Haryana Civil Services Mock Test - 5 - HPSC (Haryana) MCQ

Objective Resolutions:

• India is an independent, sovereign, republic. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• India shall be a Union of erstwhile British Indian territories, Indian States, and other parts outside British India and the Indian States as are willing to be a part of the Union.
• Territories forming the Union shall be autonomous units and exercise all powers and functions of the Government and administration, except those assigned to or vested in the Union.
• All powers and authority of sovereign and independent India and its constitution shall flow from the people. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
• All people of India shall be guaranteed and secured social, economic, and political justice; equality of status and opportunities and equality before the law; and fundamental freedoms - of speech, expression, belief, faith, worship, vocation, association, and action subject to the law and public morality.
• The minorities, backward and tribal areas, depressed and other backward classes shall be provided adequate safeguards. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• The territorial integrity of the Republic and its sovereign rights on land, sea, and air shall be maintained according to justice and law of civilized nations.
• The land would make a full and willing contribution to the promotion of world peace and the welfare of mankind. 

The increase in farm fires in Haryana during April and May 2024 was primarily due to land clearing practices employed by farmers after harvesting wheat. This method, while common, has adverse effects on air quality and environmental health.

A 42% reduction in farm fires was recorded in Haryana during April and May 2023, attributed to an increase in pre-monsoon showers. This shows how weather conditions can significantly impact agricultural practices and environmental outcomes.

The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) oversees efforts to improve air quality in the Delhi-NCR region. Established to coordinate various initiatives, it plays a crucial role in managing air pollution throughout the year.

The Haryana government directed that illegally constructed fourth floors on residential plots may be demolished, emphasizing the importance of adhering to building regulations to ensure safety and urban planning integrity.

During the heatwave in 2024, Gurugram experienced a record high power demand of 482.3 lakh units. This surge illustrates how extreme weather can strain local infrastructure and lead to power outages.

The Aravalli mountain range, one of the oldest fold mountains in the world, holds geological significance and has historical importance due to its rich mineral deposits, including copper dating back to ancient times.

The elections in Haryana for 10 Lok Sabha seats and the Karnal Assembly seat witnessed a voter turnout of approximately 65%. Voter participation is vital for democracy, reflecting public engagement in the political process.

Mumbai ranked 32nd among global startup cities according to PitchBook’s 2024 report, showcasing India's growing significance in the global startup ecosystem and the increasing innovation happening within its cities.

The Parivar Pehchan Patra scheme faced backlash due to privacy concerns and large-scale discrepancies in user details, highlighting the challenges of implementing digital initiatives effectively while protecting citizen information.

The Samagra Shiksha scheme aims to deliver inclusive, equitable, and affordable school education, addressing diverse educational needs from pre-school to class XII, and ensuring that all children have access to quality education.

The report indicated that many government schools in Haryana lack proper infrastructure, with several schools having inadequate teacher availability and insufficient facilities. This situation poses significant challenges to educational effectiveness.

The increase in plastic waste has contributed to air pollution, especially when burning plastic waste occurs in poorly managed landfills, releasing harmful emissions. Proper waste management strategies are crucial to mitigating these environmental impacts.

Exceeding safe ground-level ozone limits indicates increased pollution levels, particularly from nitrogen oxides and sulfur oxides, which can have serious health impacts, including respiratory issues. Monitoring and management are essential for public health.

The Meri Fasal Mera Byora initiative was launched to assist farmers in redressing grievances related to various agricultural schemes. This portal aims to streamline communication and improve the efficiency of support services for farmers.

A heatwave in Haryana is declared when the maximum temperature reaches at least 40°C in plains or shows a departure from normal of more than 4.5°C. These criteria help authorities respond to extreme weather conditions effectively.

Swiss Military plans to invest Rs 56.5 crore to establish its first fully owned manufacturing unit in Haryana. This significant investment marks a strategic step towards enhancing their production capabilities in the region.

The manufacturing unit will be located in Faridabad, Haryana, covering an area of 1.21 acres. This choice of location is strategic for facilitating logistics and production.

The proposed plant is designed to have a production capacity of 10 lakh pieces per year, which indicates a robust output aimed at meeting increasing demand in the luggage and travel gear segment.

The targeted completion date for the manufacturing unit is December 31, 2024. This timeline reflects the company's commitment to quickly establish its presence in the Indian market.

The 'Make in India' initiative aims to transform the country into a leading global manufacturing and investment destination. Launched in 2014, it encourages both domestic and foreign investments across various sectors.

• Statement 1 is correct: DPSPs are fundamental in governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws. They are fundamental because they provide a roadmap and vision for the country.They also help courts in determining the constitutional validity of a law despite them being non-Justiciable.

• Statement 2 is correct: While fundamental rights aim to establish political democracy, Directive principles aim at establishing social and economic democracy. Thus, together they establish Socio-political democracy in the country.

- 1. Residence for Employment: Parliament can prescribe residence within a state as a condition for certain public employment to ensure local representation.

- 2. Special Benefits:This refers to a scenario where a state grants special benefits or privileges to its residents that are not available to citizens uniformly across the country.

- 3. Scheduled Tribes' Protection: The Constitution allows special measures for Scheduled Tribes to protect their interests, acknowledging their unique socio-economic status.

Thus, all three scenarios allow for permissible discrimination as per constitutional provisions.

Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect because the salaries and allowances of the judges are determined by the Parliament. Article 125(1) of the Indian Constitution states that the salaries and allowances of the Judges shall be determined by the Parliament by law and, until provision in that behalf is so made, shall be as specified in the Second Schedule.

Statement 2 is also incorrect because a Judge of the Supreme Court or High Court can be removed only on the grounds of proven misbehavior or incapacity, not merely on the ground of violation of the Constitution. This is specified under Article 124(4) for Supreme Court judges and under Article 217(1)(b) for High Court judges. The removal process requires a special majority (two-thirds majority) in both houses of Parliament.

Statement 1 is incorrect. SHREYAS – Scheme for Higher Education Youth for Apprenticeship and Skills was launched by Ministry of Human Resource Development (HRD) in collaboration with the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship and Ministry of Labour and Employment.

Statement 2 is correct. It aims to:

(a) To improve the employability of students by introducing employment relevance into the learning process of the higher education system

(b) To forge a close functional link between education and industry/service sectors on a sustainable basis

(c)To provide skills which are in demand, to the students in a dynamic manner

(d) To establish an ‘earn while you learn’ system into higher education

(e) To help business/industry in securing good quality manpower and

(f) To link student community with employment facilitating efforts of the Government.

SHREYAS portal will enable educational institutions and industry to log in and provide their respective demand and supply of apprenticeship.

The State Governments are expected to play a major role in securing apprenticeship opportunities, apart from the Sector Skill Councils, so that general degree students passing out can gain the option of industry & service sector apprenticeship.

Sector Skill Councils are set up as autonomous industry-led bodies by National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC), which are responsible for defining the skilling needs, concept, processes, certification, and accreditation of their respective industry sectors in accordance with National Skill Qualification Framework.

• Statement 1 is correct: It provides safeguards against the exploitation of Scheduled Castes and Anglo Indian communities. It aims to promote and protect their social, educational, economic and cultural interests provided in the Constitution. It also participates in the planning process of the socio-economic development of SCs and Anglo Indians.

• Statement 2 is not correct: The President specifies what castes in each state and union territory are to be treated as the SCs. But any inclusion or exclusion of any caste from presidential notification can be done by parliament only. NCSC has an advisory role only in this regard.

• Statement 3 is correct: It presents to the President, annually and at such other times as it may deem fit, reports upon safeguards of SCs and Anglo Indians. It also discharges such other functions in relation to the protection, welfare and development of SCs as the President may specify.

Central government has proposed to constitute a new backward classes commission after the term of National Commission for Other Backward Classes (NCBC) ended.

Statement 1 is correct. Parliament has passed the Constitution (123rd Amendment) Bill which grants the National Commission on Backward Classes (NCBC) constitutional status by inserting a new article 338 B in the Constitution.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Bill states that the President may specify the socially and educationally backward classes in the various states and union territories. He may do this in consultation with the Governor of the concerned state, however a law of Parliament will be required if the list of backward classes is to be amended.

The commission will have a chairperson, vice-chairperson and three other members and hear the grievances of socially and educationally backward classes, a function discharged so far by the National Commission of Scheduled Castes (NCSC).

The bill also provides NCBC with the authority to examine complaints and welfare measures regarding socially and educationally backward classes.

NCBC will also have the powers of a civil court while investigating or inquiring into any complaints.

• The Preamble of the Constitution of India reveals four components.

• It states that the constitution derives its authority from the people of India. Therefore it reveals the source of authority of the constitution.

• It declares India to be of a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, and republican polity. Therefore, it reveals the nature of the Indian State.

• It specifies justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity as the objectives of the constitution

• It stipulates November 26, 1949, as the date of adoption of the constitution.

• The preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of legislation.

• Like Fundamental Duties and Directive Principle of State Policy, Preamble is also non-justiciable, that is, its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law.

• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

It is the Prime Minister who allocates portfolios to the other Ministers. The Prime Minister may call for the resignation of any Minister at any time. In case of refusal he may advise the President to dismiss the Minister.

Statement 1 is correct. Under the principle of collective responsibility, the resignation of PM results in resignation of the whole council.

Statement 2 is incorrect. As per Article 75, all the ministers are appointed by the President and they tender their resignation to him only.

All the members of the Council of Ministers do not belong to the same rank. The Constitution does not classify ministers into different ranks but in practice 4 ranks have come to be recognized.

I. Cabinet Ministers—He has a right to be present and participate in every meeting of the Cabinet. For proclamation of an emergency under Art. 352 the advice must come from the Prime Minister and other Ministers of cabinet rank.

II. Minister of State with independent charge—He is a Minister of State who does not work under a Cabinet Minister. When any matter concerning his Department is on the agenda of the Cabinet, he is invited to attend the meeting.

III. Minister of State—He is a Minister who does not have independent charge of any Department and works under a Cabinet Minister. The work to such Minister is allotted by his Cabinet Minister.

IV. Deputy Minister—He is a Minister who works under a Cabinet Minister or a Minister of State with independent charge. The work to him is allotted by the Minister under whom he is working. The Prime Minister allocates portfolios to the Cabinet Ministers and Ministers of State with independent charge. The other Ministers are allocated work by their respective Cabinet Ministers. Ministers may be chosen from the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. A Minister who is a member of one House has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of the other House. A Minister is allowed to vote only in the House of which he is a member. A person who is not a member of either House may also be appointed as a Minister. He can continue as a Minister only for six months.

Because that is the limit fixed by Art. 75(5). If he desires to continue as Minister he has to become a member of any one of the Houses of Parliament before the expiration of the period of 6 months. A person who is not qualified to become a member of a legislature cannot be appointed a minister under Art. 75(5). In this case minister would not include Prime Minister because non-election of Prime Minister would dissolve the Council

of Ministers after expiration of the period of 6 months.