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BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Software Development MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook)

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BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 1

For suggesting reforms in the micro finance sector, which committee was constituted?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 1

The Committee for Suggesting Reforms in the Microfinance Sector:

  • Malegam Committee: was constituted to suggest reforms in the microfinance sector.
    • Malegam oversaw a 1995 review of public issue disclosure rules.
    • SEBI created guidelines based on his recommendations, advocating for firms to disclose loans to subsidizing companies.
    • Malegam led the Malegam Committee, a subcommittee of the RBI Central Board of Directors, to address challenges in the MFI Sector.
    • In January 2011, the committee submitted its report to the RBI.
    • Malegam emphasized that microfinance organizations had neglected the underprivileged.

Additional Information:

  • Chakravarty Committee:
    • The Sukhamoy Chakravarty Committee, established in December 1982, evaluated the Indian monetary system's operations.
    • Prof. Sukhamoy Chakroborty headed the committee.
  • Narasimhan Committee:
    • Narasimham, a prominent banker in India post-independence, led the Narasimham Committee on Financial System (1991) and the Narasimham Committee on Banking Sector Reforms (1998).
  • Khan Committee:
    • The HR Khan committee, established by SEBI, suggested extensive changes to the foreign portfolio investment (FPI) policy.
BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 2

Which stone age in India can be closely associated with the people of Homo sapiens group?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 2

The Stone Age in India Associated with Homo sapiens

  • The Lower Stone Age, also known as the Lower Paleolithic, is closely associated with the Homo sapiens group.
  • This age lasted until 100,000 B.C. and was primarily found in Africa and Western Europe.
  • Scholars believe that Neanderthal-like Palaeolithic men contributed to this period.
  • In India, this age can be linked to the people of the Homo sapiens group.
  • During this period, populations preferred to live near water sources as stone tools were abundant near river valleys.
  • The earliest stone tool manufacture began during this time period, known as the Oldowan tradition.
  • Tools such as hand axes, choppers, and cleavers were commonly used for chopping, excavating, and skinning prey.
  • Various tools like scrapers, hammer stones, choppers, and awls were utilized for different purposes.
  • Important archaeological sites for these tools in India include Belan Valley (Mirzapur), Didwana (Rajasthan), Narmada Valley, and Bhimbetka (near Bhopal).

Additional Information

  • Middle Stone Age:
    • Neanderthals were mostly associated with the middle Paleolithic Age and were early hunters.
    • They derived their name from the Neander Valley in Germany.
  • Upper Stone Age:
    • The Upper Paleolithic period extended from 40,000 to 8,000 BC.
    • This period saw the emergence of new flint industries and the arrival of Homo sapiens globally.
BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 3

Which of the following Mahajanapadas was situated on the banks of river Godavari?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 3
  • Asmaka was located on the banks of the Godavari River. It was one of the Mahajanapadas of ancient India, existing from the sixth to the fourth century BCE.
  • Angutara Nikaya, a Buddhist scripture, mentions 16 Mahajanapadas. These republics or kingdoms were prominent in northern and central India.
  • Asmaka or Assaka was unique among the Mahajanapadas as it was situated south of the Vindhya Range in the region known as Dakshinapatha.
  • It was specifically located on the banks of the Godavari River, in what is now Telangana and Maharashtra.
  • The capital of Asmaka was identified as Potali or Podana, which is believed to correspond to present-day Bodhan in Telangana.

Therefore, Asmaka was the Mahajanapada situated on the banks of the Godavari River.
Additional Information:
The other Mahajanapadas included:

  • Kasi
  • Kosala
  • Anga
  • Magadha
  • Vajji
  • Malla
  • Chedi
  • Vatsa
  • Kuru
  • Panchala
  • Matsya
  • Surasena
  • Avanti
  • Gandhara
  • Kamboj
BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 4

Which of the following is not the feature of the Nagara style of temple architecture?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 4
  • The garbhagriha Placement: In Nagara style of temple architecture, the garbhagriha is always located directly under the tallest tower.
  • Platform and Access: The temple is placed on a high platform that is accessed by stairs.
  • Shikharas: Shikharas in Nagara temples rise high in a curved fashion.
  • Prominent Element: The most prominent element in Nagara style is not the Gopuram.

Key Points:

  • The Nagara-style temple architecture is mainly found in Northern India.
  • These temples are often constructed on stone platforms accessed by steps.
  • They generally lack elaborate boundary walls or entrances.
  • The tallest tower is always directly above the garbhagriha.
  • Kalash or Amalaka installations are common on the Shikhara.
  • Examples of Nagara-style temples include the Sun Temple in Konark, Sun Temple in Modhera, and Ossian Temple in Gujarat.

Additional Information:

  • The Gopuram is a characteristic feature of Dravidian style of architecture.
  • Dravida temples are enclosed by compound walls.
  • In Dravida architecture, the Gopuram, or entrance doorway, is typically positioned in the middle of the front wall.
BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 5

One of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings of Bodhisattva Padmapani at Ajantha represents:

Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 5
  • The Correct Answer is Avalokiteshvara:
    • Padmapani is a Bodhisattva, which means someone on the path to Buddhahood.
    • Avalokiteshvara is known as the Bodhisattva of compassion.
    • Among the various forms of Avalokiteshvara, the Padmapani Lokesvara, meaning "Lord with a Lotus in hand," is one of the most renowned representations. Therefore, option 1 is correct.
  • Maitreya:
    • Maitreya is the Bodhisattva of the Future.
    • According to beliefs, Maitreya has not yet attained Buddhahood and currently resides in the Tusita Heaven.
    • A well-known depiction of Maitreya Bodhisattva is the Laughing Buddha.
  • Manjushri:
    • Manjushri is the Bodhisattva of Wisdom.
    • This figure holds significant importance in Mahayana Buddhism.
    • Images of Manjushri Bodhisattva are commonly found in the meditation halls, libraries, and study rooms of Buddhist monasteries.
  • Vajrapani:
    • Vajrapani is the Thunderbolt-bearing Bodhisattva.
    • He is one of the three protective deities associated with Buddha.
    • In human form, Vajrapani is often portrayed holding the vajra in his right hand.
    • Sometimes referred to as a Dhyani-Bodhisattva.
BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 6

 Delhi became the capital of a kingdom for the first time under ______. 

Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 6

The Capital of a Kingdom Under Tomara Rajputs

  • Tomara Rajputs (8th Century - 12th Century):
    • Anangapala is credited as the founder of this dynasty.
    • Delhi became the capital of a kingdom for the first time under the Tomara Rajputs.
    • They were eventually defeated by the Chauhans in the middle of the twelfth century.
    • The name of Anangpala is inscribed on the Iron Pillar of Delhi.
  • Chauhans (1165-1192):
    • Prithviraj Chauhan was a prominent ruler of this dynasty.
    • In the first battle of Tarain in 1191 AD, he emerged victorious against Muhammad Ghori.
    • However, in the second battle of Tarain in 1192 AD, he was defeated by Muhammad Ghori.
  •  Aurangzeb (1658-1707):
    • He served as the sixth Mughal Emperor.
    • Aurangzeb ordered the execution of the ninth Sikh guru, Guru Tegh Bahadur, in 1675 AD.
    • Additionally, he re-imposed Jaziya in 1679 AD during his reign.
BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 7

Which of the following medieval cities of Delhi is correctly matched to its founders?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 7
  • Mehrauli and Qutubuddin Aibak:
    • Qutubuddin Aibak was the founder of the Slave dynasty in Delhi.
    • He is known as Lakh Baksh and did not refer to himself as Sultan.
    • Qutubuddin Aibak is credited with starting the Indo-Islamic architecture and is considered the founder of the first medieval city of Delhi, Mehrauli.
    • He initiated the construction of Qutub Minar, named after Chishti Sufi saint Qutubuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki, which was later completed by Iltutmish.
    • Additionally, Quwwat ul Islam Mosque in Delhi was built by Qutubuddin Aibak.

Key Points

  • Qutubuddin Aibak:
    • Founder of the Slave dynasty and Indo-Islamic architecture.
    • Initiated construction of Qutub Minar and Quwwat ul Islam Mosque in Delhi.

Important Points

BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 8

Which of the following was prime objective of Tauhid-e-Ilahi founded by Akbar?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 8

The Significance of Tauhid-e-Ilahi

  • Akbar's Initiative: Akbar established the Ibadat Khana at Sikri Fatehpur to engage in religious discussions with scholars from various faiths.
  • Innovative Religion: Unimpressed by existing religions, Akbar devised a novel faith known as Din-e-Ilahi, which he referred to as Tauhid-e-Ilahi.
  • Distinct Characteristics: Tauhid-e-Ilahi featured no religious idols, rituals, places of worship, or a priestly hierarchy.
  • Inclusivity: It was open to all individuals and incorporated positive elements from different religions.
  • Unique Practice: Akbar would whisper a mantra into the ear of those seeking to embrace this new religion.
  • Reception: While many nobles declined to join, Birbal, one of Akbar's close associates, became a follower.

Additional Insights

  • Akbar's Navratna: The notable figures in Akbar's court, known as Navratna, included individuals like Birbal, Raja Man Singh, and Tansen.
  • Royal Proclamations: Akbar's official decrees were referred to as Mehzar, signifying his authority and commands.
BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 9

Chronologically arrange the following treaties/conventions signed between the Marathas and the British (starting with the earliest) :

  1. Treaty of Salbai
  2. Treaty of Purandar
  3. Convention of Wadgaon
  4. Treaty of Surat

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 9

This is the correct chronological arrangement of the treaties/conventions signed between the Marathas and the British, starting with the earliest.
Important Points

BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 10

Match the following:

Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 10

Key Points

Important Points

  • Amir Khusrau was a prominent Sufi musician, poet, and scholar in medieval India.
  • Tarikh-i-Alai, written by Amir Khusrau, details the initial years of Sultan Alauddin Khilji's reign.
  • Yahya ibn Ahmad Sihrindi authored Tarikh-i Mubarak Shahi, offering insights into the Sayyid rulers of Delhi.
  • Al-Beruni penned Tarikh-i-Hind, discussing various aspects of Indian society and history.
  • Gulbadan Begum authored Humayun Nama, narrating the life of the Mughal emperor Humayun.
BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 11

Which of the following statement is not true regarding the Mahalwari system?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 11

The Mahalwari System and its Features

  • Introduction:
    • The Mahalwari system was introduced by Holt Mackenzie in 1822 and reviewed under Lord William Bentinck in 1833.
  • Implementation Areas:
    • It was implemented in North-West Frontier, Agra, Central Province, Gangetic Valley, Punjab, among other regions.
  • Land Division:
    • Total land was divided into mahals, and taxes were assessed on these mahals.
  • Ownership Rights:
    • Peasants held ownership rights, and each peasant contributed their share of the tax.
  • Rent Concept:
    • The system introduced the concept of average rent for different soil classes.
  • Revenue Collection:
    • Revenue was collected by the village headman.

Key Points

  • Mahalwari System:
    • Introduced by Holt Mackenzie in 1822 and reviewed under Lord William Bentinck in 1833.
    • Implemented in various regions like North-West Frontier, Agra, Central Province, Gangetic Valley, Punjab.
    • Land divided into mahals with taxes assessed on them.
    • Peasants had ownership rights and contributed to taxes.
    • Concept of average rent for different soil classes introduced.
    • Revenue collection done by the village headman.

Additional Information

  • Ryotwari System:
    • Introduced by Sir Thomas Munro in the 18th century.
    • Practiced in areas like Madras, Bombay, Assam, and Coorg provinces.
    • Peasants considered owners of the land with rights to sell, mortgage, or gift it.
    • Taxes directly collected from peasants by the government.
    • Failure to pay taxes led to eviction by the government.
BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 12

Sir Syed Ahmed Khan was related to which of the following Movements?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 12

The Significance of Aligarh Movement

  • Sir Syed Ahmed Khan was a socio-religious reformer who aimed to blend Western scientific education with the teachings of the Quran.
  • He was a dedicated educationist, establishing schools in various towns and translating books into Urdu. In 1875, he founded the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College in Aligarh.
  • The Aligarh Movement initiated by Sir Syed Ahmed Khan represented a modern and liberal approach among Muslim intellectuals associated with the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College.
  • The movement's primary objective was to promote modern education among Muslims while maintaining their commitment to Islam. It was based on a liberal interpretation of Islam combined with modern cultural values.
  • Aligarh emerged as a focal point for the religious and cultural renaissance of the Muslim community.
BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 13

With reference to national movement consider the following pairs:

Choose the correct pair-

Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 13

With reference to the national movement, the correct pair is:

Choose the correct pair-
The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.
Key Points

  • Jawaharlal Nehru, known for popularizing the concept of Purna Swaraj, was chosen as the president of the Lahore session of the Congress in December 1929 with Gandhi's support. This decision was made despite opposition from 15 out of 18 Provincial Congress Committees. This validates statement 1.
  • Key decisions made during the Lahore session include boycotting the Round Table Conference, declaring complete independence as Congress's aim, authorizing the Congress Working Committee to initiate civil disobedience measures, and setting January 26, 1930, as the first Independence Day to be celebrated nationwide.
  • Jawaharlal Nehru hoisted the newly adopted tricolour flag at midnight on the banks of River Ravi on December 31, 1929, amid chants of Inquilab Zindabad.
  • Sarojini Naidu became the president of the Indian National Congress (INC) in 1925, while Annie Besant was the first woman president of INC, presiding over the 1917 session in Kolkata. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Rajkumari Amrit Kaur served as a member of the Constituent Assembly and held the Health Minister Portfolio in the First cabinet of Free India. This validates statement 2.
BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 14

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Muslim League:

Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 14
  • The Muslim League, 1906:
    • Founders: Khwaja Salimullah, Vikar-ul-Mulk, Syed Amir Ali, Syed Nabiullah, Khan Bahadur Ghulam & Mustafa Chowdhury.
    • On 30 December 1906, a conference in the Muhammadan Educational Conference at Dhaka was held.
    • At this conference, a motion was moved to form the All India Muslim League (AIML).
  • The name AIML was proposed by Agha Khan III who was appointed the first President.
    • Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • The party’s prominence was in promoting civil rights for Muslims.
  • Objectives of the formation of the league:
    • To promote the loyalty of Indian Muslims towards the British government.
    • To protect the political and other rights of the Indian Muslims and to place their needs and aspirations before the Government.
    • To overcome the feeling of hostility among Muslims towards other communities.
  • It was the first Muslim political party in India.
  • The League's constitution was formed in Karachi in 1907.
  • Factors leading to the formation of the Muslim League:
    • British conspiracy: Dividing Indian on a communal basis.
      • Continued separatist attitude in Indian politics.
        • Like: Separate electorates.
    • Educational Backwardness: Muslims were isolated from western and technical education.
    • They thought that the Congress Party only looked after the needs of the Hindus.
      • But, this was a misleading idea since Congress always aimed to include every community of the country.
      • It also had many Muslim leaders in the party.
  • The Amritsar Session of the League, held in 1908, demanded a separate electorate for the Muslims.
    • President: Syed Ali Imam.

Additional Information

    • Jinnah was in opposition to the League for many years.
    • In 1910, at the Allahabad session of the Congress, Jinnah moved a resolution condemning the system of communal electorates.
    • Muhammad Ali Jinnah joined the league in 1913.
    • An English journal Comrade & an Urdu paper Hamdard was started by Maulana Mohammad Ali to propagate his anti-League views.
BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 15

Which one of the following was not an aim with reference to the Individual Satyagraha ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 15

The Aim of Individual Satyagraha

  • To demonstrate that nationalist patience was not a sign of weakness.
  • To convey the sentiments of those who do not support the war.
  • To oppose the struggle for power between Nazism and the double autocracy in India.
  • To give the government a chance to peacefully consider Congress's demands.
  • The main aim was to utilize freedom of speech to protest the war by making anti-war statements.
  • The Satyagrahis continued their efforts by chanting in villages and marching towards Delhi, sparking the Delhi Chalo Movement.

Additional Information about Individual Satyagraha

  • Had a direct impact on individual satyagraha.
  • The British presented the August Offer in 1940 during a time of war.
  • The August Offer was rejected by both the Muslim League and Congress.
  • Gandhi realized the unfavorable climate for starting the Civil Disobedience Movement.
  • All India Kisan Sabha and Congress Socialist leaders supported direct conflict.
  • Initiated by Vinoba Bhave in May 1941, followed by Nehru.

August Declaration, 1917:

  • Between 1917 and 1922, Edwin Samuel Montagu served as India's secretary of state.
  • It was a speech outlining British policies in India on August 20, 1917.
  • Referred to as the August 1917 Declaration.
  • The Montague declaration focused on increasing Indian involvement in administration and developing self-governing institutions.

August Offer, 1940:

  • Viceroy of India Lord Linlithgow made the offer on August 8, 1940.
  • Main proposals included Dominion status as India's goal, establishing a Constituent Assembly post-war, and ensuring minority party consent for any new form of governance.
BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 16

In the context of Indian freedom struggle, 'Karnataka method' was used as a strategy in which of the following movements?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 16
  • The Karnataka method was a strategy used during the Quit India Movement in the Indian freedom struggle.
  • It was characterized by terrorist activities involving sabotage of war efforts by disrupting communication systems and propaganda activities.
  • Ordinary peasants and educated youth participated in subversive actions, which became known as the 'Karnataka method'.

Additional Information:

  • About Quit India Movement:
    • On 14 July 1942, the resolution for the British Quit India Movement was passed by the Congress Working Committee in Wardha.
    • On 8 August 1942, the All India Congress approved the proposal for the Quit India Movement at the Gwalia Tank Grounds in Bombay.
    • The movement aimed for the immediate termination of British rule in India for the establishment of freedom and democracy.
    • It is also known as the 'August revolution'.
    • The primary goal was to end the British Empire's rule in India.
BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 17

Which of the following is not a feature of the Cabinet Mission Plan.

Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 17
  • The Muslim League formally withdrew its acceptance of the Cabinet Mission Plan on 29 July 1946.
  • Post withdrawal, the Muslim League decided to launch the “Direct Action Day” on 16 August 1946 to press the government to accept its demand for Pakistan.
  • The All-India Muslim League was a political party established in Dhaka in 1906 when a group of prominent Muslim politicians met the Viceroy of British India, Lord Minto, with the goal of securing Muslim interests on the Indian subcontinent.

Key Points

  • The Muslim League formally withdrew its acceptance of the Cabinet Mission Plan on 29 July 1946.
  • Post withdrawal, the Muslim League decided to launch the “Direct Action Day” on 16 August 1946 to press the government to accept its demand for Pakistan.
  • The All-India Muslim League was a political party established in Dhaka in 1906 when a group of prominent Muslim politicians met the Viceroy of British India, Lord Minto, with the goal of securing Muslim interests on the Indian subcontinent.

Additional Information

  • On 22nd January 1946, the decision to send Cabinet Mission was taken and on 19th February 1946, the British PM C.R Attlee Government announced in the House of Lords about the mission and the plan to quit India.
  • A high-powered mission of three British Cabinet members - Lord Pethick-Lawrence, the Secretary of State for India, Sir Stafford Cripps, President of the Board of Trade, and A. V. Alexander, the First Lord of the Admiralty reached Delhi on 24th March 1946.
BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 18

Consider the following statements with reference to the Mountbatten Plan.

  1. It sought to give dominion status to India and Pakistan.
  2. It provided for the setting up of the Boundary Commission.
  3. The plan lacked any provision for conducting a referendum to determine which sides a region would go to.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 18

Below are some important points related to the Mountbatten Plan:
Mountbatten Plan

  • The Mountbatten Plan, also known as the 3rd June 1947 Plan, aimed to facilitate a swift transfer of power by granting Dominion Status to India and Pakistan, making statement 1 correct.
  • Congress was initially willing to accept Dominion Status as it felt the need to take full control immediately and address the volatile situation in the country.
  • The key features of the Mountbatten Plan included:
    • Separation of Muslim-dominated regions to form a Dominion.
    • In the event of separation, Bengal and Punjab would be partitioned.
    • A referendum in the North-West Frontier Province would determine its association with Pakistan. Thus, statement 3 is incorrect.
    • Residents of Sylhet in Assam were also to participate in a referendum to decide whether they would join the Muslim region in Bengal.
    • A Boundary Commission was established to delineate the boundaries of Hindu and Muslim provinces in Punjab and Bengal, making statement 2 correct.
    • The British Parliament was to enact legislation for an immediate power transfer.
    • Representatives of Muslim-majority areas could create a separate Constitution-making body or Constituent Assembly.
BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 19

Which of the following newspapers were started by Mahatma Gandhi?

  1. Young India
  2. New India
  3. Indian Opinion
Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 19

Below are some key points related to the newspapers started by Mahatma Gandhi:

  • In 1903, in South Africa, Gandhi initiated a weekly newspaper called Indian Opinion.
    • Gandhi supported Indian Opinion throughout his life from India by providing editorial content and moral and financial assistance.
  • In 1919, Gandhi launched two weeklies in India, namely Young India and Navjivan.
  • In 1933, Gandhi introduced a third weekly publication, Harijan (meaning 'the children of God').
  • In the early part of 1915, Annie Besant initiated a campaign through her newspapers, New India and Commonweal, advocating for self-government in India similar to White colonies post-War. Therefore, Option 2 is incorrect.
BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 20

With reference to the history of the Indian National Movement, who among the following was the first Indian to start an agitation for political reform?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 20

The First Indian to Start an Agitation for Political Reform in Indian National Movement

  • Raja Rammohan Roy:
    • He was the first Indian to initiate an agitation for political reform.
    • Advocated for:
      • The use of English in courts instead of Persian language.
      • Employment of Indian personnel in civil services.
      • Separation of offices of judges and revenue commissioners.
    • Suggested consultation with the Indian public before enacting laws.

Additional Information

  • Dadabhai Naoroji:
    • Known as the "Grand Old Man of India".
    • Referred to as the "Official Ambassador of India".
    • Indian Parsi scholar, trader, and politician who was the first Asian British Member of Parliament.
  • Surendranath Banerjee: Founded the Indian National Association and led Indian National Conference sessions.
  • Womesh Chunder Bonnerjee:
    • Indian barrister.
    • Co-founder and first president of the Indian National Congress.
    • Born in 1844 in Calcutta.
    • Studied at the Oriental Seminary and the Hindu School.
BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 21

Which of the following were reasons for the growth of militant nationalism in India?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 21

The Growth of Militant Nationalism in India

  • The Exploitative Attitude of the British: The British rule in India was characterized by exploitation and oppression. Early nationalists exposed the true nature of British rule, highlighting how it had led to the deterioration of India's self-sufficient economy into a colonial one. This exploitation fueled anger among the younger generation of Congress leaders, leading to the emergence of militant nationalist movements.
  • Growth of Confidence and Self-Respect in Indians: During the 19th and 20th centuries, there was a growing sense of self-respect and confidence among Indian leaders and the public. Visionary leaders like Aurobindo Ghosh, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, and Bipin Chandra Pal advocated for greater mass participation, believing in the ability of the masses to make sacrifices for the attainment of Swaraj.
  • International Influences: Events on the global stage also played a role in shaping militant nationalism in India. The economic and industrial rise of Japan post-1868 inspired Indians, showing that a backward Asian country could progress independently. Victories like Ethiopia defeating the Italian army in 1896 instilled hope in Indian nationalists that they too could resist colonial powers. Movements in countries like Ireland, Russia, Turkey, and Egypt served as sources of inspiration for Indian youth, contributing to the growth of militant nationalism in the Indian freedom movement.
BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 22

Who gave the hypothesis of continental drift?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 22
  • Alfred Wegener: Alfred Wegener proposed the hypothesis of continental drift in 1915. He suggested that continents were once part of a single landmass called 'Pangaea' which later split and drifted apart.
  • Continental Drift Theory: According to Wegener, Pangaea began to break apart during the Jurassic period around 200 million years ago, forming Laurasia and Gondwanaland. These larger landmasses eventually separated into the continents we recognize today.
  • Evidence: Wegener supported his theory with evidence such as radiometric dating, matching geological features across continents, and similarities in fossil records and paleoclimates.

Geographers Hypothesis and Theory Parker and Morgan Theory of plate tectonics Pratt and Airy Concept of Isostasy Arthur Holmes Theory of convectional current

BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 23

Which is the highest layer of the atmosphere in which Meteors burn up after entering Earth's atmosphere?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 23
  • Mesosphere:
    • In the mesosphere, gases are mixed up rather than being layered by their mass.
    • Meteors burn up in this layer after entering Earth's atmosphere and before reaching Earth's surface.
    • Due to enough gases in the mesosphere, friction is created when meteors hit this layer, resulting in heat. 
  • Additional Information:
    • Troposphere:
      • The troposphere is the innermost layer of Earth’s atmosphere where the weather constantly changes and mixes up gases.
      • This layer contains the air we breathe and the clouds in the sky.
    • Stratosphere:
      • The stratosphere is located above the troposphere and below the mesosphere.
      • There are no storms or turbulence in this layer, allowing cold, heavy air at the bottom and warm, light air at the top.
      • The ozone layer in the stratosphere protects us from UV radiation by absorbing most of the UV radiation from the sun.
    • Thermosphere:
      • The thermosphere is above the mesosphere and below the exosphere.
      • This layer is home to the International Space Station as it orbits Earth.

BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 24

Which of the following statements about the ionosphere is NOT correct?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 24
  • Ionosphere:
    • The ionosphere is a layer located in the thermosphere, extending from 60 km to 1000 km above the Earth's surface.
    • Gas molecules in this layer absorb X-rays and ultraviolet rays from the Sun, resulting in high temperatures that break up gas molecules into ions (positive and negative charges).
    • This process leads to the presence of electrically charged particles in the ionosphere.
    • The ionosphere is ionized by solar and cosmic radiation.
    • One of the key functions of the ionosphere is to reflect radio waves back to Earth, enabling long-distance communications.
    • Auroras occur in the ionosphere due to the presence of ions.

Important Points:

  • Atmosphere:
    • The atmosphere is the envelope of air surrounding Earth, held in place by Earth's gravitational force.
    • It comprises five distinct layers, each with unique characteristics and functions.

Additional Information:
Troposphere

  • First layer of the atmosphere, extending up to 16 km above Earth's surface.
  • Cloud formation and weather conditions are influenced by the troposphere.

Stratosphere

  • Second layer above the troposphere, containing the ozone layer.
  • The stratopause is the boundary between the stratosphere and the mesosphere.

Mesosphere

  • Third layer above the stratosphere, extending up to 85 km above Earth's surface.
  • Temperature decreases significantly in the mesosphere.

Thermosphere

  • Fourth layer above the mesosphere, extending from 500 km to 640 km above Earth.
  • The International Space Station orbits in the thermosphere.
  • It contains electrically charged particles known as ions and is also referred to as the ionosphere.
  • Meteors entering the atmosphere vaporize in this layer.

Exosphere

  • Outermost layer above the thermosphere, extending up to 10,000 km above Earth's surface.
  • The exosphere gradually merges with interplanetary space.

BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 25

In which of the following continent are the 6 most populated countries located?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 25

The 6 Most Populated Countries in Asia

  • Asia:
    • Asia is the largest continent in terms of population size.
    • The population of Asia constitutes approximately 59.76% of the total world population and includes the 6 most populated countries.
    • The 6 most populated countries in Asia are:
      • China: Over 1.4 billion people.
      • India: Over 1.3 billion people.
      • Indonesia: Over 270 million people.
      • Pakistan: Over 220 million people.
      • Bangladesh: Over 160 million people.
      • Japan: Over 125 million people.
    • The ranking of continents by population size, from highest to lowest, is Asia, Africa, Europe, North America, South America, Australia, Antarctica.

Population Prospects by 2050

Additional Information about Asia

  • Pamir Plateau: Known as the 'Roof of the World,' located in Central Asia.
  • Asia is separated from Africa by the Red Sea and Suez Canal.
  • Asia is separated from North America by the Bering Strait.
  • Asia is not only the most populous continent but also the largest in terms of size.
BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 26

Which of the following neighbouring countries of India has the smallest area?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 26

The Smallest Neighboring Country of India

  • Bhutan has the smallest area among neighboring countries of India.

Key Points

  • A total of 9 countries share borders with India.
  • Out of these, 7 countries share land borders while 2 countries share sea borders with India.
  • Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, Myanmar, Nepal, and Pakistan share land borders with India.
  • Sri Lanka and the Maldives are two countries with water borders.
  • Bhutan is the smallest neighboring country of India in terms of area and land borders.

Important Points

  • The total area of Bhutan is 38,394 km².
  • The total area of Myanmar is 676,575 km².
  • The total area of Nepal is 147,516 km².
  • The total area of Pakistan is 796,095 km².

BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 27

Which of the following river is also known as Uttara Pinakini?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 27
  • Penna River is also known as Uttara Pinakini. It is a river in southern India.
  • The Penna River originates in the Nandi Hills in Chikkaballapur District of Karnataka state and flows north and east through the states of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
  • Located in the rain shadow region of Eastern Ghats, the Penna River basin receives an average annual rainfall of 500 mm.

 

BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 28

Which of the following mineral belts in India is famous for the production of iron ore and coal?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 28

Key Points

  • The most striking feature of the Indian minerals is their uneven distribution. Some areas are very rich in minerals while some others are completely devoid of this valuable asset.
  • India is endowed with a rich variety of mineral resources due to its varied geological structure.
  • A mineral is a natural substance of organic or inorganic origin with definite chemical and physical properties. 

Important Points
Chhotanagpur belt:

  • This belt comprising of Chota Nagpur plateau and Orissa Plateau in the states of Jharkhand, West Bengal and Orissa is the richest mineral belt of India.
  • It contains large quantities of coal, iron ore, manganese, mica, bauxite, copper, kyanite, chromite, beryl, apatite and many more minerals.
  • In fact, you ask for any major mineral of India and you will find it in this belt.
  • Thus it is a mineral region par excellence.
  • The Chota Nagpur plateau is known as the mineral heartland of India.
  • According to Wadia, this region possesses India’s 100 per cent Kyanite, 93 per cent iron ore, 84 per cent coal, 70 per cent chromite, 70 per cent mica, 50 per cent fire clay, 45 per cent asbestos, 45 per cent china clay, 20 per cent limestone and 10 per cent manganese.
  • However, many changes have taken place in the recent years.

Hence, the Chhotanagpur belt in India is famous for the production of iron ore and coal.

BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 29

About 80% of the coal reserves of India lie in the

Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 29
  • Coal reserves in India are predominantly found in two main formations: Older Gondwana Formation in the Indian Peninsula and younger Tertiary Formation in the Northeastern region.
  • Classification of coal is based on its carbon content, with three main categories: anthracite (80-90%), bituminous (60-80%), and lignite (40-55%).
  • About 55% of India's energy requirements are met by coal.
  • The history of coal mining in India dates back to 1774 when it first began in Raniganj during the rule of the East India Company.
  • The Damodar region holds approximately 80% of the coal reserves in India.
  • States with significant geological coal resources in India are ranked as follows: Jharkhand > Odisha > Chhattisgarh > West Bengal > Madhya Pradesh.
BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 30

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Mock Test - 1 (TestBook) - Question 30

Bagasse

  • Bagasse is composed of fibers (48%), water (50%), and soluble solids like sugars (2%).
  • It is a valuable raw material for bioethanol and biomethane production.
  • Bagasse is commonly utilized for heat and electricity generation in sugar mills (cogeneration) and can also be used for paper making, cattle feed, and manufacturing disposable food containers. Therefore, the first pair is correct.

Molasses

  • Molasses, also known as treacle, is the syrup left after sugar crystallization from cane or beet juice.
  • Lighter grades of molasses from sugarcane are edible and used in baking, candy-making, and rum production.
  • Molasses is fermented to produce industrial ethyl alcohol (ethanol). Hence, the second pair is correct.

Pressmud

  • Pressmud is the compressed waste from the sugar industry during cane juice filtration.
  • Pressmud finds applications in fertilizers, chemical extraction, biosorbents, animal feed, manufacturing cement, and wax making. Therefore, the third pair is correct.
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