowly about 300 - 500 km per day. The cyclone creates storm surges and they inundate the coastal low lands. The storm peters out on the land.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities Later, the States Reorganisation Commission (1953-55) made a recommendation in this regard.

The Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new Article 350-B in Part XVII of the Constitution.

This article contains the following provisions:

1) There should be a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. He is to be appointed by the President of India.

2) It would be the duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under theConstitution. He would report to the President upon those matters at such intervals as the President may direct. The President should place all such reports before each House of Parliament and send them to the governments of the states concerned.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and allowances, service conditions and procedure for removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.

• The Constitution of India provides for State Public Service Commission (SPSC) at the state level like Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) at the centre level. Articles 315 to 323 of the Constitution deal with the composition, appointment and removal of members, functions and powers, independence of a SPSC.

• Option (a) is correct: The Chairman and members of the State Public Service Commission are appointed by the Governor of the state. Although they are appointed by the governor they can be removed by the President only. The President can remove them on the same grounds and in the same manners as he can remove the Chairman or member of UPSC.

• Option (b) is correct: A member of SPSC on ceasing to hold office is eligible for Chairman and member of UPSC, or as a Chairman of that SPSC or any other SPSC but not for any other employment under the government of India or State. Also, the Chairman of a SPSC on ceasing to hold office is eligible for appointment as the chairman or member of UPSC or chairman of any other SPSC but not for any other employment under the Government of India or a state.

• Option (c) is not correct: The expense of SPSC including the Salaries, Allowances and Pensions of the Chairman and Members of SPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of State (and not on the Consolidated Fund of India). They are not subject to the vote of the state legislature. Also, the conditions of service of Chairman and members cannot be varied to their disadvantages.

• Option (d) is correct: The role of SPSC is limited and recommendations made by it are only advisory in nature and hence, non-binding on the government. It is up to the state government to accept or reject the advice. however, the government have to answer to the concerned state legislature for not accepting the recommendations of the commission.

• In WTO terminology, subsidies in general are identified by “boxes” which are given the colours of traffic lights: green (permitted), amber (slow down — i.e. need to be reduced), red (forbidden). In agriculture, things are, as usual, more complicated. The Agriculture Agreement has no red box, although domestic support exceeding the reduction commitment levels in the amber box is prohibited; and there is a blue box for subsidies that are tied to programmes that limit production. 
• Amber Box: Nearly all domestic support measures considered to distort production and trade (with some exceptions) fall into the amber box. These include measures to support prices, or subsidies directly related to production quantities.
• Green Box: The green box is defined in Annex 2 of the Agriculture Agreement. In order to qualify, green box subsidies must not distort trade, or at most cause minimal distortion. They have to be government- funded (not by charging consumers higher prices) and must not involve price support. 
  • They tend to be programmes that are not targeted at particular products, and include direct income supports for farmers that are not related to (are “decoupled” from) current production levels or prices. They also include environmental protection and regional development programmes. 
  • Green box” subsidies are therefore allowed without limits, provided they comply with the policy- specific criteria. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
  • India's Public distribution system does not come under the Green Box. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 
• Blue Box: This is the “amber box with conditions” — conditions designed to reduce distortion. Any support that would normally be in the amber box, is placed in the blue box if the support also requires farmers to limit production. At present there are no limits on spending on blue box subsidies.

• Public sector banks or nationalized banks are those in which the Government holds more than 50% of the total stock. There are 12 public sector banks in India, where the Government has retained most of its share with the primary aim of public interest. Public sector banks were not granted 'Ratna status.' So, Statement 1 is not correct.
• Life Insurance in its modern form came to India from England in 1818. Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) is not granted 'Ratna status.' So, Statement 2 is not correct.
• Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) are those companies in which the direct holding of the Central Government or other CPSEs is 51% or more. Under the Articles of Association, the board of directors of Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) enjoys autonomy in respect of recruitment, promotion and other service conditions of below-board-level employees. The board of directors of a CPSE exercises delegated powers subject to broad policy guidelines issued by the government from time to time. The government has granted enhanced powers to the Boards of profit-making enterprises under various schemes like Maharatna, Navratna and Miniratna. So, Statement 3 is correct.
• State government-owned companies are not given ‘Ratna status’. So, Statement 4 is not correct. Private owned companies were not granted 'Ratna status.' The following were some of the Private owned companies
  • Reliance Industries Limited
  • Tata Consultancy Services (TCS)
  • Hindustan Lever Limited
  • Bharti Tele-Ventures Limited
  • ITC Limited

So, Statement 5 is not correct.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: It is about Payment Banks.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: It is about NBFCs.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: It is about a Bad Bank.
• Statement 4 is correct: Neo Banks are generally fin-tech start-ups that provide banking services in a digital, online only mode. It has no physical branches. All operations, like opening an account, transactions, withdrawal, and deposits are done digitally using web platforms or mobile apps. These financial institutions operate exclusively online, without any physical branches, and provide all banking services, and more, digitally.

Nagoya Protocol:

• The Nagoya Protocol, a pivotal component of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), was established to address the critical issue of biopiracy and ensure the just and equitable sharing of benefits derived from the utilization of genetic resources. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Key elements of Nagoya Protocol:

• Preventing Biopiracy: Biopiracy involves the unauthorized exploitation of genetic resources, which can encompass various biological materials, from plants to microorganisms, without the informed consent of the countries or communities where these resources originate. The Nagoya Protocol aims to prevent such exploitative practices.
• Scope of Genetic Resources: The Protocol's scope includes any non-human genetic resource. This broad definition encompasses a wide range of biological materials used in research, development, and commercial activities.
• Rights of Provider Countries: Under the Nagoya Protocol, countries where genetic resources exist have the rights to control access to these resources. These provider countries fall into two categories:
  • Originating countries where the genetic resource exists in situ, meaning it's found in its natural habitat.
  • Originating countries where the genetic resource exists ex situ, indicating that the resource was obtained from its natural habitat and then preserved outside of it.
• Burden on Users: ü Users of genetic resources, such as researchers and organizations, bear the responsibility of demonstrating that they have legally obtained the genetic resources they are studying. To do this, they must:
  • Obtain prior informed consent from the providing country (the in situ country) before accessing genetic resources.
  • Provide a fair and equitable share of the benefits arising from the utilization of these resources, with the terms mutually agreed upon. These benefits can be both commercial and non-commercial, including sharing data or transferring intellectual property rights.
• Legal Implications: The Nagoya Protocol establishes a legal framework that makes it illegal to engage in research and development on genetic resources that have not been accessed in compliance with its provisions. If a user cannot prove that a genetic resource has been accessed following the Protocol's guidelines, they must cease all activities involving that resource.
• Fair and Ethical Use: The Protocol emphasizes the fair and ethical utilization of genetic resources, promoting collaboration, respect for traditional knowledge, and the sharing of benefits to support the conservation of biodiversity and the well-being of indigenous and local communities.

Other options:

• Kyoto Protocol: The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty related to climate change. It aims to address global warming by setting targets for industrialized countries to reduce their greenhouse gas emissions. It is primarily concerned with mitigating climate change and promoting sustainable environmental practices.
• Stockholm Convention: The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) is an international treaty that deals with the elimination or restriction of the production and use of persistent organic pollutants. These pollutants are highly toxic chemicals that persist in the environment and can have detrimental effects on human health and ecosystems.
• Montreal Protocol: The Montreal Protocol is an international treaty aimed at protecting the ozone layer. It deals with the phase-out of the production and consumption of substances that deplete the ozone layer, such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). The primary goal is to prevent further ozone layer depletion and reduce harmful UV radiation.

• Deficiency of one or more nutrients can cause diseases or disorders in our body. Diseases that occur due to lack of nutrients over a long period are called deficiency diseases. Deficiency of different vitamins and minerals may also result in certain diseases or disorders.
• In its more severe forms, vitamin A deficiency contributes to blindness by making the cornea very dry, thus damaging the retina and cornea. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Scurvy is the most prominent disease linked to Vitamin C deficiency. It denotes a heavy lack of vitamin C in the diet. Scurvy is the most prominent disease linked to Vitamin C deficiency. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Vitamin D deficiency can lead to a loss of bone density, which can contribute to osteoporosis and fractures (broken bones). Severe vitamin D deficiency can also lead to other diseases. In children, it can cause rickets. Rickets is a rare disease that causes the bones to become soft and bend.
• Anaemia is a condition in which blood lacks adequate healthy red blood cells. Red blood cells carry oxygen to the body's tissues. Iron deficiency anaemia is due to insufficient iron. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
• Goiter is a condition where your thyroid gland grows larger. Iodine deficiency is the most common cause of goiter in the world. Hence pair 4 is correctly matched.

• Fiberisation is the process of connecting radio towers with each other via optical fiber cables. It represents the part of the network that connects the core of the network to the edge facilitating large amounts of data used in 5G services. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• Also, it provides additional bandwidth and stronger backhaul support. In India, currently, only 33% of the towers are fiberized, compared to 80%-90% in the U.S., Japan, and China. To transition to 5G, India needs at least 16 times more fiber.
• Challenges to Fiberisation
  • Monetary constraints like India require ₹2.2 lakh crore of investment to help fiberize 70% of towers.
  • Time constraints like to connect every village in the country with optical fiber cable (OFC) in 1000 days, cables must be laid at a speed of 1251 km a day, around 3.6 times the current speed.
  • Ineffective implementation of Indian Telegraph Right of Way (RoW) Rules 2016 which provide for one-time compensation and uniform procedure for the establishment of Overground Telegraph Line (OTL).

Against the backdrop of the 5G spectrum auction for telecom airwaves by the Indian government, the challenge for requisite infrastructure in terms of fiberisation challenge is underscored.

• Neora Valley National Park, nestled in the Eastern Himalayas of West Bengal, India, is a pristine biodiversity hotspot. Spanning around 88 square kilometers.
• The park is characterized by dense forests, gushing rivers, and diverse flora and fauna. Home to elusive species like the Red Panda, Himalayan Tahr, and numerous avian species, it attracts nature enthusiasts and researchers alike.
• The park’s elevation, ranging from 183 to 3,200 meters, contributes to its rich ecological diversity. With its breathtaking landscapes and unique wildlife,
• Neora Valley National Park stands as a conservation haven, preserving the natural treasures of the Eastern Himalayan region.

A recent image captured by trap cameras in the Neora Valley National Park in the hills of West Bengal has confirmed the presence of Royal Bengal Tigers at an altitude of 10,509 feet above sea level.

Magadha, under King Jarasandha, was a powerful kingdom but had conflicts with Lord Krishna and other neighboring kingdoms.

Mahayana Buddhism gained substantial following, particularly among the artisan class in the Satavahana kingdom.

During Harsha's reign, there was significant cultural development and patronage of art. Literature, sculpture, and painting flourished, contributing to the overall artistic growth of the period.

Chandragupta Maurya defeated the last Nanda king, Bhadrasala, and established the Mauryan Empire.

The Zabti or Bandobast system was a new system of revenue calculation introduced by Raja Todar Mal. It was based on the measurement system and aimed to collect correct figures from the Qanungos and implement a new jama (general assessment).

Under the Wei Dynasty, China declared Buddhism as its state religion. This marked a significant milestone in the spread of Indian culture and Buddhism in China.

The Quit India Movement, also known as the August Movement, was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1942 during World War II. The movement aimed to demand immediate independence from British rule and witnessed mass civil disobedience and nonviolent protests.

The First War of Indian Independence, which occurred from 1857 to 1858, is known by multiple names. It is commonly referred to as the Sepoy Mutiny, as it originated with a mutiny by Indian soldiers (sepoys) in the British East India Company's army. It is also known as the Revolt of 1857, reflecting the widespread uprising and rebellion against British rule. Additionally, it is referred to as the Indian Rebellion, signifying the broader resistance movement across various regions of India during that time.

Home Rule Movement played an important role in the development of the national struggle and broadened the base of the national movement by involving women and students. Therefore, the correct answer is Option B.

Alexander remained in India for 19 months from 326-325 B.C.

The most important outcome of Alexander's invasion of India was the establishment of direct contact between India and Greece in different fields. His campaign opened up four distinct routes by land and sea, and he sent 200,000 oxen from India to Macedonia for use in Greece.