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OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - OPSC OCS (Odisha) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 for OPSC OCS (Odisha) 2024 is part of OPSC OCS (Odisha) preparation. The OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 questions and answers have been prepared according to the OPSC OCS (Odisha) exam syllabus.The OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 MCQs are made for OPSC OCS (Odisha) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 below.
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OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 1

Passage 1

"Rent-seeking" is what economists call a special type of money-making: the sort made possible by political connections. This can range from outright graft to a lack of competition, poor regulation and the transfer of public assets to firms at bargain prices. Well-placed people have made their fortunes this way ever since rulers had enough power to issue profitable licences, permits and contracts to their cronies. In America, this system reached its apogee in the late 19th century, and a long and partially successful struggle against robber barons ensued. Antitrust rules broke monopolies such as John D. Rockefeller's Standard Oil. The flow of bribes to senators shrank.

In the emerging world, the past quarter-century has been great for rent-seekers. Soaring property prices have enriched developers who rely on approvals for projects. The commodities boom has inflated the value of oilfields and mines, which are invariably intertwined with the state. Some privatisations have let tycoon's milk monopolies or get assets cheaply. The links between politics and wealth are plainly visible in China, where a third of billionaires are party members.

Capitalism based on rent-seeking is not just unfair, but also bad for long-term growth. As our briefing on India explains, resources are misallocated: crummy roads are often the work of crony firms. Competition is repressed: Mexicans pay too much for their phones. Dynamic new firms are stifled by better-connected incumbents. And if linked to the financing of politics, rent-heavy capitalism sets a tone at the top that can let petty graft flourish. When ministers are on the take, why shouldn't underpaid junior officials be?

 

Q. The reason petty corruption in politics flourished is :

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 1

The reason petty corruption in politics flourished is because rent heavy capitalism involving bribing ministers sets such a tone that the junior officials do not hesitate to take bribes.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 2

Passage 2

Newton's surprising success at developing the laws of motion, as well as the development and refinement of other physical laws, led to the idea of scientific determinism. The first expression of this principle was in the beginning of the nineteenth century by Laplace, a French scientist. Laplace argued that if one knew the position and velocity of all the particles in the universe at a given time, the laws of physics would be able to predict the future state ofthe universe.

Scientific determinism held sway over a great many scientists until the early twentieth century, when the quantum mechanics revolution occurred. Quantum mechanics introduced the world to the idea of the uncertainty principle, which stated that it was impossible to accurately measure both the position and the velocity of a particle at one time. Because Laplace's omniscience could never occur, even in theory, the principle of scientific determinism was thrown into doubt. However, quantum mechanics does allow for a reduced form of scientific determinism. Even though physicists are unable to know precisely where a particle is and what its velocity is, they can determine certain probabilities about its position and velocity. These probabilities are called wave functions. By use of a formula known as the Schrodinger equation, a scientist with the wave function of a particle at a given time can calculate the particle's future wave function. These calculations can give the particle's position or velocity, but not both. Thus, the physicist is in possession of exactly half ofthe information needed to satisfy Laplace's view ofdeterminism. Unfortunately, under modern physics theories, that is far as any researcher can go in predicting the future.

 

Q. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 2

To answer this question, use your analytical reading skills to find the progression of the ideas. The first part of the paragraph introduces the idea of scientific determinism.

Next, the passage states that the principle was thrown into doubt. Finally, the passage indicates that physicists can reach half of the requirements for determinism but no more. That matches choice C best.

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OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 3

Passage 2

Newton's surprising success at developing the laws of motion, as well as the development and refinement of other physical laws, led to the idea of scientific determinism. The first expression of this principle was in the beginning of the nineteenth century by Laplace, a French scientist. Laplace argued that if one knew the position and velocity of all the particles in the universe at a given time, the laws of physics would be able to predict the future state of the universe.

Scientific determinism held sway over a great many scientists until the early twentieth century, when the quantum mechanics revolution occurred. Quantum mechanics introduced the world to the idea of the uncertainty principle, which stated that it was impossible to accurately measure both the position and the velocity of a particle at one time. Because Laplace's omniscience could never occur, even in theory, the principle of scientific determinism was thrown into doubt. However, quantum mechanics does allow for a reduced form of scientific determinism. Even though physicists are unable to know precisely where a particle is and what its velocity is, they can determine certain probabilities about its position and velocity. These probabilities are called wave functions. By use of a formula known as the Schrodinger equation, a scientist with the wave function of a particle at a given time can calculate the particle's future wave function. These calculations can give the particle's position or velocity, but not both. Thus, the physicist is in possession of exactly half of the information needed to satisfy Laplace's view of determinism. Unfortunately, under modern physics theories, that is far as any researcher can go in predicting the future

 

Q. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author's conclusion in the passage's final sentence?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 3

This is an apply the information question. It is similar to a Critical Reasoning strengthen question. The author's conclusion and premise are: Premise: Quantum mechanics introduced the world to the idea of the uncertainty principle, which stated that it was impossible to accurately measure both the position and the velocity of a particle at one time.

Conclusion: Under modern physics theories, exactly half of the information needed to satisfy determinism is available and that is as far as any researcher can go in predicting the future.

This argument relies on the assumption that quantum mechanics is correct and that scientists will never be able to accurately measure both the position and velocity of a particle.

Choice D strengthens the argument by indicating quantum mechanics is in fact correct in its assertions of  uncertainty.

Choice A would weaken the argument by indicating that perhaps quantum mechanics is wrong.

Choice B is irrelevant because the argument hinges on quantum mechanics.

Choice C does not address the author's argument. It introduces another barrier to predicting the future, but is not relevant to the conclusion and premise in the passage.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 4

If f(x) = x - 4, then what is value of f(f(3)) = ?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 4

f(f(3)) means first find value of f(3) and put that again in f() to find final value.

f(3) = 3 - 4 = - 1

f(-1) = - 5 = final answer

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 5

How many solutions do the equation 1/x + 1/(x + 1) = 1/3 have?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 5

By simplifying it a quadratic in x is obtained with two real roots.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 6

Write following sentence in mathematical form "The price is no less than 100 rupees and is at most 145"   

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 6

First part of sentence is x> 100 Second part of sentence is x< 145 So combined 100 <x< 145

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 7

Following chart indicates internal division of electricity usage for two years. Study the graph carefully and answer questions given below.

 

Q. The agricultural consumption of electricity doubled for given years. By how much percentage has the total electricity consumption grown up?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 7

There is an increase in the share of agriculture (66.66%), to make the agricultural consumption double, total consumption is to be increased by 20%.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 8

Directions for the following 9 (nine) items:

Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on these passages only. 

Passage 1

The Slavic languages are a group of closely related languages that have speakers in most of Eastern Europe, the Balkans, in parts of Central Europe, and certain parts of Asia. The Slavic languages are broadly divided into three main branches, including East Slavic, West Slavic, and South Slavic, each of which is further divided into subgroups. The standard, or literary, components of each of the Slavic languages are distinct. However, the spoken dialects of each language are often closely related, and there exist what scholars call transitional dialects that bridge the gaps between the three Slavic languages. The common ancestor of the three Slavic languages is believed to be the Proto-Baltic-Slavic language, a dialect spoken approximately 3,000 B.C. in what today is Lithuania. The fact that the three branches of Slavic languages share approximately 280 words is usually given as proof for such a parent, ancestor language.

 

Q. What would be an appropriate title for this short passage?​

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 8

Remember that a title should summarize the entire passage, and not just parts of it. The first and third choices are not appropriate titles because the passage is not about the rise and fall of the Slavic languages, and the literary history of the Slavic languages is not discussed anywhere in the passage.

The fourth choice is not the right answer because although Lithuania at 3,000 B.C. is discussed, there is no mention of geography in the passage. The second choice, therefore, is the best, and in fact the passage first describes, then discusses the origins of, and concludes with the similarities of the Slavic languages.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 9

Passage 1

The Slavic languages are a group of closely related languages that have speakers in most of Eastern Europe, the Balkans, in parts of Central Europe, and certain parts of Asia. The Slavic languages are broadly divided into three main branches, including East Slavic, West Slavic, and South Slavic, each of which is further divided into subgroups. The standard, or literary, components of each of the Slavic languages are distinct. However, the spoken dialects of each language are often closely related, and there exist what scholars call transitional dialects that bridge the gaps between the three Slavic languages. The common ancestor of the three Slavic languages is believed to be the Proto-Baltic-Slavic language, a dialect spoken approximately 3,000 B.C. in what today is Lithuania. The fact that the three branches of Slavic languages share approximately 280 words is usually given as proof for such a parent, ancestor language.

 

Q. According to the author, which of the following is TRUE?​

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 9

Choice 1 is definitely not the answer because the passage says nothing about Africa.

Choice 2 is not the right answer because the passage says specifically that the standard components of each of the Slavic languages is distinct.

After hints 1 and 2, the remaining choices are 3 and 4. Choice 3 is true because, according to the first sentence, the Slavic languages are spoken in eastern and central Europe, as well as in Asia. The fourth choice is not correct because the last sentence of the passage states that the Slavic languages share approximately 280 words.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 10

Passage-3

The Andromeda Galaxy, also known as Messier 31, NGC 224, is a spiral galaxy approximately 2.5 million light- years away from Earth. The Andromeda Galaxy is in the constellation Andromeda, and it is the nearest spiral galaxy to our own, the Milky Way. Both the Milky Way and the Andromeda Galaxy are members of the Local Group, which also includes the Griangulum Galaxy, among others. Until recently, it was believed that the Andromeda Galaxy had the greatest mass of the three Galaxies in the Local Group, but recent findings suggest that the Milky Way has the most dark matter out of the three, and this fact may suggest that in fact the Milky Way is the most massive. Scientists are still uncertain, and more research is needed to settle the matter. In terms of the actual number of stars, however, the Andromeda Galaxy contains approximately 1 trillion stars, which is much more than are contained in the Milky Way.

The Andromeda Galaxy is visible to the naked eye in a moderately dark sky, and it appears quite small without a telescope because only the central part is bright enough to be visible. However, the angular diameter of the Andromeda Galaxy is seven times that of the full moon, and so if all of the stars of the Andromeda Galaxy were easily visibly to the naked eye, the galaxy would be the dominant object in the sky.

 

Q. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?  

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 10

A question that asks you a question about specific details in the passage means that the answer is explicitly stated in the passage. Which ofthe four statements are stated explicitly in the passage? The first choice, for example, is not explicitly stated in the passage. The only mention in regards to the numbers of stars is that the Andromeda Galaxy has 1 trillion stars, which is more stars than are in the Milky Way. However, there is no mention of the actual numbers of stars in the Milky Way. Of all the choices, only the third choice is stated in the passage. Although the passage does not state how many galaxies there are in the Local Group, three names are given. All of the other answer choices are not stated in the passage.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 11

Passage-3

The Andromeda Galaxy, also known as Messier 31, NGC 224, is a spiral galaxy approximately 2.5 million light- years away from Earth. The Andromeda Galaxy is in the constellation Andromeda, and it is the nearest spiral galaxy to our own, the Milky Way. Both the Milky Way and the Andromeda Galaxy are members of the Local Group, which also includes the Griangulum Galaxy, among others. Until recently, it was believed that the Andromeda Galaxy had the greatest mass of the three Galaxies in the Local Group, but recent findings suggest that the Milky Way has the most dark matter out of the three, and this fact may suggest that in fact the Milky Way is the most massive. Scientists are still uncertain, and more research is needed to settle the matter. In terms of the actual number of stars, however, the Andromeda Galaxy contains approximately 1 trillion stars, which is much more than are contained in the Milky Way.

The Andromeda Galaxy is visible to the naked eye in a moderately dark sky, and it appears quite small without a telescope because only the central part is bright enough to be visible. However, the angular diameter of the Andromeda Galaxy is seven times that of the full moon, and so if all of the stars of the Andromeda Galaxy were easily visibly to the naked eye, the galaxy would be the dominant object in the sky.

 

Q. In the passage, the author writes, "Scientists are still uncertain, and more research is needed to settle the matter," referring to the fact that scientists are uncertain about the relative masses of the Milky Way and the Andromeda Galaxy. If the author wanted to include more details about this, which of the following should also be included in the passage?​

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 11

Of all the answer choices, you'll have to choose the one that provides the required information but also which fits best with the structure and style ofthe overall reading passage. The second choice is not correct because the current passage is an overview and summary of a single topic, and nowhere else in the passage are there any intricate details or physics formula. The first choice is not correct because this passage is not a philosophical essay, but instead a scientific review article, and so including a philosophical discussion would not fit with the overall style of the rest of the passage.

The third choice is not the answer, because it is not related to a discussion about the masses of the two galaxies. The fourth choice is a good fit, and in fact is the right answer.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 12

For what value of C, the equations 3x + 4y = 27 and 6x + Cy = 54 will have infinite solutions in common?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 12

Two linear equations will have infinite common equations only when both of them represent same graph. For C = 8 equation 2 will be same as equation 1 and will give full overlap of both graphs.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 13

If (x - 2) is factor of x+ ax + b = 0 and a + b= 1 then values of a and b are  

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 13

put b = 1 - a in earlier equation and solve it by putting x = 24+2a+1-a = 0 gives a = -5 and b = 6

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 14

Number of solutions for equations |x| = x+ x - 3 is 

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 14

As quadratic term is present so there are two solutions but with mod of x on left hand side, there are two quadratic equations thus total 4 solutions.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 15

Five bananas and six apples and seven guavas cost Rs 178 and six bananas, four apples and two guavas cost Rs 124. What is cost of one banana, one apple and one guava?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 15

5b + 6a + 7g = 178 and 6b + 4a + 2g = 124
Multiply first equation by 2 and add in second to get 16b + 16a + 16g = 480

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 16

The following pie charts gives regional distribution of candidates registered and passed in a competitive exam.

 

Q. What is ratio of the highest number of candidates successful from a region to lowest number of candidates appeared from a region?​

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 16

The highest number of candidates successful from a region = D = (120° x 2400)/2400 = 1200 lowest number of candidates appeared =A= (70° x 7200)/3600 = 1400 ratio = 1200:1400 = 6:7

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 17

Following table shows list of features available in mobile phones. Study the table and answer the questions given below.

Q. If Ram is looking for phone with camera and dual sim but no 3G. How many options he has?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 17

Eliminate types. Only P and T satisfy conditions.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 18

Point which satisfies the inequalities: x - y > 1 and y < 2x - 1

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 18

Put co-ordinates of all options in both inequalities and check.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 19

Directions for the following 8 (eight) questions:

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on these passages only.

Passage 1

The classical realist theory of international relations has long dominated both academic institutions and the American government. Even at the birth of the nation, early political thinkers, such as Alexander Hamilton, promoted a realist view of international relations and sought to influence the actions of the government based on this perspective. While the classical realist school of international relations is not entirely homogeneous in nature, there are certain premises that all classical realists share.

The primary principle underlying classical realism is a concern with issues of war and peace. Specifically, classical realists ask, what are the causes of war and what are the conditions of peace? The members of the classical realist school mainly attribute war and conflict to what is termed the security dilemma. In the absence ofany prevailing global authority, each nation is required to address its own security needs. However, each nation's quest for security-through military buildups, alliances, or territorial defenses—necessarily unsettles other nations. These nations react to feelings of insecurity by engaging in their own aggressive actions, which leads other nations to react similarly, perpetuating the cycle.

It is important to note that for realists, unlike idealists or liberal internationalists, international conflict is a necessary consequence of the structural anarchy that nations find themselves in. Whereas other schools may see international conflict as the result of evil dictators, historical chance, flawed socio political systems, or ignorance of world affairs, classical realists see war as the logical result of a system that by its nature lacks a true central authority.

Hand in hand with this view of conflict as an inevitable condition of the global power structure is the realists' view ofthe nation as a unitary actor. Because classical realists see international relations as a continuing struggle for dominance, the nation can not be viewed as a collection of individuals with disparate wants, goals, and ideologies. The realist view requires the formulation of a national interest, which in its simplest terms refers to the nation's ability to survive, maintain its security, and achieve some level of power relative to its competitors.

Realism is not without its critics, many of whom challenge the premise that war is the natural condition of international relations or that there can be a truly national interest. However, the realist school of international relations continues to shape foreign policy because ofthe successes it has had in describing real world interactions between nations.

 

Q. It can be inferred from the passage that members ofthe classical realist school would be LEAST likely to support.​

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 19

This is an inference question. Because the entire passage details the classical realist school of thought, your best bet is to start with the answers. Look at each answer choice and see if you can find support for it in the passage. Because this question asks you to find the choice realists would LEAST likely support, the answers with supporting evidence are the wrong answers.

Choices A and D are supported by the passage because the second paragraph states that classical realists believe that every nation must take care of its own security needs and that war is a constant threat. Choice C is supported because the fourth power discusses the formulation of a national interest. That leaves choice B as the correct answer. The third paragraph states that realists do not believe wars can be attributed to "flawed socio political systems," so trying to increase security by sending humanitarian aid would probably not be supported by classical realists.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 20

Passage 1

The classical realist theory of international relations has long dominated both academic institutions and the American government. Even at the birth of the nation, early political thinkers, such as Alexander Hamilton, promoted a realist view of international relations and sought to influence the actions of the government based on this perspective. While the classical realist school of international relations is not entirely homogeneous in nature, there are certain premises that all classical realists share.

The primary principle underlying classical realism is a concern with issues of war and peace. Specifically, classical realists ask, what are the causes of war and what are the conditions of peace? The members of the classical realist school mainly attribute war and conflict to what is termed the security dilemma. In the absence ofany prevailing global authority, each nation is required to address its own security needs. However, each nation's quest for security-through military buildups, alliances, or territorial defenses—necessarily unsettles other nations. These nations react to feelings of insecurity by engaging in their own aggressive actions, which leads other nations to react similarly, perpetuating the cycle.

It is important to note that for realists, unlike idealists or liberal internationalists, international conflict is a necessary consequence of the structural anarchy that nations find themselves in. Whereas other schools may see international conflict as the result of evil dictators, historical chance, flawed socio political systems, or ignorance of world affairs, classical realists see war as the logical result of a system that by its nature lacks a true central authority.

Hand in hand with this view of conflict as an inevitable condition of the global power structure is the realists' view ofthe nation as a unitary actor. Because classical realists see international relations as a continuing struggle for dominance, the nation can not be viewed as a collection of individuals with disparate wants, goals, and ideologies. The realist view requires the formulation of a national interest, which in its simplest terms refers to the nation's ability to survive, maintain its security, and achieve some level of power relative to its competitors.

Realism is not without its critics, many of whom challenge the premise that war is the natural condition of international relations or that there can be a truly national interest. However, the realist school of international relations continues to shape foreign policy because ofthe successes it has had in describing real world interactions between nations.

 

Q. Which of the following, if true, would best support the classical realist theory of international conflict as it is described in the passage?​

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 20

This is an apply information question. In order to answer it, you must first go to the passage to understand the theory of conflict. This information is found in the second paragraph: "In the absence of any prevailing global authority, each nation is required to address its own security needs." Next, you have to figure out which choice best supports this view. Choice A doesn't do much. The classical realist school isn't concerned with the actions of dictators. Choice B seems to hurt the theory. It states that there is a prevailing global authority and yet conflict continues.

Choice C just states that war is a persistent problem, but it doesn't address the causes of it, so this choice doesn't necessarily support the theory. Choice D does support the theory because it shows that the presence of a global authority reduces war. Remember, the realist view argued that the lack of a global authority led to war, so the presence of a global authority should reduce war. That is what choice D states.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 21

Passage 2

After the end of World War II, a pervasive, but unfortunately fallacious, economic perspective took hold. Based on the United States' successful emergence from the Depression, the idea that war was good for an economy became fashionable. However, linking the United States economic recovery with its entry into World War II is a prime example offlawed economic thinking.

Supporters of the war benefits economy theory hold that a country at war is a country with a booming economy. Industry must produce weapons, supplies, food, and clothing for the troops. The increased production necessitates the hiring of more people, reducing unemployment. More employment means more money in the pockets of citizens, who are then likely to go out and spend that money, helping the retail sector of the economy. Retail shops experience an increase in business and may need to hire more workers, further reducing unemployment and adding to the economic momentum. While this scenario sounds good in theory, it does not accurately represent what truly happens in a war time economy.

In reality, the government can fund a war in a combination of three ways. It can raise taxes, cut spending on other areas, or increase the national debt. Each of these strategies has a negative impact on the economy. An increase in taxes takes money out of an individual's hands, leading to a reduction in consumer spending.

Clearly, there is no net benefit to the economy in that case. Cutting spending in other areas has its costs as well, even if they are not as obvious.

Any reduction in government spending means the imposition of a greater burden on the benefactors of that government spending. Cutbacks in a particular program mean that the people who normally depend on that program now must spend more of their money to make up for the government cuts. This also takes money out of consumers' hands and leaves the economy depressed. Of course, a government could go into debt during the war, but such a strategy simply means that at some point in the future, taxes must be increased or spending decreased. Plus, the interest on the debt must be paid as well.

 

Q. The "pervasive...economic perspective" mentioned in line 1 took hold because

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 21

This is a supporting idea question. The question tells you exactly where to look to find the answer: the first few lines ofthe passage. The passage states "Based on the United States' successful emergence from the Depression, the idea that war was good for an economy became fashionable. However, linking the United States economic recovery with its entry into World War II is a prime example of flawed economic thinking." This means that people incorrectly believed that entrance into war and economic recovery were linked. Choice A states this.

Choices B AND D are not stated at all in the passage. Choice C quotes the wrong part of the passage and doesn't answer the question.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 22

Passage 2

After the end of World War II, a pervasive, but unfortunately fallacious, economic perspective took hold. Based on the United States' successful emergence from the Depression, the idea that war was good for an economy became fashionable. However, linking the United States economic recovery with its entry into World War II is a prime example offlawed economic thinking.

Supporters of the war benefits economy theory hold that a country at war is a country with a booming economy. Industry must produce weapons, supplies, food, and clothing for the troops. The increased production necessitates the hiring of more people, reducing unemployment. More employment means more money in the pockets of citizens, who are then likely to go out and spend that money, helping the retail sector of the economy. Retail shops experience an increase in business and may need to hire more workers, further reducing unemployment and adding to the economic momentum. While this scenario sounds good in theory, it does not accurately represent what truly happens in a war time economy.

In reality, the government can fund a war in a combination of three ways. It can raise taxes, cut spending on other areas, or increase the national debt. Each of these strategies has a negative impact on the economy. An increase in taxes takes money out of an individual's hands, leading to a reduction in consumer spending.

Clearly, there is no net benefit to the economy in that case. Cutting spending in other areas has its costs as well, even if they are not as obvious.

Any reduction in government spending means the imposition of a greater burden on the benefactors of that government spending. Cutbacks in a particular program mean that the people who normally depend on that program now must spend more of their money to make up for the government cuts. This also takes money out of consumers' hands and leaves the economy depressed. Of course, a government could go into debt during the war, but such a strategy simply means that at some point in the future, taxes must be increased or spending decreased. Plus, the interest on the debt must be paid as well.

 

Q. Which of the following situations best mirrors the effect that cutting spending in government programs has, as detailed in the passage?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 22

This is an apply information question. You have to see what the passage says about cutting spending, then match that information with one of the answers. According to the passage, "Cutbacks in a particular program mean that the people who normally depend on that program now must spend more of their money to make up for the government cuts." Answer choice E matches this.

Cutbacks in food safety inspection lead to illnesses and people have to spend money they would otherwise not have to in order to compensate.

Choice A seems to indicate private construction companies would benefit from the cutbacks, which is not what the passage says.

Choice B is close, but it doesn't say that sending the children to a different school costs people more money. Choice C also seems to detail a potential benefit.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 23

If the sum of three consecutive even integers is 90, what is the largest of these integers?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 23

Three consecutive even integers are, 2x, 2x + 2, 2x + 4
Sum = 90
2x + 2x + 2 + 2x + 4 = 90
6x + 6 = 90
6x = 84
x = 84 / 6
x = 14
2x = 28, 2x + 2 = 30, 2x + 4 = 32

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 24

-1 - [-1(-1) + 1] / -1(-1 -1) =

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 24

The correct option is D.
-1(-1-1)
According to BODMAS rule we need to solve bracket first so,
-1(-2)
-1*-2= +2 and there is only single option with denominator PLUS 2

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 25

Which property is illustrated by the equation (a + b) + c = c + (a + b) ?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 25

Associative Property of Addition
For any real numbers a, b, and c, (a + b) + c = a + (b + c). The example below shows how the associative property can be used to simplify expressions with real numbers.
 

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 26

Given sets 4 = {1,2,3,4,5,6}, B = {2,4,6,8} and C= {2,3,4,5}, what is the intersection of the three sets?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 26

Intersection of all three sets will have all elements present in all of them.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 27

Passage 2

Do not study too long at once. So long as the mind works with ease, it may be allowed to continue working but if we find it moves slowly and extra trouble is needed to keep the attention fixed, it is far better to break off and take a walk or have some other recreation, that to go on plodding until one feels wholly exhausted. To continue to force the mind to work is likely to lead to injurious result and may end in a nervous breakdown from which recovery is slow and troublesome.

 

Q. The underlying tone of the passage is that​

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 27

An injury to the mind is more difficult to cure than an injury to any other part of the body. It is far better to break off and take a walk or have some other recreation, than to go on plodding until one feels wholly exhausted. To continue to force the mind to work is likely to lead to injurious results and may end in a nervous breakdown from which recovery is slow and troublesome.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 28

Passage 2

Do not study too long at once. So long as the mind works with ease, it may be allowed to continue working but if we find it moves slowly and extra trouble is needed to keep the attention fixed, it is far better to break off and take a walk or have some other recreation, that to go on plodding until one feels wholly exhausted. To continue to force the mind to work is likely to lead to injurious result and may end in a nervous breakdown from which recovery is slow and troublesome.

 

Q. While making the observation "Do not study too long", the author suggests that

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 28

C is the correct option. By saying that "Do not study too long",the author is definitely suggesting that doing mental work beyond a certain limit may cause serious injury to the man.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 29

During a two-day meeting later this week in a stately neo-baroque building in Tokyo, nine men may vote to end of one of the oldest periods in the history of central banking- and send one of the clearest signals yet that Japan’s economy has finally emerged from 15 years of stagnation. Led by Governor Toshihiko Fukui, the monetary policy committee at the Bank of Japan (BOJ) will vote on whether to raise its overnight lending rate to 0.25% or leave it at Zero, where it has been for more than five years. That shift would not just demonstrate that the BOJ believes the world’s second largest economy is now on sound footing—it would also have profound effect on global markets and both corporate and private borrowers.
The race hike is by no means guaranteed—the BOJ could wait until its next meeting in August or beyond. But 32 out of 41 analysts and traders surveyed by Reuters last week said they expect an increase at this week’s meeting. Yasunari Ueno, Chief market economist at Mizhuo securities, says, "I put the possibility for hike this week at 80% to 90%." If it doesn’t happen, there’s nonetheless a widespread belief that it will inevitably do so in the next few months—and that the first rise will likely be followed by more.

The change in lending rate by Bank of Japan (BOJ) would affect which of the following?

  1. Give a perception to the world that it is on concrete footing.
  2. all over the worldMarkets
  3. It will not have any impact on corporate and private borrowers.
Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 29

In the passage it is mentioned. “That shift would not just demonstrate that the BOJ believes the world’s second largest economy is now on sound footing—it would also have profound effect on global markets and both corporate and private borrowers.” implies that the change in rate by Bank of Japan (BOJ) would affect market all over the world and it also give a perception to the world that it is on concrete footing.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 30

Which one will replace the question mark ?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 2 Mock Test - 7 - Question 30

(2)2 + (4)2 = 20

and (3)2 + (9)2 = 90

Therefore (1)2 + (5)2 = 26.

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