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UPSC Exam  >  UPSC Test  >  Mock Test Prelims 2026  >  Test: Polity- 1 - UPSC MCQ

Test: Polity- 1 Free Online Test 2026


MCQ Practice Test & Solutions: Test: Polity- 1 (50 Questions)

You can prepare effectively for UPSC Mock Test for UPSC Prelims 2026 with this dedicated MCQ Practice Test (available with solutions) on the important topic of "Test: Polity- 1". These 50 questions have been designed by the experts with the latest curriculum of UPSC 2026, to help you master the concept.

Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 60 minutes
  • - Number of Questions: 50

Sign up on EduRev for free to attempt this test and track your preparation progress.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 1
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Consider the following statements regarding the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019:

  • Statement-I: This act specifically targets illegal immigrants from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Pakistan and Sri lanka.
  • Statement-II: The act is to provide expedited Indian citizenship to persecuted minorities who entered India on or before December 31, 2014.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution: Question 1

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The CAA specifically targets illegal immigrants from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan.

Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019

  • It amends the Citizenship Act of 1955 and introduces changes to the criteria for acquiring Indian citizenship.
  • The CAA specifically targets illegal immigrants from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan who are members of six religious minority communities: Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis, and Christians.
  • The main objective of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act is to provide expedited Indian citizenship to persecuted minorities who entered India on or before December 31, 2014.
  • It seeks to protect those individuals who faced religious persecution in the three neighboring countries and have been residing in India without valid documents.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 2
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Consider the following statements:

  1. The guidelines for renunciation of Indian Citizenship are issued by the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
  2. Citizenship of a minor child shall get suspended till the attainment of full age if his/her parent ceases to be citizen of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 2

Statement 1 is correct. Matters relating to citizenship, including renunciation, are governed by the Citizenship Act, 1955, and the Central Government acts through the Ministry of Home Affairs to issue rules and guidelines for implementation.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Section 8(2) of the Citizenship Act, 1955 states that the minor child of a person who renounces Indian citizenship "shall, thereupon, cease to be a citizen of India." This means the child's citizenship ends immediately on the parent's renunciation, not that it is merely suspended until attainment of full age.

Separately, there is a provision that a minor who is an Indian citizen and also a citizen of another country will cease to be an Indian citizen if they do not renounce the other citizenship within six months of attaining full age.

Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

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Test: Polity- 1 - Question 3
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Consider the following statements:

  1. Overseas citizen of India (OCI) includes a group of people holding a company in any foreign country of Indian origin.
  2. Foreign nationals cannot apply for OCI while on visiting India in Tourist Visa.
  3. The foreigner staying in a particular country or in India for a continuous period of 6 months is eligible to apply for OCI cardholder.
  4. The Spouse of OCI cardholder, whose marriage is registered in the country of residence, is also eligible for OCI cardholder to India.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 3

Statement 1 is incorrect. OCI is a status granted only to a person (an individual) who meets the prescribed ancestry or citizenship-related conditions; companies or other legal entities are not eligible for OCI registration.

Statement 2 is correct. Persons visiting India on a Tourist Visa (as well as on Missionary or Mountaineering Visas) are not permitted to apply for grant of OCI while in India; such applicants must apply from their country of residence or as per the prescribed rules.

Statement 3 is correct. The term ordinarily resident for the purpose of eligibility is taken to mean a person who has been staying in the relevant country (or in India) for a continuous period of not less than six months immediately preceding the application; meeting this residency requirement is part of the eligibility conditions.

Statement 4 is incorrect. A spouse of foreign origin of an Indian citizen or of an OCI cardholder is eligible only if the marriage has been registered and subsisted for a continuous period of not less than two years immediately preceding the application; merely having the marriage registered in the country of residence without the required two-year subsistence does not fulfil the statutory condition.

Therefore, only Statements 2 and 3 are correct; the correct choice is Only two (Option B).

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 4
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Which of the statements given below is correct regarding provisions of ‘Citizenship in India’?

Detailed Solution: Question 4

Citizenship

  • Constitution of India does not deal with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent to its commencement. It empowers the Parliament to enact a law to provide for such matters and any other matter relating to citizenship. Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Citizenship Act (1955).
  • According to the Constitution, the following four categories of persons became the citizens of India at its commencement i.e., on January 26, 1950:
    • A person who had his domicile in India
    • A person who migrated to India from Pakistan became an Indian citizen if he or either of his parents or any of his grandparents was born in undivided India.
    • Persons migrated to Pakistan but later returned;
    • Persons of Indian origin residing outside India.
  • The other constitutional provisions with respect to the citizenship are as follows:
    • No person shall be a citizen of India or be deemed to be a citizen of India, if he has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of any foreign state.
  • Every person who is or is deemed to be a citizen of India shall continue to be such citizen, subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament.
    • Parliament shall have the power to make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 5
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With reference to the federal government, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The power is divided between a central authority and various regional or state governments.
  2. It is composed of two distinct branches: legislative and executive.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution: Question 5

  • Statement 1 is correct: The power is divided between a central authority and various regional or state governments.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The federal government is composed of three distinct branches: legislative, executive, and judicial.

Federal Government

  • The federal government refers to the central government of a country that has a federal system of governance. In a federal system, power is divided between a central authority and various regional or state governments. The specific structure and functions of the federal government can vary from country to country.
  • The federal government typically has authority over national-level issues such as defense, foreign policy, currency, interstate commerce, and overall governance of the country. It is responsible for making and enforcing laws, collecting taxes, and providing essential services to its citizens.
  • In many countries, the federal government consists of three separate branches: the executive branch, the legislative branch, and the judicial branch. The executive branch, headed by the head of state or head of government, is responsible for implementing and enforcing laws. The legislative branch, usually a parliament or congress, is responsible for making laws. The judicial branch, comprising the courts, interprets the laws and ensures their proper application.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 6
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With reference to Citizenship Act 1955, consider the following statements:

  1. The Act allows recognizing Commonwealth citizenship and permitting the Central Government to extend on a reciprocal basis such rights of an Indian citizen.
  2. Every person who is a citizen of a Commonwealth country specified in the First Schedule of the act, by virtue of that citizenship, have the status of a Commonwealth citizen in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 6

Citizenship Act 1955

  • Articles 5 to 9 of the Constitution determine who are Indian citizens at the Commencement of the Constitution are and Article 10 provides for their continuance as such citizens subject to the provisions of any law that may be made by Parliament.
  • The Constitution does not, however, make any provision with respect to the acquisition of citizenship after its commencement or the termination of citizenship or other matters relating to citizenship.
  • Under Article 11, the Constitution expressly saves the power of Parliament to make a law to provide for such matters.
  • It is obviously necessary to make such a law to supplement the provisions of the Constitution and this Bill seeks to achieve this object.
  • This Act provides for the acquisition of citizenship, after the commencement of the Constitution, by birth, descent, registration, naturalisation and incorporation of territory. It also makes necessary provisions for the termination and deprivation of citizenship under certain circumstances.
  • The Act also seeks to formally recognize Commonwealth citizenship and permit the Central Government to extend on a reciprocal basis such rights of an Indian citizen as may be agreed upon to the citizens of other Commonwealth countries and the Republic of Ireland.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 7
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Consider the following statements:

  1. Parliament can introduce a bill to readjust the boundary of a territory in Union of States, only with prior recommendation of the President.
  2. The power conferred by Parliament to form a new State can be done only by a Constitutional amendment.
  3. Sikkim was acquired within the Union of India under Thirty-sixth Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975.
  4. Some states have got status of full-fledged states earlier being a Union Territory (UT) since 1947.

How many of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 7

  1. Parliament can introduce a bill to readjust the boundary of a territory in the Union of States only with the prior recommendation of the President.
    Correct. Under Article 3 of the Constitution, a bill for the formation of a new State or alteration of boundaries cannot be introduced in Parliament without the President’s recommendation.

  2. The power conferred on Parliament to form a new State can be done only by a Constitutional amendment.
    Incorrect. Parliament can form a new State or alter boundaries by a simple law under Article 3, not necessarily by a Constitutional amendment.

  3. Sikkim was acquired within the Union of India under the Thirty-sixth Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975.
    Correct. The 36th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975 made Sikkim the 22nd State of India.

  4. Some States have got the status of full-fledged States earlier being Union Territories since 1947.
    Correct. Examples include Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Tripura, and Goa, which were earlier Union Territories and later became States.

Correct statements: 1, 3 and 4.Hence, the correct ans is Option C.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 8
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Which of the following does not signify India as a ‘Union’?

Detailed Solution: Question 8

  • Article 246 of the Indian Constitution deals with the distribution of legislative powers between the Centre and the States. This signifies India's federal structure but does not specifically denote it as a 'Union'.
  • Article 356 provides for the imposition of President's Rule in a State, indicating a unitary aspect of governance during emergencies, further supporting the idea of India as a 'Union'.
  • Article 371 contains special provisions for certain States, recognising their unique needs, which aligns with the concept of a 'Union' by accommodating diversity within a unified framework.
  • Article 263 allows for the establishment of an Inter-State Council, facilitating cooperation between States, reinforcing the idea of a Union through collaboration.

Thus, while all articles contribute to the governance structure, Article 246 does not explicitly signify India as a 'Union'.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 9
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Consider the following statements:

  1. The States Reorganisation Act, 1956 reduced the number of states in India to 14 and Union Territories to 6.

  2. In order to implement the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, the Constitution was amended by the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act.

  3. The formation of states such as Uttarakhand and Chhattisgarh required a Constitutional Amendment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 9

  • Statement 1 – Correct
    After the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, India had 14 States and 6 Union Territories.

  • Statement 2 – Correct
    The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956 was enacted to implement the reorganisation by amending Articles 1–4 and the First Schedule.

  • Statement 3 – Incorrect
    New states like Uttarakhand, Chhattisgarh, and Jharkhand (2000) were created by simple Acts of Parliament under Article 3, not by a Constitutional Amendment.

Hence, the correct answer is Option B.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 10
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Consider the following statements regarding the Indian constitution:

Statement-I: The amendability of the Indian Constitution is outlined in Article 362.
Statement-II: The provisions of the Constitution state that it can be amended by Parliament in accordance with the prescribed procedure.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution: Question 10

Amendability of the Constitution

  • The Indian Constitution, adopted on January 26, 1950, provides a framework for the governance of India.
  • It is a unique document that refl ects the aspirations and values of the Indian people. One of the signifi cant features of the Indian Constitution is its amendability, which allows for changes and adaptations to meet the evolving needs of the country.
  • The amendability of the Indian Constitution is outlined in Article 368. It states that the Constitution can be amended by Parliament in accordance with the prescribed procedure.
  • The procedure for amendment varies depending on the nature of the amendment. There are three types of amendments:
  • Simple Majority: Some provisions of the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the members present and voting in each House of Parliament. These amendments do not require ratifi cation by the states.
  • Special Majority: Certain provisions can be amended by a special majority, which requires a majority of the total membership of each House of Parliament and a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting. These amendments do not require ratifi cation by the states.
  • Special Majority and Ratification by States: Some provisions that affect the federal nature of the Constitution require a special majority in Parliament and ratifi cation by at least half of the state legislatures.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 11
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With respect to the meaning and importance of Fundamental Rights, consider the following statements:

1. They encompass a wide range of civil, political, economic, social, and cultural rights.
2. These rights are only enforceable by the supreme court of India.
3. They protect citizens from arbitrary arrest, detention, or discrimination, and guarantee equality before the law.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 11

Meaning and importance of Fundamental Rights

  • Fundamental rights in India are a set of basic human rights guaranteed to every citizen under Part III of the Indian Constitution. These rights are considered essential for the development and well-being of individuals and are crucial for maintaining a democratic and inclusive society.
  • Fundamental rights are individual rights that are considered fundamental to human dignity, freedom, and equality. They encompass a wide range of civil, political, economic, social, and cultural rights. These rights are enforceable by the courts, and any law or action that violates them can be challenged and struck down.
  • Protection of individual liberty: Fundamental rights ensure the protection of individual liberties by safeguarding freedoms such as freedom of speech, expression, assembly, and association. They protect citizens from arbitrary arrest, detention, or discrimination, and guarantee equality before the law.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 12
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Consider the following statements:

1. The Right to Property was removed as a fundamental right through the 44th Amendment Act in 1978.
2. The 42nd Amendment Act in 1976 introduced signific ant changes to the executive, judiciary, and legislature, increasing the power of the central government.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution: Question 12

  • Statement 1: Correct — The Right to Property was removed as a Fundamental Right by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 and made a legal right under Article 300A.
  • Statement 2: Correct — The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 (also called the “Mini Constitution”) significantly expanded the powers of the central government and affected the executive, judiciary, and legislature.

Correct answer: d) Neither 1 nor 2

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 13
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Consider the following statements regarding the constitution of India:

1. Promote the ideal of political democracy
2. Prevent the establishment of an authoritarian rule
3. Protect the liberties and freedoms of the people
4. Promote the tyranny of the executive

How many of the above are the objectives of Fundamental Rights?

Detailed Solution: Question 13

The Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution are meant to:

  1.  Promote the ideal of political democracy – They guarantee equality, liberty, and justice, which are essential elements of political democracy.
  2.  Prevent the establishment of an authoritarian rule – They act as limitations on the powers of the government, ensuring that no authority becomes arbitrary or dictatorial.
  3.  Protect the liberties and freedoms of the people – Their primary objective is to safeguard individual rights from state encroachment.
  4. Promote the tyranny of the executive – This is contrary to the spirit of Fundamental Rights, which exist to prevent such tyranny.

 Therefore, only three statements (1, 2, and 3) are objectives of Fundamental Rights.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 14
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Consider the following statements regarding the Right against Exploitation:

Statement-I: It is enshrined in Articles 17 and 18 and aims to protect individuals from various forms of exploitation and ensure the preservation of human dignity.
Statement-II: This right refl ects India’s commitment to social justice and the eradication of exploitative practices.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution: Question 14

Right against Exploitation

  • The Right against Exploitation is one of the fundamental rights guaranteed under the Indian Constitution. It is enshrined in Articles 23 and 24 and aims to protect individuals from various forms of exploitation and ensure the preservation of human dignity. This right refl ects India’s commitment to social justice and the eradication of exploitative practices.
  • Article 23 of the Indian Constitution prohibits traffic king in human beings and forced labor. It states that “Traffic in human beings and begar and other similar forms of forced labor are prohibited, and any contravention of this provision shall be an offense punishable in accordance with law.”
  • This provision ensures that individuals are not subjected to slavery, forced labor, or any form of human traffi cking. It recognizes the inherent dignity and worth of every person and seeks to eliminate practices that treat individuals as mere commodities.
  • Article 23 also prohibits begar, which refers to the practice of compelling someone to work without payment or under exploitative conditions. This provision aims to prevent the exploitation of vulnerable individuals who may be forced into labor against their will.
  • Article 24 of the Indian Constitution further strengthens the Right against Exploitation by prohibiting the employment of children in hazardous occupations. It states that “No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.”

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 15
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Consider the following statements regarding the Bodoland Territorial Council:

1. The Council was created under the 5th Schedule of the Indian Constitution
2. A Speaker leads the Council, while a Chief Executive Member chairs the executive committee.
3. The executive and legislative powers of the Council are derived from Sixth Schedule of the Constitution.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 15

Bodoland Territorial Council

  • The Councle came after the signing of the Memorandum of Settlement on 10th February, 2003, involving the Government of India, the Government of Assam, and the Bodo Liberation Tigers.
  • The Bodoland Territorial Council Legislative Assembly consists of Speaker, Deputy Speaker and other elected MCLAs of the Bodoland Territorial Council.
  • The executive and legislative powers of the Bodoland Territorial Council are derived from the provisions of the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India and the 2003 and 2020 Bodoland Peace Agreements.
  • The primary objectives of the Council were to address the economic, educational, and linguistic aspirations of the Bodos, as well as to safeguard their land rights, socio-cultural heritage, and ethnic identity. Additionally, the Council aimed to expedite infrastructure development in the BTC area.
  • The Council’s primary focus is to drive accelerated progress in one of the most underdeveloped regions of Assam, with particular attention given to the advancement of the Bodo community in areas such as education, preservation of land rights, linguistic aspirations, cultural heritage, and ethnic identity.
  • Moreover, the BTC places signifi cant importance on enhancing the economic infrastructure throughout the entire area, with the goal of uplifting marginalized communities regardless of their caste, creed, or religion, who reside in this part of the country.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 16
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Consider the following statements regarding ‘Development Councils’ in Assam:

1. Government of Assam has created 33 Development Councils to decentralize power and responsibility.
2. The main function of these Council bodies is to formulate various developmental schemes and to execute these in priority and need base manner.
3. The creation of each of the Development Council was made by separate Gazetted Notification.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 16

Statement 1:Correct.
The Government of Assam has created 33 Development Councils with the objective of decentralising power and responsibility, especially for focused development of various ethnic and social groups.

Statement 2: Incorrect.
Development Councils mainly recommend, plan, and suggest developmental schemes. The actual execution and implementation of schemes are carried out by the concerned government departments, not by the Councils themselves.

Statement 3:Correct.
Each Development Council was constituted through a separate Gazetted Notification issued by the Government of Assam.

Final Answer: c) 

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 17
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Consider the following statements regarding the Legislative relations between the Centre and States:

Statement-I: Both the Parliament and the State legislatures can make laws on subjects given in the Concurrent list.
Statement-II:Article 368 of the Indian constitution gives the parliament the power to amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of the constitution.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution: Question 17

- Statement-I is correct: Both the Parliament and State legislatures can legislate on subjects in the Concurrent List. If there is a conflict, Parliament's law prevails, unless the state law receives Presidential assent.
- Statement-II is correct: Article 368 provides the Parliament with the power to amend the Constitution by addition, variation, or repeal of its provisions.
- Both statements are accurate, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I; they address different constitutional aspects. Hence, the correct answer is B.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 18
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With respect to the Inter-State Councils, consider the following statements:

1. The council was established on recommendations of Sarkaria Commission.
2. The councils empowered to investigate and discuss subjects of common interest between the Union and states, or among states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 18

Inter-state councils

  • As part of the process of reviewing the working of the existing arrangements between the Union and the States, the Government constituted a commission in 1988 under the Chairmanship of Justice R.S. Sarkaria.
  • One of the important recommendations of Sarkaria Commission was for establishing a permanent Inter-State Council as an independent national forum for consultation with a mandate well defi ned in accordance with Article 263 of the Constitution of India.
  • The inter-state council is a recommendatory body that has been empowered to investigate and discuss subjects of common interest between the Union and state(s), or among states. It also makes recommendations for better coordination of policy and action on these subjects, and deliberations on matters of general interest to the states, which may be referred to it by its chairman.
  • It also deliberates on other matters of general interest to the states as may be referred by the chairman to the council. The Council may meet at least thrice in a year. There is also a Standing Committee of the Council.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 19
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In the context of the Zonal Councils, consider the following pairs:

1. Northern Zonal Council - Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir
2. Central Zonal Council - Chhattisgarh and Uttarakhand
3. The Eastern Zonal Council - Orissa and Sikkim
4. Western Zonal Council - Union Territories of Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 19

Zonal councils

  • The idea of creation of Zonal Councils was mooted by the first Prime Minister of India, Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru in 1956 when during the course of debate on the report of the States Re-organisation Commission, he suggested that the States proposed to be reorganised may be grouped into four or five zones having an Advisory Council ‘to develop the habit of cooperative working” among these States.
  • This suggestion was made by Pandit Nehru at a time when linguistic hostilities and bitterness as a result of re-organisation of the States on linguistic pattern were threatening the very fabric of our nation.
  • As an antidote to this situation, it was suggested that a high level advisory forum should be set up to minimise the impact of these hostilities and to create healthy inter-State and Centre-State environment with a view to solving inter-State problems and fostering balanced socio economic development of the respective zones.
  • In the light of the vision of Pandit Nehru, fi ve Zonal Councils were set up vide Part-III of the States Re-organisation Act, 1956. The present composition of each of these Zonal Councils is as under:
    • The Northern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, National Capital Territory of Delhi and Union Territory of Chandigarh.
    • The Central Zonal Council, comprising the States of Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
    • The Eastern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, Sikkim and West Bengal.
    • The Western Zonal Council, comprising the States of Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra and the Union Territories of Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli.
    • The Southern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and the Union Territory of Puducherry.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 20
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Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

1. NITI Aayog has been constituted to actualise the important goal of cooperative federalism and to enable good governance in India.
2. NITI  Aayog has established the Sustainable Action for Transforming Human Capital (SATH) programme to promotion of cooperative federalism among the states.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution: Question 20

The correct answer is d) only 2

1. Statement 1: "NITI Aayog has been constituted to actualise the important goal of cooperative federalism and to enable good governance in India."  
   This statement is correct.  
   NITI Aayog was set up in 2015 to replace the Planning Commission, and one of its key objectives is to promote cooperative federalism by fostering the involvement of state governments in policy-making at the national level. It aims to promote good governance by formulating national strategies with active state participation.

2. Statement 2: NITI has established the Sustainable Action for Transforming Human Capital (SATH) programme to promote cooperative federalism among the states."  
   This statement is incorrect.  
   The SATH programme (Sustainable Action for Transforming Human Capital) was launched by NITI Aayog to improve education and healthcare sectors in select states, not specifically for promoting cooperative federalism. It aims at transforming human capital by working with states to strengthen these key areas.

Therefore, the incorrect statement is only 2, and the correct answer is d) 2 only.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 21
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Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The term “emergency” refers to an unanticipated turn of circumstances that requires government bodies to act immediately within their jurisdiction.
Statement-II: In situations of emergency, all civil rights - except Articles 20 and 21 of the Constitution of India suspended inside the state or nation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution: Question 21

  • Statement-I is correct.: An emergency does refer to an extraordinary or unforeseen situation that demands immediate action by the government within its constitutional authority.

  • Statement-II is incorrect: Under the Constitution of India:

    Article 19 is automatically suspended only during a National Emergency.
    Other Fundamental Rights are not automatically suspended; they can be suspended only by a Presidential Order under Article 359.
    Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended under any circumstances, even during an emergency.

Hence, it is wrong to say that all civil rights except Articles 20 and 21 are suspended during an emergency.
Therefore, Correct answer is Option B.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 22
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Consider the following statements regarding the National Emergency in India:

1. According to Article 356 states that the President can proclaim an emergency when the territory of India is under invasion, foreign encroachment, or internal insurrection.

2. The first proclamation of National Emergency was issued in October 1962 on account of Chinese aggression in the NEFA and was in force till January 1968.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 22

- Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 356 pertains to President's Rule, not a National Emergency. It involves the failure of the constitutional machinery in a state.
- Statement 2 is correct. The first National Emergency in India was declared in October 1962 due to Chinese aggression. This emergency lasted until January 1968.
- Thus, the correct answer is C: 2 only.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 23
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Regarding the 42nd Amendment Act in India, consider the following statements:

1. It introduced Fundamental Duties in the Constitution.
2. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution enshrines the principles of socialism, secularism, and integrity under this amendment.
3. The amendment declared that Parliament had the power to amend any part of the Constitution excluding Fundamental Rights.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 23

Statement 1: It introduced Fundamental Duties in the Constitution -Correct
The 42nd Amendment inserted Part IV-A (Article 51A), which contains the Fundamental Duties.

Statement 2: The Preamble of the Indian Constitution enshrines the principles of socialism, secularism, and integrity under this amendment.-Correct.
The words “Socialist,” “Secular,” and “Integrity” were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment.

Statement 3: The amendment declared that Parliament had the power to amend any part of the Constitution excluding Fundamental Rights-Incorrect.
The 42nd Amendment attempted to give Parliament unlimited amending power, including over Fundamental Rights. This was later restricted by the Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills case

Hence, Correct answer is Option B.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 24
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Which of the following statements are correctly matched regarding fundamental rights given in Article 25?

  1. Freedom of conscience: Inner freedom of an individual to mould his relation with God or Creatures in whatever way he desires
  2. Right to profess: Declaration of beliefs and faith openly and freely
  3. Right to practice: Performance of religious worship, rituals, ceremonies and exhibition of beliefs and ideas

Detailed Solution: Question 24

The correct answer is option (c) All of them.
All three statements correctly describe different aspects of the fundamental rights given in Article 25 of the Indian Constitution.

  • Statement 1: Freedom of conscience refers to the inner freedom of an individual to mold their relationship with God or creatures in any way they desire. It emphasizes the personal and individual nature of religious beliefs and the freedom to hold and change those beliefs.
  • Statement 2: The right to profess refers to the freedom to openly and freely declare one's beliefs and faith. It entails the right to express one's religious beliefs and communicate them to others without fear of persecution or discrimination.
  • Statement 3: The right to practice encompasses the freedom to engage in religious worship, rituals, ceremonies, and the exhibition of beliefs and ideas. It includes the right to perform religious rituals, observe religious customs and practices, and express one's religious beliefs through actions and conduct.

Therefore, all three statements accurately describe different aspects of the fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 25 of the Indian Constitution.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 25
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Which part of the Indian Constitution contains the Directive Principles of State Policy?

Detailed Solution: Question 25

The Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in Part IV of the Indian Constitution. These principles reflect a mix of humanitarian socialist precepts, Gandhian ideals, and democratic socialism.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 26
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The committees which examined the Centre-State Relations are: 

  1. Sarkaria Commission 
  2. L M Singhvi Committee
  3. Rajamannar Committee 
  4. M M Punchhi Commission

Q. Select the correct codes: 

Detailed Solution: Question 26

In 1986, Rajiv Gandhi government appointed a committee to prepare a concept paper on 'Revitalisation of Panchayati Raj Institutions for Democracy and Development'' under the chairmanship of L M Singhvi.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 27
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How many of the following protections are available as a fundamental right under the constitution to a person detained under a preventive detention law?
1. The grounds of detention should be communicated to the detenu even if it is against the public interest.
2. The detenu must be released after 24 hours unless the magistrate authorises further detention.
3. The detenu must be offered an opportunity to make a representation against the detention order.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution: Question 27

Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained. Detention is of two types, namely, punitive and preventive. Punitive detention is to punish a person for an offence committed by him after trial and conviction in a court. Preventive detention, on the other hand, means detention of a person without trial and conviction by a court. Its purpose is not to punish a person for a past offence but to prevent him from committing an offence in the near future.

  • The Article 22 has two parts—the first part deals with the cases of ordinary law and the second part deals with the cases of preventive detention law.
  • The second part of Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained under a preventive detention law. This protection is available to both citizens as well as aliens and includes the following:
    • The detention of a person cannot exceed three months unless an advisory board reports sufficient cause for extended detention. The board is to consist of judges of a high court.
    • The grounds of detention should be communicated to the detenu. However, the facts considered to be against the public interest need not be disclosed. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
    • The detenu should be afforded an opportunity to make a representation against the detention order. Hence statement 3 is correct.
    • A person has the right to be released after 24 hours (unless the magistrate authorises further detention) only if he is arrested under ordinary law. It is not applicable in case of preventive detention law. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 28
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When the President's Rule is imposed in a state:
1. He can take up the functions of the state government and powers vested in the governor or any other executive authority in the state
2. He can declare that the powers of the state legislature are to be exercised by the Parliament
3. He can take all other necessary steps excluding the suspension of the constitutional provisions relating to anybody or authority in the state
Choose from the following options.

Detailed Solution: Question 28

Correct option is A. 1 and 2 Only
The President acquires the following extraordinary powers when the President's Rule is imposed in a state:

  1. He can take up the functions of the state government and powers vested in the governor or any other executive authority in the state.
  2. He can declare that the powers of the state legislature are to be exercised by the Parliament.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 29
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Which of the following best describes the concept of Constitutionalism?

Detailed Solution: Question 29

Constitutionalism:

  • Constitutionalism is a concept that means the government derives its authority from a fundamental body of law and is legally limited in its powers by the same. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
  • It does not have any direct relation to the written or unwritten constitution or the political system of a country.
  • It involves the principles and practices that ensure the government's authority is derived from and limited by a body of fundamental laws laid out in the Constitution.
  • Constitutionalism promotes the rule of law, the separation of powers, the protection of individual rights, and adherence to legal constraints, fostering a system where government actions are governed by established legal norms and principles.
  • It reflects the idea that governmental powers should be structured and controlled within a framework defined by the Constitution to prevent arbitrary rule and protect the rights of citizens.

Test: Polity- 1 - Question 30
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Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission of Scheduled Tribes (NCST):
1. It was created through the 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003.
2. The conditions of service and tenure of the Chairperson and members are determined by the President.
3. The Commission, while inquiring into any complaint, has all the powers of a civil court.
How many statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 30

  • The National Commission for SCs and STs came into being consequent upon the passing of the 65th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1990.
  • Geographically and culturally, the STs are different from the SCs and their problems are also different from those of SCs. It was felt necessary that the Ministry of Tribal Affairs should coordinate all activities relating to the STs as it would not be administratively feasible for the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment to perform this role. Hence, in order to safeguard the interests of the STs more effectively, it was proposed to set up a separate National Commission for STs by bifurcating the existing combined National Commission for SCs and STs. This was done by passing the 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The separate National Commission for STs came into existence in 2004. It consists of a chairperson, a vice-chairperson, and three other members. They are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. Their conditions of service and tenure of office are also determined by the President. Hence statement 2 is correct.

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