UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 13 - UPSC MCQ

• Statement 1 is correct: Fragile X syndrome (FXS), also known as MartinBell syndrome in the past, is a nonMendelian trinucleotide repeat disorder. FXS is the most prevalent inherited cause of mild-to-severe intellectual disability and the most common monogenic cause of autism spectrum disorder. It accounts for about one-half of cases of X-linked intellectual disability and is the most common cause of mental impairment after trisomy 21. Physical features include a long, narrow face with a prominent jaw and forehead, hyperflexible fingers, and large ears.
• Statement 2 is correct: Molecular genetic tests, rather than cytogenetics, are now used to diagnose FXS. The number of cytosineguanine-guanine (CGG) repeats is measurable using polymerase chain reaction (PCR); methylation status is detected by Southern blot analysis. There is no cure for the disease, but early diagnosis and intervention can improve patients' and families' prognosis and quality of life and aid them in their future reproductive decisions.
• Statement 3 is correct: FXS is an Xlinked dominant condition with variable expressivity and reduced penetrance.
  One reason is the differing number of CGG repeats in the FMR1 gene in affected individuals. Those without the disorder have 5 to 44 CGG repeats. However, individuals with abnormal alleles are classified according to their expanded number of CGG repetitions. Individuals with intermediate expansion have 45 to 54 CGG repeats, individuals with premutation expansion have 55 to 200 repeats, and those with a full mutation have >200 repeats.

Statement 3 is incorrect.

• India has taken some steps to promote the internationalisation of the rupee (e.g., enable external commercial borrowings in rupees), with a push to Indian banks to open Rupee Vostro accounts for banks from Russia, the UAE, Sri Lanka and Mauritius and measures to trade with ~18 countries in rupees instituted.
• For a currency to be considered a reserve currency, the rupee needs to be fully convertible, readily usable, and available in sufficient quantities. India does not permit full capital account convertibility (i.e., allowing free movement of local financial investment assets into foreign assets and vice-versa), with significant constraints on the exchange of its currency with others — driven by past fears of capital flight (i.e., outflow of capital from India due to monetary policies/lack of growth) and exchange rate volatility, given significant current and capital account deficits.

The joint statement — ‘Horizon 2047: 25th Anniversary of the India-France Strategic Partnership, Towards A Century of India-France Relations’ — lays out a roadmap for the bilateral relationship till 2047.

• Guillain-Barré Syndrome is a rare neurological disorder where the body’s immune system — which normally protects it from infections and other foreign bodies — mistakenly attacks its own peripheral nerve cells.
• A person with this syndrome will have difficulty speaking, walking, swallowing, excreting or performing other normal functions of the body. The condition can get progressively worse. Thus, the peripheral nerves — the nerves that branch out from the brain and the spinal cord — get damaged as a result, and the muscles can become weak or paralyzed.
• The exact reasons for Guillain-Barré Syndrome are not yet understood. However, it often develops shortly after a person gets an infectious disease. Rarely, vaccinations can cause it. Guillain-Barré Syndrome, or GBS, also was linked to the cytomegalovirus, Epstein Barr virus, Zika virus and even the COVID-19 pandemic.

Statements:

1. Minimum Support Price (MSP):

   • The MSP is a price guarantee provided by the government to ensure farmers receive a minimum price for their produce. This is a form of direct support rather than an indirect subsidy.

2. Subsidy on fertilizers and seeds:

   • Subsidies on fertilizers and seeds are financial aids provided by the government to reduce the cost of inputs for farmers. This is a direct subsidy.

3. Farm loan waivers:

   • Farm loan waivers are the government's way of providing relief to farmers by forgiving their loans. This is considered a direct subsidy.

Analysis:

None of the listed items (MSP, subsidy on fertilizers and seeds, farm loan waivers) are indirect subsidies; they are all forms of direct subsidies provided to farmers.

Hence, the correct answer is: None

Only Statement 1 is correct.

• Lothal was one of the southernmost sites of the Indus Valley civilization, located in the Bhāl region of what is now the state of Gujarat. The port city is believed to have been built in 2,200 BC.
• Lothal was nominated in April 2014 as a UNESCO World Heritage Site, and its application is pending on the tentative list of UNESCO. As per the nomination dossier submitted to UNESCO, “The excavated site of Lothal is the only port-town of the Indus Valley Civilisation. A metropolis with an upper and a lower town had in on its northern side a basin with vertical wall, inlet and outlet channels which has been identified as a tidal dockyard.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Electoral Bonds can be encashed by an eligible Political Party only through a Bank account with the Authorized Bank, not necessarily a nationalized bank.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Electoral Bonds shall be valid for fi fteen days from the date of issue, not fi fteen months.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: If the Electoral Bond is deposited after the expiry of the validity period, no payment shall be made to any payee Political Party. The bond becomes invalid after the validity period.
• Statement 4 is correct: The Electoral Bond deposited by an eligible Political Party in its account shall be credited on the same day.
• Electoral bonds have been proposed as an alternative to cash donations given to political parties, aiming to enhance transparency in political funding.
• SBI is the sole authorized bank to issue electoral bonds.
• A list of authorized SBI branches, comprising Bengaluru, Lucknow, Shimla, Dehradun, Kolkata, Guwahati, Chennai, Patna, New Delhi, Chandigarh, Srinagar, Gandhinagar, Bhopal, Raipur, and Mumbai, have been designated to handle electoral bond transactions.

• Statement 1 is correct: The Henley Passport Index is the ranking of all the world’s passports according to the number of destinations their holders can access without a prior visa. The index includes 199 different passports and 227 different travel destinations. The Index is brought out by Henley and Partners.
• Statement 2 is correct: India has climbed seven places on Henley Passport Index 2023 to 80th rank from 87 last year though the number of countries allowed visa-free access to Indian passport holders remain unchanged. In 2014, India ranked 76 with 52 countries allowing Indian passport holders visa free access but its performance has not been linear. It ranked 88 in 2015 (visa free access to 51 countries), 85 in 2016, 87 in 2017, 81 in 2018, 82 in 2019 and 2020, and 81 in 2021.
• Statement 3 is correct: Japan, which occupied the top position on the Henley Passport Index for five years, dropped to the third place. It was replaced by Singapore, which is now officially the most powerful passport in the world, with its citizens able to visit 192 travel destinations out of 227 around the world visa-free. Germany, Italy, and Spain occupy the second place. Alongside Japan at the third position are Austria, Finland, France, Luxembourg, South Korea, and Sweden
  

• Context: The Ministry of Defence has denotified civil areas of 10 cantonments, including ones in Uttarakhand, UP, Maharashtra, Jharkhand, and Rajasthan. The process involves merging these areas with state municipalities. Himachal Pradesh, with seven cantonments, is also undergoing this process, with Khas Yol already denotified.
• S1: Cantonments are civilian areas that are under the control of the military, and they usually have a civilian population living in them as well. Military stations, on the other hand, are purely military areas where only military personnel and their families reside.
• S2: Cantonment administration falls under the purview of the Union Government (Ministry of Defence), as outlined in the Cantonments Act, 2006, following the guidelines set by the 74th Constitutional Amendment. While the Union Government holds administrative authority, State Governments have the prerogative to implement schemes within Cantonment areas.

• The Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) is related to additional liquidity protection for member nations of the New Development Bank (NDB).
• The New Development Bank is also known as the BRICS Bank, was established by the BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa) countries to finance infrastructure and sustainable development projects in emerging economies.
• The CRA is one of the mechanisms created by the NDB to provide financial support to its member countries in case of balance of payments problems or other financial crises. The CRA is being funded 41 per cent by China, 18 per cent each from Brazil, India, and Russia, and 5 per cent from South Africa.
• CRA is ‘a framework for the provision of currency swaps in response to actual or potential short-term balance of payments pressures.’

• In the late 1940s, Gandhiji decided to initiate a limited satyagraha on an individual basis. The aims were:
  • To show that nationalist patience was not due to weakness;
  • to express that Indians made no distinction between Nazism and autocracy that ruled India; and
  • to give another opportunity to the government to accept Congress’s Demands peacefully.
• The carefully chosen Satyagrahis — Vinoba Bhave was to be the first Satyagrahi on 17 October 1940 and Jawaharlal Nehru the second — were surrounded by huge crowds when they appeared on the platform, and the authorities could often arrest them only after they had made their speeches. And if the Government did not arrest a Satyagrahi, he or she would not only repeat the performance but move into the villages and start a trek towards Delhi, thus participating in a movement that came to be known as the ‘Delhi Chalo’ (onwards to Delhi) movement.
• Third Satyagrahi was Brahma Datt, one of the inmates of the Gandhi’s Ashram.

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

• Pair 1 is correct: Abdul Razzaq was a Persian chronicler who visited the Vijayanagara Kingdom during the reign of Deva Raya II. His writings provide valuable historical insights into the Vijayanagara Empire and the Deccan region during that time. He came to the court of King Zamorin of Calicut as an ambassador of Shah Rukh.
• Pair 2 is incorrect: Domingo Paes was a foreign traveller who visited the Vijayanagara Empire in South India during the early 16th century. He is well-known for his detailed observations of the Vijayanagara city, its society, and the reign of King Krishnadevaraya of the Tuluva dynasty under the Vijayanagara Empire.
• Pair 3 is correct: Marco Polo was an Italian merchant. He has chronicled his travels in the book ‘ The travels of Marco Polo’. He visited the Kakatiya kingdom in India during the reign of Queen Rudramadevi. He also wrote other manuscripts such as Travels in the Land of Serpents and Pearls, The customs of the Kingdom of India etc.

Statement 2 is incorrect: It represents the income available to individuals for consumption or saving after taxes.
Supplementary Notes:
Disposable Income

• Disposable income is derived by subtracting personal income tax payments from personal income. It represents the income available to individuals for consumption or saving after taxes.
• For example, if a person’s personal income is $65,000 and they pay $10,000 in taxes, their disposable income would be $55,000.
  

Let's analyze the given statements about cryopreservation and tissue culture:

1. The gametes of threatened species can be preserved in viable and fertile condition for long periods using cryopreservation techniques.
   - Cryopreservation is a well-established method used to preserve gametes (sperm and eggs) and other biological tissues at extremely low temperatures. This technique ensures that the gametes remain viable and fertile for long periods. Therefore, this statement is correct.

2. The plants can be propagated using tissue culture methods.
   - Tissue culture is a method used to propagate plants in a controlled environment by growing plant cells, tissues, or organs on nutrient culture media under sterile conditions. This technique is widely used for cloning and preserving plant species. Therefore, this statement is also correct.

Since both statements are correct, the incorrect option is:

4. Neither 1 nor 2

• The Buddha (and other teachers) taught orally – through discussion and debate. Men and women (perhaps children as well) attended these discourses and discussed what they heard.
• None of the Buddha’s speeches were written down during his lifetime. After his death (c. fifth-fourth century BCE), his teachings were compiled by his disciples at a council of the “elders” or the senior monks at Vesali (Pali for Vaishali in present-day Bihar). These compilations were known as Tipitaka – literally, three baskets to hold different types of texts. They were first transmitted orally, and then written and classified according to the length, as well as the subject matter.
• The orthodox Buddhist scripture is referred to as the Tripitaka (or Tipitaka in Pali), also known as the Pali Canon due to its composition in the Pali language. This ancient Indian language closely resembles the language spoken by the Buddha himself.
• The Vinaya Pitaka included rules and regulations for those who joined the Sangha or the monastic order. The Buddha’s teachings were included in the Sutta Pitaka, and the Abhidhamma Pitaka dealt with the philosophical matters.
• The First Buddhist Council was conducted under the patronage of king Ajatasatru of the Haryanka dynasty. The Council was established in order to arrive at a consensus on how the teachings of the Buddha could be spread further. It was held in 483 BC, just after Buddha’s demise. It was held at the Sattapani caves (Sattaparnaguha) in Rajagriha. The monk who presided over the First Council was Mahakassapa. At this Council, Ananda composed the Sutta Pitaka (Buddha’s Teachings) and Mahakassapa composed the Vinay Pitaka (The Monastic Code).

• Statement 1 is correct: The "Tolkappiyam" is one of the most important classical Tamil texts, and it primarily deals with the subjects of grammar and poetics. It is considered the earliest extant work on Tamil grammar and is an essential text for the study of the Tamil language and literature.
• Statements 2 and 3 are correct:The Classical Sangam corpus consists of Tholkappiyam, the eight anthologies (Ettuththokai), and Paththuppattu. According to Nadarajah Devapoopathy, the earliest layer of the Tolkappiyam was composed between the 2nd and 1st centuries BCE, and the extant manuscript versions were fixed by about the 5th century CE.
• Statement 4 is correct: Tholkappiyam, attributed to Tholkappiyar, is the earliest extant Tamil grammatical text dealing not only with poetry but also the society and culture of the times The other epic, Manimekalai, was written by a grain merchant from Madurai. It deals with the adventures of the daughter born of the union of Kovalan and Madhavi. However, this epic is of greater religious than literary interest.

UNESCO MAB program

• Launched in 1971, UNESCO’s Man and the Biosphere Programme (MAB) is an Intergovernmental Scientific Programme that aims to establish a scientific basis for the improvement of relationships between people and their environments.
• MAB combines the natural and social sciences, economics and education to improve human livelihoods and the equitable sharing of benefits, and to safeguard natural and managed ecosystems, thus promoting innovative approaches to economic development that are socially and culturally appropriate, and environmentally sustainable.
• MAB is funded through the regular budget of UNESCO and mobilizes fundsin-trust granted by Member States, bilateral and multilateral sources, and extra-budgetary funds provided by countries, the private sector and private institutions.
• MAB-related activities are nationally financed. The Programme can grant seed funding to assist countries in developing projects and/or to secure appropriate partnership contributions.
• The World Network of Biosphere Reserves currently counts 701 sites in 124 countries all over the world, including 21 transboundary sites.
• The first biosphere reserve of the world was established in 1979.

• The Madhuban Copper Plate Inscription: It is a valuable historical artefact that provides a glimpse into the social, cultural, and political conditions of ancient India during the Harsha dynasty. The inscription is a copper plate grant that was issued by King Harsha in the 7th century CE, and it contains information about land grants and tax exemptions given to a group of Brahmins.
• Banskhera inscription: Banskhera is situated in the Shahjahanpur district of Uttar Pradesh. An inscription dated 22 Harsha Samvata i.e., A.D 628, was found in 1894 here. The inscription says that Harsha had granted Market Sagar village to two Brahmins, Balachandra and Bhatta Swami. This also speaks of the victory of Rajyavardhana over Malwa King Devgupta and the murder of Devgupta by the king of Gaud named Sasanka Sonpat inscription on a copper seal: Two seals of Harsha have been found in Nalanda and Sonepath. One is of clay, while the other is of copper. The seal of Sonepath consists of the full name of Harsha. Some seals are found in Bhitora village; they are made of silver and contain the name Shri Shaldutta.

• Alfonso de Albuquerque, who succeeded Almeida as the Portuguese governor in India, was the real founder of Portuguese power in the East, a task he completed before his death.
• He secured for Portugal the strategic control of the Indian Ocean by establishing bases overlooking all the entrances to the sea.
• There were Portuguese strongholds in East Africa, off the Red Sea, at Hormuz; in Malabar; and at Malacca. They had strongholds over the entire Asian coast from Hormuz in the Persian Gulf to Malacca in the Malaya.
• The Portuguese, under Albuquerque, bolstered their stranglehold by introducing a permit system for other ships and exercising control over the major ship-building centers in the region.
• The nonavailability of timber in the Gulf and Red Sea regions for ship-building also helped the Portuguese in their objectives.
• Albuquerque acquired Goa from the Sultan of Bijapur in 1510 with ease; the principal port of the Sultan of Bijapur became “the first bit of Indian territory to be under the Europeans since the time of Alexander the Great”. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
• In the words of James Mill, the famous British historian of the 19th century: “The Portuguese followed their merchandise as their chief occupation, but like the English and the Dutch of the same period, had no objection to plunder when it fell in their way.”
• The Portuguese were intolerant and fanatical in religious matters. Their approach in this respect was particularly hateful to the people of India where religious tolerance was the rule.
• They also indulged in inhuman cruelties and lawlessness. In spite of their barbaric behavior their possessions in India survived for a century because they enjoyed control over the high seas, their soldiers and administrators maintained strict discipline.

• March,1940: Pakistan Resolution was passed by Muslim League. The All India Muslim League met in Lahore in March 1940 and adopted a resolution that came to be known as the Lahore Resolution or Pakistan Resolution. Its the first hand demand was partition of the country and creation of Muslim nation named Pakistan. The Muslim League demanded that the areas in which the Muslims are numerically in a majority as in the North-Western and Eastern Zones of India should be grouped to constitute Independent autonomous States.
• August,1940: August offer promising Dominion Status. On 8 August 1940, early in the Battle of Britain, the Viceroy of India, Lord Linlithgow, made the so-called "August Offer" at Simla, a fresh proposal promising the expansion of the Executive Council to include more Indians, the establishment of an advisory war council, giving weight to minority opinion, and the recognition of Indians' right to frame their own constitution (after the end of the war). In return, it was hoped that all parties and communities in India would cooperate in Britain's war effort.
• October, 1940: Individual Satyagraha movement was launched to affirm the rights to speech. Individual Satyagraha was the result of August offer. It was started with the mass Civil Disobedience Movement by M.K Gandhi on Individual Satyagraha. This was movement for not only to seek independence but also to affirm the right of Speech. The demand of the Satyagrahi was using freedom of Speech against the war through an anti-war declaration. If government did not arrest the Satyagrahi, he or she will move repeating it in villages and start march towards Delhi (“Delhi Chalo Movement”).

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

• Statement 1 is correct: India is the world’s second-largest producer of crude steel, with an output of 125.32 MT of crude steel and finished steel production of 121.29 MT in FY23. India’s steel production is estimated to grow 4-7% to 123-127 MT in FY24. The growth in the Indian steel sector has been driven by the domestic availability of raw materials such as iron ore and cost-effective labour. Consequently, the steel sector has been a major contributor to India's manufacturing output.
• Statement 2 is correct: The easy availability of low-cost manpower and the presence of abundant iron ore reserves make India competitive in the global setup.
  India is home to the seventh-largest reserves of iron ore in the world.
  In October 2021, the government announced guidelines for the approved speciality steel production-linked incentive (PLI) scheme. Under the Union Budget 2023-24, the government allocated Rs. 70.15 crore to the Ministry of Steel.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Rajasthan is not the largest producer of steel in the country. States with the Highest Steel-Producing Capacity in India include:
  • Odisha
  • Chhattisgarh
  • Jharkhand
  • Karnataka

Purchasing Power Parity on GDP

• Gross domestic product (GDP) in purchasing power standards measures the volume of GDP of countries or regions.
• It is calculated by dividing GDP by the corresponding purchasing power parity (PPP), which is an exchange rate that removes price level differences between countries.

• Chemical change in the rocks through the formation of new compounds or the formation of new substances is called chemical weathering. Chemical processes include oxidation, hydrolysis, and acid solution. It involves four major processes: Carbonation: This is the process by which various types of carbonates are formed. Some of these carbonates are soluble in water. For example, when rainwater containing carbon dioxide passes through pervious limestone rocks, the rock joints enlarge due to the action of carbonic acid. The joints enlarge in size, and lime is removed in solution. This type of breakdown of rocks is called carbonation. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• Oxidation: This is the process in which atmospheric oxygen reacts with the rock to produce oxides. The process is called oxidation. The greatest impact of this process is observed on ferrous minerals. Oxygen present in humid air reacts with iron grains in the rocks to form a yellow or red oxide of iron. This is called rusting of the iron. Rust decomposes rocks completely with the passage of time. Hence, option 3 is correct.
• Mechanical weathering is the physical disintegration of a rock by the actual rising apart of separate particles. The most important physical weathering process in cold climates is frost action, the alternate freezing and melting of water inside the joints of the rocks, splits them into fragments. Hence, Option 2 is incorrect.
• Disintegrated and fragmented material due to the mechanism of weathering processes (mechanical, chemical, or biological) is called debris or rock-wastes. Generally, the movement of this waste material down the hill slope under the influence of gravity is called mass movement or mass wasting. Hence, Option 4 is incorrect.

Tribunals

• Tribunals in India are specialized bodies established to handle specific  types of disputes and legal matters outside the traditional court system.
• They were set up to alleviate the burden on regular courts and provide quicker and more effi cient resolution of disputes.
• Tribunals are governed by specifi c laws, each defi ning their jurisdiction, composition, powers, and functions.

Types of Tribunals in India:

• Administrative Tribunals: These tribunals deal with disputes related to recruitment, service conditions, and other administrative matters concerning public servants and employees of the central and state governments.
• Income Tax Appellate Tribunals (ITAT): ITAT handles appeals against income tax assessments and decisions made by the Income Tax Department.
• National Green Tribunal (NGT): The NGT deals with environmental issues and violations concerning air and water pollution, environmental clearances, and conservation of natural resources.
• Competition Appellate Tribunal (COMPAT): COMPAT hears appeals against decisions of the Competition Commission of India (CCI) related to anticompetitive practices and unfair trade practices. Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT): The AFT handles disputes and matters related to the armed forces personnel, including grievances, promotions, and disciplinary actions. Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT): SAT hears appeals against orders passed by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in matters related to securities markets and investors’ protection.

Composition of Tribunals:

• Tribunals are typically headed by a chairperson, who is usually a retired judge of the Supreme Court or a High Court.
• The members of the tribunal could include judicial members and technical experts, depending on the nature of disputes they handle.
• For example, administrative tribunals may have members with expertise in administrative law, while environmental tribunals may include members with expertise in environmental science or conservation.

Power and Functions of Tribunals:

• Quasi-judicial Powers: Tribunals have quasi-judicial powers, meaning they can conduct hearings, summon witnesses, and examine evidence to arrive at a decision on disputes before them.
• Adjudication: They adjudicate matters related to their respective domains and provide legally binding decisions on the disputes presented. Speedy Disposal: One of the primary purposes of creating tribunals is to ensure faster resolution of disputes than the regular court system, which can often be time-consuming.
• Expertise: Tribunals bring in subject matter experts who possess specialized knowledge relevant to the issues at hand, ensuring informed decision-making. Appeal Mechanism: In some cases, the decisions of the tribunals can be appealed in higher courts, depending on the laws governing specifi c tribunals.
• Autonomy: Tribunals are designed to function independently of the executive branch, providing a level of autonomy in their operations.

Rule of Law

• The rule of law in India is a fundamental principle that governs the country’s legal system and ensures that all individuals, including the government, are subject to the law and are treated equally under it. The concept of the rule of law is enshrined in the Indian Constitution and is essential for the functioning of a democratic society.

Key aspects of the rule of law in India include:

• Supremacy of the Constitution: The Constitution of India is the supreme law of the land and provides the framework for the governance of the country. All laws and governmental actions must be in conformity with the provisions of the Constitution.
• Equality before the law: The rule of law guarantees that all individuals are equal before the law and are entitled to equal protection and treatment. Discrimination on the basis of religion, caste, gender, or any other grounds is prohibited.
• Independence of the judiciary: India has a separate and independent judiciary that plays a crucial role in upholding the rule of law. The judiciary is responsible for interpreting laws, resolving disputes, and ensuring that constitutional rights are upheld. It acts as a check on the other branches of government.
• Fair and impartial legal system: The rule of law requires a fair and impartial legal system that treats all individuals equally and provides them with a fair opportunity to present their case. It includes access to legal representation, fair trial procedures, and timely justice.
• Legal accountability: The rule of law holds all individuals, including public offi cials and government authorities, accountable for their actions. No one is above the law, and everyone is subject to legal consequences if they violate the law.
• Protection of fundamental rights: The rule of law protects fundamental rights and freedoms guaranteed by the Constitution, such as the right to life, liberty, and equality. It ensures that these rights are not arbitrarily violated by the government or any other entity.

The shore temple at Mahabalipuram was built in the reign of Narasimhavarman II, also known as Rajasimha, who reigned from 700 CE to 728 CE. Now it is oriented to the east, facing the ocean, but if you study it closely, you will find that it actually houses three shrines, two to Shiva, one facing east and the other west, and a middle one to Vishnu. This is unusual, because the temples generally have a single main shrine and not three areas of worship.

Fundamental rights in India

• Fundamental rights in India are of paramount importance as they protect individual liberties, promote social justice, ensure equality, prevent abuse of power, foster democracy, and uphold human rights standards. They form the cornerstone of a just and inclusive society and are integral to the democratic fabric of India.
• Social justice: Fundamental rights play a crucial role in promoting social justice by prohibiting discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. They aim to eliminate historical inequalities and promote a more inclusive society.
• Right to equality: Fundamental rights ensure the right to equality by prohibiting discrimination and promoting equal opportunity. They seek to eliminate social and economic disparities and provide equal protection of the law to all citizens.
• Protection against abuse of power: Fundamental rights act as a check on the abuse of power by the government and its agencies. They provide safeguards against arbitrary actions, ensure due process of law, and protect citizens from any violation of their rights.
• Promotion of democracy: Fundamental rights are essential for the functioning of a democratic society. They empower citizens to participate in the political process, express their opinions, and hold the government accountable. These rights encourage a vibrant civil society and help in the overall development of democracy.
• Human rights standards: Fundamental rights in India align with international human rights standards and commitments. They refl ect the principles of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and other international conventions, reaffi rming India’s commitment to upholding human rights.

The terms vanikan, chattan, and nigama that appear in Tamil-Brahmi inscriptions during the Sangam Age refer to Trade activities. Salt merchants, called umanar, travelled in bullock carts along with their families for trade activities. Chattu referred to the itinerary or mobile merchants. These inscriptions often mention various social and economic aspects of that period, and these terms are associated with trade and commerce, indicating the importance of merchants in Sangam society.

Scheduled Tribes Advisory Council

• In states with scheduled areas, the establishment of a Tribes Advisory
• Council is mandatory to provide guidance on the welfare and progress of the scheduled tribes.
• This council will comprise 20 members, with three- fourths of the seats reserved for representatives of the scheduled tribes in the state legislative assembly.
• Additionally, in states with scheduled tribes but no scheduled areas, the President may direct the formation of a similar council.
• There shall be established in each State having Scheduled Areas therein and, if the President so directs, also in any State having Scheduled Tribes but not Scheduled Areas therein, a Tribes Advisory Council consisting of not more than twenty members of whom, as nearly as may be, three-fourths shall be the representatives of the Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assembly of the State:
• It shall be the duty of the Tribes Advisory Council to advice on such matters pertaining to the welfare and advancement of the Scheduled Tribes in the State as may be referred to them by the Governor.
• Tribes Advisory Councils (TAC) has been constituted in Scheduled Area States of Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Jharkhand, Himachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan and Telangana.
• Though Tamil Nadu, Uttarakhand and West Bengal do not have any scheduled area, they have also constituted TAC.

• Statement 1 is correct: The 1951 Convention provides the internationally recognized definition of a refugee and outlines the legal protection, rights and assistance a refugee is entitled to receive. The core principle of the 1951 Convention is non-refoulement, which asserts that a refugee should not be returned to a country where they face serious threats to their life or freedom. The document outlines the basic minimum standards for the treatment of refugees, including the right to housing, work and education while displaced so they can lead a dignified and independent life. It also defines a refugee’s obligations to host countries and specifies certain categories of people, such as war criminals, who do not qualify for refugee status.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: India is not a party to the 1951 Refugee Convention or its 1967 Protocol and does not have a national refugee protection framework. However, it continues to grant asylum to a large number of refugees from neighbouring States and respects UNHCR’s mandate for other nationals, mainly from Afghanistan and Myanmar. While the Government of India deals differently with various refugee groups, in general, it respects the principle of forholders of UNHCR documentation.