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Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Manipur CSCCE MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5

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Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 1

Who was the last King of Manipur

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 2

With respect to the history of the Ancient India, the terms such as ‘Ramapithecus’ and‘Sivapithecus’ were used to represent:

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 2
  • Only a few fossils relating to human evolution have been discovered in the Indian subcontinent.
  • Nonetheless, some of the earliest skull fossils have been found in the Siwalik hills covering India and Pakistan.
  • These skulls appear in the Potwar plateau, in Punjab province of Pakistan, which is developed on sandstone. These skulls are called Ramapithecus and Sivapithecus.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

  • They seem to possess some hominid features though they represent apes.
  • Ramapithecus was the female, but both belonged to the same group.
  • Remains of Ramapithecus were subsequently found in other parts of Asia, Africa, and Europe as well, and were dated between 10–14 million years ago.
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Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 3

Which reference to social conditions duringthe Gupta period, which one of the followingstatements is correct?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 3
  • Social Developments during the Gupta period:
    • Large-scale land grants to the brahmanas suggest that the brahmana supremacy increased in Gupta times. The Guptas, who probably were originally vaishyas, came to be looked upon as kshatriyas by the brahmanas. The brahmanas presented the Gupta kings as possessing god-like attributes.
    • All this helped to legitimize the position of the Gupta princes, who became great supporters of the brahmanical order. The brahmanas accumulated wealth on account of the numerous land grants made to them and therefore claimed many privileges, which are listed in the Narada Smriti, the lawbook of Narada, a work of about the fifth century.
    • The castes proliferated into numerous sub-castes as a result of two factors. A large number of foreigners had been assimilated into Indian society, and each group of foreigners was considered a kind of caste. As the foreigners largely came as conquerors they were given the status of kshatriya in society.
  • The Hunas, who came to India towards the close of the fifth century, eventually came to be recognized as one of the thirty-six clans of the Rajputs. Even now some Rajputs bear the title Hun. The other reason for the increase in the number of castes was the absorption of many tribal people into brahmanical society through the process of land grants. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
    • The position of shudras improved during this period. They were now permitted to listen to recitations of the Ramayana, the Mahabharata, and the Puranas.
  • The epics and the Puranas represented the kshatriya tradition, whose myths and legends won loyalty to the social order. The shudras could also worship a new god called Krishna and were also permitted to perform certain domestic rites which naturally meant fees for the priests. This can all be linked to some improvement in the economic status of the shudras.
  • From the seventh century onwards, they were mainly represented as agriculturists; in the earlier period, they generally figured as servants, slaves, and agricultural labourers working for the three higher varnas. However, during this period, the number of untouchables increased, especially the chandalas. The chandalas entered the society as early as the fifth century BC.
    • In the Gupta period, like the shudras, women were also allowed to listen to the Ramayana, the Mahabharata, and the Puranas, and were advised to worship Krishna. However, women of the higher orders did not have access to independent sources of livelihood in pre-Gupta and Gupta times. The fact that women of the two lower varnas were free to earn their livelihood, which gave them considerable freedom, but this was denied to women of the upper varnas.
  • The first example of the immolation of a widow after the death of her husband occurred during the Gupta period during 510 AD but it was not rampant. However, some post-Gupta books held  that a woman could remarry if her husband was dead, destroyed, impotent, had become a renouncer or had been excommunicated.
  • Widow remarriage was not allowed to members of the higher orders, but the shudras could practice widow remarriage.
     
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 4

Consider the following statements with respect to the teachings of Jainism:
1. Right faith is the belief in the teachings and wisdom of Mahavira.
2. Right knowledge is the acceptance of the theory that the world has been created by God.
3. Right conduct refers to the observance of the five great vows.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 4
  • In Jainism, the three jewels (also referred to as ratnatraya or tri-ratna) are understood as samyagdarshana ('right faith'), samyagjnana ('right knowledge), and samyakcharitra ('right action').
  • One of the three cannot exist exclusive of the others, and all are required for spiritual liberation i.e. attainment of freedom from worldly bonds.
  • Right faith is the belief in the teachings and wisdom of Mahavira. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Right Knowledge is the acceptance of the theory that there is no God and that the world has been existing without a creator and that all objects possess a soul. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • Right conduct refers to the observance of the five great vows: - Hence statement 3 is correct.
    • not to injure life
    • not to lie
    • not to steal
    • not to acquire property
    • not to lead immoral life
       
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 5

Consider the following pairs :

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 5
  • Silambam is a popular variant of martial arts which is performed with the aid of some specific weapons, primarily bamboo sticks. It is widely performed in the regions of Tamil Nadu (India) which is also the birthplace of the game. The Tamil Sangam literature has the early records of Silambam. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
    • The primary focus of the fighters is to use the bamboo stick as a weapon to defeat the opponents. The length of the weapon stick depends on the height of the fighters. In the battle, the fighter holds the weapon by stretching the arms around 3-quarters full.
    • In the era of 1760-1799, during Pulidevan's and Veera Pandiya Kattabomman's time, the art was reformed to fight against the Britishers. Post that, Silambam went popular throughout the country and its native state. But being a furious act, the Britishers banned the sport. The ban was lifted in India after independence.
  • Gatka is a traditional form of martial arts, which is historically associated with Sikh Gurus and is popular among the masses as a Sikh martial art.
    • It is a style of stick fighting between two or more practitioners, with wooden sticks intended to simulate swords. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
    • It was one of the basic techniques of self-defense for Sikh warriors during the martial period of the great Sikh Gurus.
    • Creating an amalgamation between acrobatics and swords fight, Gatka was introduced as a means of warfare when the Sikhs were fighting the Mughal Empire during the late 17th century.
  • Thoda is a martial art form of Himachal Pradesh that relies on one's archery prowess. This martial art has its origin in Kullu. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
  • Thoda, the name is derived, from the round piece of wood fixed to the head of the arrow, which is used to blunt its wounding potential.
  • The equipment required for Thoda are bows and arrows. Wooden bows measuring 1.5m to 2m, to suit the height of the archer and wooden arrows in proportion to the length of the bow, are prepared by skilled and traditional artisans.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 6

With reference to the various approaches to Human Development, consider the following statements:

  1. The Welfare approach to human development advocates that the level of income reflects the level of freedom enjoyed by an individual.

  2. The Basic needs approach ignores the aspect of human choices in human development.

  3. Capability approach is based on building human capabilities in the areas of health, education and access to resources.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 6
  • Basic Needs Approach: This approach was initially proposed by the International Labour Organisation (ILO). Six basic needs i.e.: health, education, food, water supply, sanitation, and housing were identified. The question of human choices is ignored and the emphasis is on the provision of basic needs of defined sections. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • Capability Approach: This approach is associated with Prof. Amartya Sen. Building human capabilities in the areas of health, education, and access to resources is the key to increasing human development. Hence statement 3 is correct.

  • Income Approach: This is one of the oldest approaches to human development. Human development is seen as being linked to income. The idea is that the level of income reflects the level of freedom an individual enjoys. The higher the level of income, the higher is the level of human development. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

  • Welfare Approach: This approach looks at human beings as beneficiaries or targets of all development activities. The approach argues for higher government expenditure on education, health, social secondary, and amenities. People are not participants in development but only passive recipients. The government is responsible for increasing levels of human development by maximizing expenditure on welfare.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 7

Which of the following statement are correct about the Earth's crust ?
1. The most abundant rocks in the crust are igneous rocks.
2. The Oceanic crust is less dense than the Continental crust.
3. The continental crust can be as thick as 70 km, whereas the oceanic crust can extend up to 10 km.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 7

 The Earth is made up of several concentric layers with one inside another. The uppermost layer over the Earth's surface is called the crust. It is the thinnest of all the layers. It is about 35 km on the continental masses and only 5 km on the ocean floors. The Earth's crust is made up of various types of rocks. Any natural mass of mineral matter that makes up the Earth's crust is called a rock. Rocks can be of different colour, sizes and textures. There are three major types of rocks: igneous rocks, sedimentary rocks and metamorphic rocks. When the molten magma cools, it becomes solid. Rocks thus formed are called igneous rocks. They are also called primary rocks. The most abundant rocks in the crust are igneous rocks. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The continental crust is less dense than all the layers of the Earth's interior. Its density is 2.7g/cm3, whereas the density of the oceanic crust is 3.0 g/cm3, and that of the Earth's mantle is 3.3 g/cm3. The main mineral composition of continental crust is Silica and Aluminium. This layer is also commonly known as the Sial layer. The oceanic crust is made of denser rock made of basalt and is dominated by Silica (Si) and Magnesium (SIMA). When an oceanic crust converges with a continental crust, it always subducts below the continental crust as the oceanic crust is more dense and heavy, and it melts and gets subsumed into the mantle after subduction. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

The thickness of oceanic crust ranges between 5 and 7 kilometers which are substantially shallower than continental crust. The continental crust covers an average distance of 35-40 km; in some places, it extends upto 70 km. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 8

Which of the following are cold ocean currents?

1. Labrador Current

2. Kuro siwo

3. Benguela Current

4. Falkland Current

5. Norwegian Current

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 8

Cold Ocean Currents bring cold water into warm water areas. These currents are usually found on the west coast of the continents in the low and middle latitudes in both the hemispheres and on the east coast in the higher latitudes in the Northern Hemisphere.

  • The Labrador Current is the cold current flowing southward of the N. Atlantic subpolar gyre. It transports cold waters into the warmer Gulf Stream ring and meander region.
  • The surface waters of the Kuroshio Current are warm and salty. This is because the Kuroshio starts in the tropics, where the westward flowing North Equatorial Current reaches the western boundary of the North Pacific.
  • Benguela Current is a Cold oceanic Current that is a branch of the west wind drift of the Southern Hemisphere. It flows northward in the South Atlantic Ocean along the west coast of southern Africa nearly to the Equator before merging with the westward-flowing Atlantic South Equatorial Current.
  • Falkland Current is the cold ocean current in the Southern Hemisphere, flowing northward in the South Atlantic Ocean along the east coast of Argentina to about latitude 30° to 40° S, where it is deflected eastward after meeting the southward-flowing Brazil Current.
  • The Norwegian Current carries relatively warm water northward along the coast of Norway. The heat released from the Norwegian Current into the atmosphere maintains a moderate climate in northern Europe. Therefore, Labrador Current, Benguela Current and Falkland Current are the Cold Ocean currents, and Kuroshio Current and Norwegian Current are the Warm Ocean Currents. So, Option (b) is correct.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 9

Consider the following statements:

The independence of judiciary means that

  1. The judges must be able to perform their functions without fear or favour.

  2. The organs of the government should not interfere with the decision of the judiciary.

  3. The judiciary should be free from any kind of accountability.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 9

The independence of judiciary means that;

  • The organs of the government like the executive and legislature must not restrain the functioning of the judiciary in such a way that it is unable to do justice.

  • The Judges must be able to perform their functions without fear or favour. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

  • The other organs of the government should not interfere with the decision of the judiciary. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

  • Independence of the judiciary does not imply arbitrariness or absence of accountability. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.

Judiciary is a part of the democratic political structure of the country. It is therefore accountable to the Constitution, to the democratic traditions and to the people of the country.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 10

The 'Objective Resolution' was unanimously adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22nd January 1947. Consider the following provisions of the Resolution:
1. Adequate safeguards shall be provided for minorities, backward and tribal areas, and depressed and other backward classes.
2. All power and authority of Sovereign Independent India, its constituent parts and organs of government, are derived from the head of states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 10

On December 13, 1946, Jawahar Lal Nehru moved the ‘Objective Resolution’ in the Constituent Assembly which was unanimously adopted by the assembly on January 22, 1947. The important provisions of the Resolution were:

  • This Constituent Assembly declares it's firm and solemn resolve to proclaim India as the Independent Sovereign Republic and to draw up for her future governance a Constitution.
  • Wherein the territories comprising present times British India, the territories that now form the Indian State and such other parts of India as are outside India and the States as well as other territories as are willing to be constituted into independent sovereign India, shall be a Union of them all
  • Wherein the said territories, whether with their present boundaries or with such others as may be determined by the Constituent Assembly and thereafter according to the law of the Constitution, shall possess and retain with the residuary powers and exercise all powers and functions of the Government and administration implied in the Union or resulting there from
  • Wherein all power and authority of Sovereign Independent India, its constituent parts and organs of Government are derived from the people
  • Wherein shall be guaranteed and secured to all the people of India justice, social, economic and political; equality of status of opportunity, and before the law; freedom of thought, expression, belief, faith, worship, vocation, association and action, subject to the law and public morality
  • Wherein adequate safeguards shall be provided for minorities, backward and tribal areas and depressed and other backward classes
  • Whereby shall be maintained the integrity of the territory of the Republic and its sovereign rights on land, sea and air according to justice and the law of civilized nations
  • This ancient land attains its rightful and honoured place in the world and makes its full and willing contribution to the promotion of world peace and the welfare of mankind.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 11

If the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) increases the bank rate, what effects it could possibly have on the Indian economy?
1. Loan taken by the commercial banks becomes cheaper.
2. It decreases the money supply in the economy.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 11
  • Bank rate is the rate at which central bank lends money to the commercial banks by buying their eligible rated securities - bills of exchange or commercial paper. 
  • A change in bank rate affects other market rates of interest. An increase in bank rate leads to an increase in other rates of interest, and conversely, a decrease in bank rate results in a fall in other rates of interest. Bank rate is also referred to as the discount rate. A deliberate manipulation of the bank rate by the Reserve Bank to influence the flow of credit created by the commercial banks is known as bank rate policy. 
  • An increase in bank rate results in an increase in the cost of credit or cost of borrowing. This in turn leads to a contraction in demand for credit. A contraction in demand for credit restricts the total availability of money in the economy, and hence loans taken by the commercial banks become more expensive. Hence statement 1 is not correct. 
  • The RBI can influence money supply by changing the rate at which it gives loans to the commercial banks. This rate is called the Bank Rate in India. By increasing the bank rate, loans taken by commercial banks become more expensive; this reduces the reserves held by the commercial bank and hence decreases money supply. A fall in the bank rate can increase the money supply. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
    • An increase in bank rate leads to decrease in reserves of the banks, which decreases the money supply in the economy. 
    • A low (or high) bank rate encourages banks to keep the smaller (or greater) proportion of their deposits as reserves, since borrowing from RBI is now less (or more) costly than before. As a result, banks use a greater(or smaller) proportion of their resources for giving out loans to borrowers or investors, thereby enhancing (or depressing) the multiplier process via assisting(or resisting) secondary money creation. In short, a low (or high) bank rate reduces(or increases) rdr and hence increases (or decreases) the value of the money multiplier, which is (1 + cdr)/(cdr + rdr). Thus, for any given amount of high-powered money, H, total money supply goes up. 
  • Penal rates are linked with Bank Rates. For instance, if a bank does not maintain the required levels of CRR and SLR, then RBI can impose a penalty on such banks.
  • Nowadays, the bank rate is not used a tool to control money supply, rather LAF (Repo Rate) is used to control the money supply in the economy.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 12

Consider the following statements with respect to poverty in India :

1. The headcount ratio is the percentage of the population living below the poverty line

2. The official data on poverty is estimated on the basis of data collected by NITI Aayog.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 12
  • Poverty can be defined as a condition in which an individual or household lacks the financial resources to afford a basic minimum standard of living. The conventional approach to measuring poverty is to specify a minimum expenditure (or income) required to purchase a basket of goods and services necessary to satisfy basic human needs. This expenditure is called the poverty line. The basket of goods and services necessary to satisfy basic human needs is the Poverty Line Basket (PLB). Poverty can be measured in terms of the number of people living below this line (with the incidence of poverty expressed as the headcount ratio (HCR) or the poverty ratio – the number of poor to the total population expressed as a percentage). So, Statement 1 is correct.
  • Poverty estimation in India is now carried out by a task force of the NITI Aayog through the calculation of poverty lines based on data collected by the National Sample Survey Office under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI). So, Statement 2 is not correct. 
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 13

Funds availed under Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme can be used by farmers for which of the following purposes?

  1. Post-harvest expenses
  2. Consumption requirements of farmers household
  3. Short-term credit requirements for cultivation of crops
  4. Working capital for maintenance of farm assets and activities allied to agriculture, like dairy animals, inland fishery etc.
  5. Produce Marketing Loan
  6. Investment credit requirement for agriculture and allied activities like pump sets, sprayers, dairy animals etc.

How many of the statement(s) given above is/ are correct?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 13
  • Statement 1 is correct: The funds can be used for meeting expenses related to post-harvest activities such as storage, transportation, and marketing of agricultural produce.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The funds can be. used for meeting consumption requirements of farmers and their families such as food, education, healthcare, etc.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Farmers require funds for various crop-related expenses such as purchase of seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, labour costs, etc. KCC funds can be used to meet these short-term credit requirements for crop cultivation.
  • Statement 4 is correct: Farmers require working capital to maintain their farm assets such as land, irrigation systems, farm machinery, etc. KCC funds can be used to meet these working capital requirements for maintenance of farm assets and activities allied to agriculture, like dairy animals, inland fishery etc.
  • Statement 5 is correct: Produce Marketing Loan.
  • Statement 6 is correct: Investment credit requirement for agriculture and allied activities like pump sets, sprayers, dairy animals etc.

Kisan Credit Card Scheme (KCC)

  • The following people are eligible for this scheme:
  • All Farmers - Individuals / Joint borrowers who are owner cultivators
  • Tenant Farmers, Oral Lessees & Share Croppers
  • Self Help Groups or Joint Liability Groups of Farmers
  • The Kisan Credit Card Scheme is being implemented by Commercial Banks, RRBs, Small Finance Banks and Cooperatives.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 14

Consider the following statements regarding Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR):
1. It constitutes more than 50 percent of incident solar radiation.
2. Plants capture less than 10 percent of the PAR energy that sustains the entire world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 14
  • Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR): Photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) is light of wavelengths 400-700 nm and is the portion of the light spectrum utilised by plants for photosynthesis. Except for the deep sea hydro-thermal ecosystem, the sun is the only source of energy for all ecosystems on Earth. Of the incident solar radiation less than 50 percent of it is photosynthetically active radiation (PAR). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • Plants capture less than 10 percent of the PAR energy:
    • While PAR represents a substantial portion of solar radiation, it's important to understand that plants are not able to capture and convert all of this energy into biomass. Photosynthesis is an energyintensive process, and not all incoming PAR is converted into chemical energy.
    • Many factors influence the efficiency of photosynthesis, including the type of plant, environmental conditions, and the availability of other resources like water and nutrients.
    • Plants capture only 2-10 percent of the PAR and this small amount of energy sustains the entire living world. Hence statement 2 is correct. This means that the vast majority of PAR energy is either reflected, transmitted through leaves, or used in other metabolic processes within plants.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 15

Consider the following statements regarding a voltmeter:

  1. It is always connected in series across the points between which the potential difference is to be measured.
  2. A voltmeter has a very high internal resistance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 15

Voltmeter:

  • Voltmeter which is also known as a voltage meter is an instrument that measures the voltage or potential difference between two points of an electronic or electrical circuit. Usually, the voltmeter is used for Alternating Current (AC) circuits or Direct Current (DC) circuits. Alternatively, Radio Frequency (RF) voltage can also be measured by specialized voltmeters.
  • In order to measure a device’s voltage, a voltmeter is connected in parallel to a device. This setup is important as objects in parallel usually tend to experience the same potential difference. It is connected in parallel with the circuit mainly because the same voltage drop occurs across it. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • A voltmeter also has high internal resistance. This is done mainly because it is used in measuring the potential difference between the two points of the circuit. As such the current of the measuring device remains the same. In other words, the high resistance of the voltmeter will impede the flow of current through it. This allows the device to take correct readings of the voltage.

Hence statement 2 is correct.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 16

Which of the following elements is/are rare earth elements?

  1. Neodymium
  2. Promethium
  3. Hohnium

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 16
  • Recently, the biggest Rare Earth Elements (REE) deposit in Europe has been discovered in Sweden. REE deposits were discovered in Arctic region of Kiruna, Sweden (home to world's largest underground iron-ore mine).
  • Rare earth elements are a group of seventeen chemical elements that occur together in the periodic table. The group consists of yttrium, scandium and the 15 lanthanide elements (lanthanum, cerium, praseodymium, neodymium, promethium, samarium, europium, gadolinium, terbium, dysprosium, holmium, erbium, thulium, ytterbium, and lutetium). Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
  • The rare earth elements are all metals, and the group is often referred to as the "rare earth metals." These metals have many similar properties, and that often causes them to be found together in geologic deposits.
  • Rare earth elements are not as "rare" as their name implies. Thulium and lutetium are the two least abundant rare earth elements - but they each have an average crustal abundance that is nearly 200 times greater than the crustal abundance of gold. However, these metals are very difficult to mine because it is unusual to find them in concentrations high enough for economical extraction.
  • China began producing notable amounts of rare earth oxides in the early 1980s and became the world's leading producer in the early 1990s. Through the 1990s and early 2000s, China steadily strengthened its hold on the world's rare earth oxide market. They were selling rare earths at such low prices that the Mountain Pass Mine and many others throughout the world were unable to compete and stopped operation.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 17

With reference to ‘Polygraph tests’ consider the following statements

  1. Polygraph tests, commonly known as lie detector tests, are admissible as evidence in Indian courts.
  2. The use of polygraph tests in India is regulated by the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act
  3. Consent from the individual undergoing the polygraph test is not required for it to be legally administered in India

How many statement(s) given above are correct

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 17

Statement 1
Polygraph test results are generally not admissible as evidence in Indian courts. The reason for this is the perceived lack of absolute reliability and the potential for false positives and false negatives. Courts often consider polygraph results as suggestive but not conclusive proof of guilt or innocence.
Statement 2
The use of polygraph tests in India is not specifically regulated by the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act. Instead, the admissibility and use of polygraph tests are guided by general legal principles, and there is no specific legislation that comprehensively addresses the use of lie detector tests.
Statement 3
In India, obtaining informed consent from the individual before administering a polygraph test is considered crucial. Consent is a fundamental ethical and legal requirement, and individuals must be fully aware of the nature and implications of the test before agreeing to undergo it. The absence of consent could render the test inadmissible or raise ethical concerns.
Additional information
Legal and Constitutional Rulings

  • Selvi vs State of Karnataka & Anr (2010): The Supreme Court ruled that lie detector tests should be voluntary, with legal implications explained to the accused.
  • K. Basu vs. State of West Bengal (1997): The Court deemed involuntary administration of these tests as potentially violating the Right to Life and Liberty and the Right to Privacy.
  • Indian Evidence Act, 1871: The results of these tests are not admissible as evidence in court.
  • National Human Rights Commission Guidelines (1999): Established consent and procedural guidelines for administering polygraph tests.

In the ongoing investigation of the Parliament security breach, Delhi Police sought court permission for polygraph tests on six accused to uncover their motives.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 18
What event is commemorated by the Kargil War Memorial?
Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 18
The Kargil War Memorial in Dras, Jammu and Kashmir, honors the soldiers who sacrificed their lives during the Kargil War in 1999. It stands as a tribute to their bravery and dedication in defending India's borders.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 19
Which foreign traveller's account discusses India's political, economic, and religious history in "Muruj-ul-Zehab"?
Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 19
Al Samudi, an Arab traveller, documented India's political, economic, and religious history in his book "Muruj-ul-Zehab." This work sheds light on various aspects of Indian society and provides insights into its past.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 20
What slogan coined by Lal Bahadur Shastri honors both soldiers and farmers?
Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 20
The slogan "Jai Jawan Jai Kisan" was coined by Lal Bahadur Shastri, the second Prime Minister of India. This slogan acknowledges and pays tribute to the invaluable contributions of both soldiers (jawans) and farmers (kisans) in the nation-building process. It highlights the importance of selfless service, dedication, and hard work of these two vital sections of society in shaping the country's destiny.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 21
Under which Act did the title of Viceroy for the Governor-General of India originate?
Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 21
The Government of India Act in 1858 abolished the East India Company, transferring governance to the British Crown. The Governor-General of India assumed the title of Viceroy, representing the British Crown's authority in India.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 22

Who was the contemporary of Buddha and patronized Buddhism?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 22

Bimbisara, the first important ruler of the Magadhan Empire, was a contemporary of Buddha and patronized Buddhism. Both Mahavira and Buddha preached their doctrines during his reign.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 23

Consider the following statements:

  1. The last ruler of the Satavahana dynasty was Pulamavi IV, after whom the empire disintegrated into smaller states.
  2. The Satavahana dynasty had strong trade links with Southeast Asia.
  3. The primary coinage material during the Satavahana period was gold.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 23
  • Statement 1 is correct. Pulamavi IV is considered the last notable ruler of the Satavahana dynasty, after whose reign the empire fragmented into smaller states.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect. The Satavahana dynasty's trade was primarily with the Roman Empire and across the Indian subcontinent; there is limited evidence of strong trade links with Southeast Asia.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. The primary materials for coinage during the Satavahana period were silver, copper, and lead, not gold.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 24

Which ruler defeated Harsha and brought an end to the Vardhana Dynasty?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 24

Pulakesin II, the Chalukya king, defeated Harsha in a military confrontation, leading to the decline of the Vardhana Dynasty. This marked the end of Harsha's empire.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 25
What was the purpose of the Congress' 12-Point program during civil disobedience?
Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 25
The Congress' 12-Point program during civil disobedience was designed to guide the actions of Congress workers and volunteers. It provided a set of instructions and strategies for carrying out civil disobedience in a disciplined and non-violent manner. The program emphasized the importance of adhering to the principles of Ahimsa (non-violence) and maintaining unity and determination in the face of challenges.
Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 26

Which Mughal emperor revived the Indian tradition of painting and introduced new themes, colors, and forms?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 26

Akbar, the third Mughal emperor, revived the Indian tradition of painting and introduced new themes, colors, and forms, with the help of Persian master painters.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 27

Which mode of interaction helped in the spread of Indian culture abroad?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 27

Trade and commerce played a crucial role in the spread of Indian culture abroad. Indian ships sailed across the seas to establish commercial ties with several countries, allowing the exchange of culture, art, and ideas.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 28

What proportion of agricultural produce was levied as land tax during King Harshavardhana's reign?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 28

During King Harshavardhana's reign, the land tax levied on the populace amounted to one-sixth of their agricultural produce.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 29

Which religious inclination did King Harshavardhana embrace later in his life under the influence of the Chinese traveler Hieun Tsang?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 29

King Harshavardhana embraced Hinayana Buddhism later in his life under the influence of the Chinese traveler Hieun Tsang.

Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 30

Which seismic waves can travel through both solids and liquids?

Detailed Solution for Manipur PSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 5 - Question 30

P-waves are the fastest seismic waves and can travel through both solids and liquids.

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