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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - UPSC MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4

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UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 1

The amount of work in a leather factory is increased by 50%. By what percent is it necessary to increase the number of workers to complete the new amount of work in previously planned time, if the productivity of the new labour is 25% more.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 1

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 2

Raghu borrowed ₹18000 at 12% simple interest per annum, and some more money at 15% simple interest per annum. If the overall interest paid by him in 2 years is ₹ 9000, then how much money did he borrow?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 2

SI = Prn/100
Let the money borrowed at 15% simple interest per annum be ₹ X.
According to the question, [(18000 × 12 × 2)/100] + [(X × 15 × 2)/100] = 9000
⇒ [(36000 × 12) / 100] + [30X / 100] = 9000
⇒ 30X / 100 = 9000 – 4320 = 4680
⇒ X = 4680 × 100 / 30
⇒ X = ₹ 15600
So, total borrowed amount = 18000 + 15600 = ₹ 33600
Hence, option (d) is the right answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 3

A report consists of 10 sheets each consisting of 50 lines and each such line consists of 60 characters. This report is retyped into sheets each of 30 lines, each having 25 characters. The percentage increase in the number of sheets is?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 3

The total number of characters = 10 × 50 × 60.
Let the number of sheets in the new format be p.
Since the total number of characters remains the same, therefore: 10 × 50 × 60 = p × 30 × 25
So, p = 40 So, increase in the number of sheets = 40 - 10 = 30
So, percentage increase = (30/10) × 100 = 300%
Hence, option (b) is the right answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 4

Weight of a jar alone is 12.5% of the jar filled with water. When some quantity of water is removed, weight of the jar and the remaining water is 25% of the original total weight. What fractional part of the water has been removed?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 4

Let the original total weight be x.
Weight of the jar = (12.5/100)x = x/8.
Original weight of the water = x - (x/8) = 7x/8.
New weight of jar and water (jar + water) = (25/100)x = x/4.
New weight of water = new weight of jar and water - weight of jar = (x/4) – (x/8) = x/8.
Weight of water removed = original weight of water – new weight of water = (7x/8) – (x/8) = 6x/8
Fraction of water removed = weight of water removed/original weight of water = (6x/8)/(7x/8) = 6/7
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 5

Radha spends 40% of her savings on Char-Dham Yatra, 10% of the remaining on charity and 16.67% of the remaining on food. If in the end she is left with ₹ 22500, then which of the following must be right?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 5

Let total savings be 100%.
Savings spent on Char-Dham Yatra = 40%
So, remaining savings = 60%
Now, 10% of the remaining savings is spent on charity, i.e. 6% on charity ……… (i)
So, remaining savings = 60% - 6% = 54%
Now, 16.67% of the remaining savings is spent on food, i.e. 54% × (50/3) / 100 = 9% ................ (ii)
So, remaining savings = 54% - 9% = 45%
It means she spent 55% of her total savings.
From equation (i) and (ii),
Savings spent on charity and food = 6% + 9% = 15%
Hence, option (b) is the right answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 6

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage

The global race to fund, develop, and acquire artificial intelligence technologies and start-ups is intensifying, with commercial uses for AI proliferating in emerging economies. AI could increase GDP growth in both advanced countries and emerging markets. In energy, AI can optimize power transmission. In healthcare, diagnosis and drug discovery will benefit enormously from AI. In education, it can improve learning environments and learning outcomes and can better prepare youth for the transition to the workplace. In manufacturing, AI can help design better products in terms of functionality, quality, and cost, and improve predictive maintenance. AI can help extend credit and financial services to those who lack them. The potential impact of AI on transportation and logistics goes far beyond automation and road safety to span the entire logistics chain. Yet with the exceptions of China and India, emerging markets have received only a modest share of global investment in this advanced technology, even though they may benefit more from AI implementation than advanced economies.

Q. Which of the following is/are the most rational and logical inference/inferences that can be made from the passage?

  1. Advanced economies have invested more in AI, than emerging markets.
  2. AI implementation can greatly benefit emerging markets in various sectors.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 6
  • Inference 1 is correct. The passage mentions, ―Yet with the exceptions of China and India, emerging markets have received only a modest share of global investment”. If global investment in AI is considered, the emerging markets have received a smaller pie. Therefore, we can say that advanced economies have invested more in AI, than emerging markets.
  • Inference 2 is correct. The passage states, ―…they may benefit more from AI implementation than advanced economies”. AI has the potential to bring significant improvements in sectors such as energy, healthcare, education, manufacturing, finance, and transportation in emerging markets.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 7

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage

The global race to fund, develop, and acquire artificial intelligence technologies and start-ups is intensifying, with commercial uses for AI proliferating in emerging economies. AI could increase GDP growth in both advanced countries and emerging markets. In energy, AI can optimize power transmission. In healthcare, diagnosis and drug discovery will benefit enormously from AI. In education, it can improve learning environments and learning outcomes and can better prepare youth for the transition to the workplace. In manufacturing, AI can help design better products in terms of functionality, quality, and cost, and improve predictive maintenance. AI can help extend credit and financial services to those who lack them. The potential impact of AI on transportation and logistics goes far beyond automation and road safety to span the entire logistics chain. Yet with the exceptions of China and India, emerging markets have received only a modest share of global investment in this advanced technology, even though they may benefit more from AI implementation than advanced economies.

Q. Which of the following are applications/ benefits of AI as implied by the passage?

  1. Performing critical surgeries in healthcare.
  2. Skilling fresh workforce.
  3. Boosting economic growth of nations.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 7
  • Statement 1 is not correct. The following line ―In healthcare, diagnosis and drug discovery will benefit enormously from AI” talks about diagnosis and drug discovery, not about surgeries, that too critical in nature. So, as per the passage, this statement is not correct.
  • Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The lines “AI could increase GDP growth in both advanced countries and emerging markets (statement 3)” and ―In education, it can improve learning environments and learning outcomes and can better prepare youth for the transition to the workplace (statement 2)”, show that option (a) is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 8

Kavita’s annual salary is ₹ 80000. If her salary is being cut by 2.5% every year, then how much money will she get after 2.2 years?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 8

Here, Principal = P = ₹ 80000
Rate, R = - 2.5 % = (-5/2)%
T = 2.2 years = 11/5 = 2(1/5) years
∴ Salary after 2.2 years = 80000 {(1 - 5/(2 × 100)}2 × { 1 – 5/(2 × 100 × 5)}
= 80000 × (39 /40)2 × (199/200)
= 80000 × 39 × 39 × 199 / (40 × 40 × 200)
= ₹ 75669.75
So, Kavita will get ₹ 75669.75 salary after 2.2 years.
Hence, option (a) is the right answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 9

If the price of a commodity is raised by 25%, then by how much percent a house holder should reduce his consumption of the same commodity so that his expenditure does not increase?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 9

Here the expenditure is constant.
Since, Rate × Consumption = Expenditure
So, Initially - 1 × 1 = 1 (assume it on your own)
After change - 1.25 × c = 1 (c = new consumption)
So, c = 4/5 Hence, decrease in value = 1 - (4/5) = 1/5
And percentage decrease = [(1/5)/1] × 100 = 20%
So, option (b) is the right answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 10

In a money wining contest, Monu got 40% of the maximum prize money and Golu got 50% of the maximum prize money.
Consider the following statements.
Statement – 1: Golu got 25% more money than the money that Monu won.
Statement – 2: Monu got 20% less money than the money that Golu won.
Which of the statements given above is/are right?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 10

Let ₹100 be the maximum prize money.
Monu won ₹40, and Golu won ₹50.
That is, Monu won ₹10 less than Golu.
Statement 1: Required percent = (10/40) × 100 = 25%
Thus, Golu got 25% more money than the money that Monu won.
Hence, statement -1 is right.
Statement 2: Required percent = (10/50) × 100 = 20%
Thus, Monu got 20% less money than the money that Golu won.
So, statement 2 is also right.
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 11

Subhash earns a profit of 20% by selling a bed sheet for ₹ 840, and makes a loss of 4% by selling a second bed sheet for ₹ 1248. Calculate his overall profit or loss percent.

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 11

Cost price of first bed sheet = (100 / 120) × 840 = 100 x 7 = ₹700
Cost price of second bed sheet = (100 / 96) x 1248 = ₹ 1300
Total cost price = 700 + 1300 = ₹ 2000
Total selling price = 840 + 1248 = ₹ 2088
Profit = 2088 – 2000 = ₹ 88
∴ Profit percent = (88/2000) x 100= 4.4%
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 12

Directions: Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage

The nature of conflict and violence has transformed substantially since the UN was founded 75 years ago.
Conflicts now tend to be less deadly and are often waged between domestic groups rather than states.
Homicides are becoming more frequent in some parts of the world, while gender-based attacks are increasing globally. The long-term impact on the development of interpersonal violence, including violence against children, is also more widely recognized. Separately, technological advances have raised concerns about lethal autonomous weapons and cyberattacks, the weaponization of bots and drones, and the live streaming of extremist attacks. There has also been a rise in criminal activity involving data hacks and ransomware, for example. Meanwhile, international cooperation is under strain, diminishing global potential for the prevention and resolution of conflict and violence in all forms.

Q. Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 12
  • Option (a) is incorrect. Technology is borderless, but to say that it cannot be controlled even with international cooperation is not correct as per the passage. The lines ―Meanwhile, international cooperation is under strain, diminishing global potential for the prevention and resolution of conflict and violence in all forms.”, show that all forms of conflict and violence need international cooperation. So, this statement is not the best crux as per the passage.
  • Option (b) is incorrect. The author says that gender-based attacks are increasing globally. Furthermore, the long term impact of violence against children, is also more widely recognized. From thes e information, we cannot infer that women and children are the worst sufferers of conflicts and violence through cyberattacks. Therefore, this answer option is incorrect.
  • Option (c) is correct. The given option is correct or the best crux because of the following lines ―Meanwhile, international cooperation is under strain, diminishing global potential for the prevention and resolution of conflict and violence in all forms.” Clearly, the stain on international cooperation has affected the global efforts for conflict resolution. These lines reflect that without global cooperation, overcoming conflicts and violence would be a challenge. So, this answer option is correct.
  • Option (d) is incorrect. The passage only says that the nature of conflict and violence has transformed substantially since the UN was founded 75 years ago. Whether or not the UN has been successful in controlling conflicts and violence across the globe is nowhere indicated in the passage. Therefore, this answer option is incorrect.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 13

Directions: Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage

Governments must exploit the enormous opportunities in wastewater. Safely managed wastewater is an affordable and sustainable source of water, energy, nutrients and other recoverable materials. Wastewater can help meet growing demand. There are many treatment processes and operational systems that use wastewater in municipal activities, sustainable agriculture, energy production and industrial development. The benefits far outweigh the costs of better wastewater management. The positive impacts on water quality and supply by increasing wastewater recycling and safe reuse will drive progress in public health, environmental sustainability and economic development by providing new business opportunities and creating more ‘green’ jobs.

Q. Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 13
  • Option (a) is incorrect. Whether wastewater is a finite or infinite resource is not discussed in the passage. We cannot assume it to be finite. Hence, this is not the correct option.
  • Option (b) is incorrect. The author has not commented on the participation of private sector. Therefore, we can rule this option out.
  • Option (c) is incorrect. The line “Governments must exploit the enormous opportunities in wastewater”, only shows that the government must do something related to wastewater. The finer details and modalities of implementation (e.g. PPP mode) is not discussed in the passage. Therefore, we can rule this option out.
  • Option (d) is correct. The lines “The benefits far outweigh the costs of better wastewater management. The positive impacts on water quality and supply by increasing wastewater recycling and safe reuse will drive progress in public health, environmental sustainability and economic development by providing new business opportunities and creating more „green’ jobs”, show that wastewater recycling will need investment in operations. This investment will also give returns through its benefits like green jobs, improved public health, new business opportunities etc. So, as per the passage, this option is correct.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 14

Directions: Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage

Governments must exploit the enormous opportunities in wastewater. Safely managed wastewater is an affordable and sustainable source of water, energy, nutrients and other recoverable materials. Wastewater can help meet growing demand. There are many treatment processes and operational systems that use wastewater in municipal activities, sustainable agriculture, energy production and industrial development. The benefits far outweigh the costs of better wastewater management. The positive impacts on water quality and supply by increasing wastewater recycling and safe reuse will drive progress in public health, environmental sustainability and economic development by providing new business opportunities and creating more ‘green’ jobs.

Q. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

  1. Wastewater recycling is a highly expensive process compared to its safe discharge.
  2. Wastewater management is becoming an ever-challenging issue in the field of environmental sustainability.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 14
  • Assumption 1 is invalid. The line, ―The benefits far outweigh the costs of better wastewater management” only shows that the benefits are more than the cost. However, the assumption is that recycling is highly expensive compared to its safe discharge. We do not have any information about the process of safe discharge. Therefore, this answer option is incorrect.
  • Assumption 2 is invalid. The second assumption is not directly addressed in the passage. The passage discusses the potential of wastewater as a resource if it's properly managed and recycled, contributing to environmental sustainability. However, it does not mean that wastewater is becoming an ever-challenging issue in the field of environmental sustainability. Therefore, neither of these assumptions is valid.
UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 15

Study the two graphs A and B given below carefully and answer the question that follows.
The given bar graph shows the Export and Production of Milk (in million liter) in different years from 2017 to 2022, and the line graph shows Consumption of milk (in liter) per 1000 population in different years from 2017 to 2022.

Based on the above graphs, consider the following statements.
Statement – 1: We can find out the average quantity of milk consumed during the given period.
Statement – 2: Year 2022 has the maximum percentage of exports with respect to production.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 15

Using graph ‘B’, we can find out the average quantity of milk consumed during the given period.
Required average = (390 + 410 + 400 + 450 + 500 + 525)/6 = 2675/6 = 445 liters per 1000 population.
According to graph ‘A’,
In 2017, percentage of exports with respect to production = (96 × 100)/480 = 20%
In 2018, percentage of exports with respect to production = (180 × 100)/540 = 33.33%
In 2019, percentage of exports with respect to production = (288 × 100)/720 = 40%
In 2020, percentage of exports with respect to production = (340 × 100)/700 = 48.57%
In 2021, percentage of exports with respect to production = (400 × 100)/600 = 66.6%
In 2022, percentage of exports with respect to production = (450 × 100)/660 = 68.18%
Year 2022 shows the maximum percentage of exports with respect to production.
Thus, both Statements 1 and 2 follow.
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 16

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.

Passage

World Food Day is a reminder to ‘Leave No One Behind’, and is an opportunity – perhaps the most urgent one in recent history – for nations to strengthen food security nets, provide access to essential nutrition for millions and promote livelihood for vulnerable communities.  One of India’s greatest contributions to equity in food is its national Food Security Act (NFSA) 2013 which anchors the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), the PM POSHAN scheme (earlier known as the Mid-Day Meals scheme), and the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS). Today, India’s food safety nets collectively reach over a billion people. The WFP works with State and national governments to strengthen these systems to reach the people who need them most. The Government continues to take various measures to improve these programmes with digitisation and measures such as rice fortification, better health, and sanitation.  

Food safety nets and inclusion are linked with public procurement and buffer stock policy – visible during the global food crisis (2008-12) and the COVID-19 pandemic fallout, whereby vulnerable and marginalized families in India continued to be buffered by the TPDS which became a lifeline. An International Monetary Fund paper titled ‘Pandemic, Poverty, and Inequality: Evidence from India’ asserted that ‘extreme poverty was maintained below 1% in 2020 due to the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY). India’s upcoming G20 presidency is an opportunity to bring food and nutrition security to the very centre of a resilient and equitable future.  

Nutrition and agricultural production are not only impacted by climate change but also linked to environmental sustainability. Soil degradation by the excessive use of chemicals, non-judicious water use, and declining nutritional value of food products need urgent attention.  

Millets have received renewed attention as crops that are good for nutrition, health, and the planet. As climate-smart crops, they are hardier than other cereals. Since they need fewer inputs, they are less extractive for the soil and can revive soil health. Additionally, their genetic diversity ensures that agrobiodiversity is preserved.  

Q. Which of the following is the most important message of the above passage? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 16

(d) ‘Leave No One Behind' by strengthening food security nets, providing access to nutrition and promote livelihood is the important of the passage.  

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 17

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.

Passage

World Food Day is a reminder to ‘Leave No One Behind’, and is an opportunity – perhaps the most urgent one in recent history – for nations to strengthen food security nets, provide access to essential nutrition for millions and promote livelihood for vulnerable communities.  One of India’s greatest contributions to equity in food is its national Food Security Act (NFSA) 2013 which anchors the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), the PM POSHAN scheme (earlier known as the Mid-Day Meals scheme), and the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS). Today, India’s food safety nets collectively reach over a billion people. The WFP works with State and national governments to strengthen these systems to reach the people who need them most. The Government continues to take various measures to improve these programmes with digitisation and measures such as rice fortification, better health, and sanitation.  

Food safety nets and inclusion are linked with public procurement and buffer stock policy – visible during the global food crisis (2008-12) and the COVID-19 pandemic fallout, whereby vulnerable and marginalized families in India continued to be buffered by the TPDS which became a lifeline. An International Monetary Fund paper titled ‘Pandemic, Poverty, and Inequality: Evidence from India’ asserted that ‘extreme poverty was maintained below 1% in 2020 due to the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY). India’s upcoming G20 presidency is an opportunity to bring food and nutrition security to the very centre of a resilient and equitable future.  

Nutrition and agricultural production are not only impacted by climate change but also linked to environmental sustainability. Soil degradation by the excessive use of chemicals, non-judicious water use, and declining nutritional value of food products need urgent attention.  

Millets have received renewed attention as crops that are good for nutrition, health, and the planet. As climate-smart crops, they are hardier than other cereals. Since they need fewer inputs, they are less extractive for the soil and can revive soil health. Additionally, their genetic diversity ensures that agrobiodiversity is preserved.  

Q. From the above passage following assumptions have been made:  

I. Millet conservation and promotion aligns with sustainable Development goals.  

II. Millet will soon become the staple diet in India.  

Which of the above assumption is/are valid?  

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 17

(a) Passage does not talk anything about staple food. However it talks about Millet as a climate smart crops and hence option I can be inferred as a valid assumption. 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 18

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.

Passage

World Food Day is a reminder to ‘Leave No One Behind’, and is an opportunity – perhaps the most urgent one in recent history – for nations to strengthen food security nets, provide access to essential nutrition for millions and promote livelihood for vulnerable communities.  One of India’s greatest contributions to equity in food is its national Food Security Act (NFSA) 2013 which anchors the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), the PM POSHAN scheme (earlier known as the Mid-Day Meals scheme), and the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS). Today, India’s food safety nets collectively reach over a billion people. The WFP works with State and national governments to strengthen these systems to reach the people who need them most. The Government continues to take various measures to improve these programmes with digitisation and measures such as rice fortification, better health, and sanitation.  

Food safety nets and inclusion are linked with public procurement and buffer stock policy – visible during the global food crisis (2008-12) and the COVID-19 pandemic fallout, whereby vulnerable and marginalized families in India continued to be buffered by the TPDS which became a lifeline. An International Monetary Fund paper titled ‘Pandemic, Poverty, and Inequality: Evidence from India’ asserted that ‘extreme poverty was maintained below 1% in 2020 due to the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY). India’s upcoming G20 presidency is an opportunity to bring food and nutrition security to the very centre of a resilient and equitable future.  

Nutrition and agricultural production are not only impacted by climate change but also linked to environmental sustainability. Soil degradation by the excessive use of chemicals, non-judicious water use, and declining nutritional value of food products need urgent attention.  

Millets have received renewed attention as crops that are good for nutrition, health, and the planet. As climate-smart crops, they are hardier than other cereals. Since they need fewer inputs, they are less extractive for the soil and can revive soil health. Additionally, their genetic diversity ensures that agrobiodiversity is preserved.  

Q. Which of the following is the biggest food security contributor in India? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 18

(d) The passage clearly stakes one India’s greatest contributors to equity in food is National Food Security Act (NFSA) 2013.  

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 19

The average salary of the entire staff in a school is ₹ 200 per day. The average salary of teaching staff is ₹ 550 and that of non-teaching staff is ₹ 120. If the number of teaching staff is 16, then find the number of non-teaching in the office. 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 19

Let the number of non-teaching staffs be y.
Then number of entire staff = 16 + y
Sum of total salary = 200(16 + y)
= 16 x 550 + 120y
⇒ 120y + 550 x 16 = 200x16 + 200y
⇒ 3y + 220 = 80 + 5y
⇒ 2y = 140
∴ y = 140/2 = 70

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 20

The tank-full of water in an apartment lasts for 10 days. If the people start using 25% more every day, how many days will the tank-full of water last? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 20

Let the people uses 100 litres of water every day  water uses in 10 days = 10 × 100 ⇒ 1000  
If people start using 25% more every day, then water used in one day = 100 + 25 ⇒ 125  
Now, number of days = 1000/125 ⇒ 8 days 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 21

Direction: Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.

Passage

The boom of India’s service sector as well as the success of the educated Indian diaspora was made possible thanks to the proficiency of Indians in English. The link language of the world is English. India’s beauty and stability lie in its plurality and unity in diversity. Any attempt to destroy this via the imposition of one language will threaten India’s unity. You can either have unity or uniformity; you cannot have both. The Union government must understand that the Indian Union is an agglomeration of ethno-linguistic nationalities that have their own languages and cultures and let them live in peace.  

Q. What is the most rational and logical conclusion of the above passage? 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 21

The relevant answer from the passage is option (c).  

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 22

Direction: Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.

Passage

Activists of the Right to Food Campaign have accused the Centre here on Friday of diverting the issue of hunger away from the real situation on the ground and the food and nutritional insecurity in the country. Countering the Centre’s stand on the Global Hunger Index that it overlooked Central schemes and that the sample size of the survey was too small, the activists argued that the survey was validated by the national data on unemployment and stagnant wages.  

Q. What are the contentions of the activists of Right to Food campaign according to the above passage?  
I. Centre instead of countering Global Hunger Index should address the reasons for the poor showing.  
II. The said survey had been validated using national data.  
III. The sample size of the survey was too small and central schemes were overlooked.  
IV. Activists of the right to food campaign are anti government.  
Select the right answer using the following codes.  

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 22

(d) Statements I and II are valid.  

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 23

Direction: Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.

Passage

Kamalpreet Kaur, the 26 year-old Indian discus thrower, was banned for three years with effect from March 29 after she tested positive for a prohibited substance earlier this year. With Kaur, 62 Indian athletes have been caught doping or in possession of banned substances, according to the Athletics Integrity Unity (AIU) of World Athletics. Only Russia has recorded more doping violations than India with 87 athletes receiving punishment.  

Q. The following assumptions have been made from the above passage:  
I. The integrity of the Athletics Integrity Unity (AIU) of world Athletics is questionable.  
II. Most of the Indian Athletics desire to win by questionable means.  
Which of the above assumptions are/is valid:  

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 23

Option (d) is the correct option as both assumptions are invalid.  

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 24

Direction: Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.

Passage

Credai Chennai has welcomed the decision to expand the Chennai Metropolitan Planning Area and demanded speedy implementation of development projects. According to a press release from Credai Chennai, the population of the city is currently estimated at 1.2 crore, and by 2050, it is projected to touch 1.8 crore. “The speedy rollout of the new master plan, detailed development plans and implementation of the same is of utmost importance. A replay of the OMR situation should be avoided at all cost. Even today, OMR residents lack access to drinking water and sewage systems. This kind of slow infrastructure development is unacceptable,” the release said.  

Q. Based on the above passage the followings assumptions have been made:  
I. Once the New Master Plan is rolled out OMR issues will be resolved.  
II. The speedy rollout of the New Master Plan is of utmost importance.  
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 24

(d) Statement I is not valid while statement II is only partially valid.  

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 25

In a certain code, ‘ZOOM’ is written as ‘FEEL’ and ‘BEAD’ is written as ‘ROCK’. How would ‘ZEOD’ be coded in that code language?  

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 25

Z - F       B -  R          ZEOD => FOEK 
O - E      E  - O 
O - E      A  - C 
M - L      D  - K 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 26

Direction: Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.

Passage 1
The National Livestock Policy (NLP) of 2013, aimed at increasing livestock production and productivity in a sustainable manner, rightly states that around 70% of the labour for the livestock sector comes from women. One of the goals of this policy was the empowerment of women. The National Livestock Mission (NLM) of 2014-15 was initiated for the development of the livestock sector with a focus on the availability of feed and fodder, providing extension services, and improved flow of credit to livestock farmers. However, the NLM doesnot propose any shames or programmes specific to women livestock farmers. The policy proposes that the State government allocates 30% of funds from centrally-sponsored schemes for women. There is no logic for the 30% quota. 

Q. What is the most logical and rational conclusion from the above passage?  

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 26

Option (a) encompasses option (c) and (d). Option (b) is irrelevant.  

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 27

Direction: Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.

Passage

To allay fears and anxieties in patients and families, alongside treatment of any illness, is not something new in the medical profession. A 16th century aphorism describes the duty of every physician: “To cure sometimes, to relieve often, to comfort always.” This age-old concept of a holistic approach is of immense importance but has been forgotten over the years. This missing link – the palliative approach – is now fortunately getting its due importance and being reintroduced into our medical curriculum and practice across the country.  

Q. What is the crux of the above passage?  

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 27

(b) Palliative care and its reintroduction is the main focus of the passage.  

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 28

Direction: Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.  

Passage
I rarely experience as much undiluted joy as at the euphoric moment when I strike a terrific bargain. Only seasoned campaigners will understand this. Non-bargainers will ask irritating questions such as how much money did you save after all the wrangling, but that is beside the point. Those who have cut their teeth on Mumbai’s Linking Road or in the legendary Chor Bazaar or their matches in other cities will vouch that winning an intense mind game of negotiation feels like a million dollars even if it is only a matter of a few rupees.

Q. According to the above passage what is the most important reason why people bargain?  

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 28

(b) The passage states winning an intense mind game of negotiation feels good.  

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 29

Directions: Study the following information and answer these questions.

Three girls Sonia, Radhika & Poonam and three boys Rakesh, Arun & Praveen are sitting in a circular table facing the center. Radhika is sitting to the left of Praveen. Sonia and Poonam are sitting together. Similarly, Arun and Radhika are sitting together. There are two persons between Rakesh and Arun. Sonia and Arun are not together.

Q. In the question given below, three out of four options are somehow similar and therefore form a group. Find the option which is odd one out which does not form a group. 

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 29


Option (b). Except Radhika and Rakesh, all other group members pair are opposite to each other. 

UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 30

These questions are based on the information given below.
Six girls are sitting in a circle. Sonia is sitting opposite to Radhika. Poonam is sitting at right of Radhika but left of Deepti. Monika is sitting at left of Radhika. Kamini is sitting at right of Sonia and left of Monika. Now, Deepti and Kamini, Monika and Radhika mutually exchange their positions.
Who will be sitting at left of Deepti?

Detailed Solution for UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Test - 4 - Question 30

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