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Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - KPSC KAS (Karnataka) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4

Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 for KPSC KAS (Karnataka) 2024 is part of KPSC KAS (Karnataka) preparation. The Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 questions and answers have been prepared according to the KPSC KAS (Karnataka) exam syllabus.The Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 MCQs are made for KPSC KAS (Karnataka) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 below.
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Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 1

Consider the following statements about Milankovitch cycles:

  1. The cycles are solely caused by changes in solar radiation.
  2. The cycles involve variations in the Earth’s orbit, tilt, and precession.
  3. The cycles have no significant impact on Earth’s climate.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 1
  • Only statement 2 is correct.
  • Milankovitch cycles refer to changes in the Earth’s orbit, tilt, and precession over long periods of time, typically thousands to hundreds of thousands of years. These cycles are instrumental in driving changes in Earth’s climate over geological time scales.
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 2

The “Women, Business and the Law 2024” report is released by the 

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 2
  • Context: The “Women, Business and the Law 2024” report by the World Bank Group examines laws and regulations affecting women’s economic opportunities across 190 economies.
  • The report analyzes challenges hindering women’s workforce entry and economic contribution, updating the Women, Business and the Law index with new indicators like Safety and Childcare. Findings reveal a significant global gap in women’s legal rights, with potential economic growth if discriminatory laws are eliminated. India’s rank in the report improved marginally to 113 out of 190.
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Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 3

Consider the following statements about the SWAYAM Plus platform:

  1. It is an initiative of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) to promote online learning in India.
  2. SWAYAM Plus courses are exclusively for undergraduate students.
  3. It offers live interactive sessions with instructors and experts.

How many of the above statements given is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 3
  • Only statement 3 is correct.
  • Context: Union Minister of Education and Skill Development and Entrepreneurship launched the SWAYAM Plus platform, in collaboration with industry leaders such as L&T, Microsoft, and CISCO.
  • Operated by the Indian Institute of Technology, Madras (IIT Madras), the platform aims to offer courses focusing on employability and professional development, covering sectors like manufacturing, energy, computer science, engineering, IT, management studies, healthcare, hospitality, and tourism.
  • SWAYAM Plus combines academic rigor with real-world expertise from industry partners to enhance the employability of college students and lifelong learners.
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 4

Consider the following statements.

  1. India has decided to build a gravitational wave detector to join the international LIGO (Laser Interferometer Gravitational Wave Observatory) network.
  2. India is a full member of the ITER project, which is working to harness energy from nuclear fusion reactions.
  3. India has a strong participation in the Large Hadron Collider (LHC), the world’s largest and most powerful particle accelerator.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 4

India has already decided to build a gravitational wave detector to join the international LIGO (Laser Interferometer Gravitational Wave Observatory) network, and is a full member of the ITER project, which is working to harness energy from nuclear fusion reactions. India also has a strong participation in the Large Hadron Collider (LHC), the world’s largest and most powerful particle accelerator that is running some of the most exciting experiments in particle physics.

Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 5

With respect to National Green Tribunal (NGT), consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Tribunal has powers to review its own decisions.
Statement-II: The decision of NGT can be challenged before the High Court.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 5

Are decisions of the Court binding?
Yes, decisions of the Tribunal are binding. The Tribunal’s orders are enforceable as the powers vested are the same as in a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

Are decisions of the Tribunal final?
The Tribunal has powers to review its own decisions. If this fails, the decision can be challenged before the Supreme Court within ninety days.

Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 6

Consider the following statements.

  1. CITES Appendix I lists species threatened with extinction and import or export permits for these species are completely banned.
  2. CITES Appendix II includes species not necessarily threatened with extinction but in which trade must be strictly regulated.
  3. The endangered Asian elephant is included in CITES Appendix I.
  4. India has banned the domestic sales of ivory.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 6

Statement 1 is incorrect.

  • CITES Appendix I lists species threatened with extinction — import or export permits for these are issued rarely and only if the purpose is not primarily commercialCITES Appendix II includes species not necessarily threatened with extinction but in which trade must be strictly regulated.
  • The international ivory trade was globally banned in 1989 when all African elephant populations were put in CITES Appendix I. However, the populations of Namibia, Botswana, and Zimbabwe were transferred to Appendix II in 1997, and South Africa’s in 2000 to allow two “one-off sales” in 1999 and 2008 of ivory stockpiled from natural elephant deaths and seizures from poachers.
  • The endangered Asian elephant was included in CITES Appendix I in 1975, which banned the export of ivory from the Asian range countries. In 1986, India amended The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 to ban even domestic sales of ivory. After the ivory trade was globally banned, India again amended the law to ban the import of African ivory in 1991.
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 7

Which of the following statements is correct regarding INSAT-3DS satellite? 

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 7
  • The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has said that the INSAT-3DS satellite has been flagged off to the launch port at the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota.
  • The INSAT-3DS satellite is an exclusive meteorological satellite realised by ISRO with the primary objective to provide continuity of services to the existing in-orbit INSAT-3D and 3DR satellites and significantly enhancing the capabilities of the INSAT system.
  • The satellite is designed for enhanced meteorological observations and monitoring of land and ocean surfaces for weather forecasting and disaster warning, with state-of-the-art payloads viz., 6 channel Imager and 19 channel Sounder meteorology payloads, communication payloads viz., the Data Relay Transponder (DRT) and Satellite aided Search and Rescue (SAS&R) transponder.
  • The DRT instrument receives meteorological, hydrological and oceanographic data from automatic Data Collection Platforms / Automatic Weather Stations (AWS) and augments the weather forecasting capabilities.
  • The SAS&R transponder is incorporated in the satellite to relay a distress signal / alert detection from the beacon transmitters for search and rescue services with global receive coverage.
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 8

Consider the following statements regarding Atmospheric rivers.

  1. Atmospheric rivers are short and wide regions of the atmospherethat transport water vapour from one region to the neighbouring region.
  2. When atmospheric rivers make landfall, they can contribute significantly to precipitation.
  3. Events like the 2018 Kerala floods, the 2022 Pakistan floods, and the lower Mississippi River floods were linked to atmospheric rivers.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 8

Statement 1 is incorrect.

A recent study published in the American Meteorological Society’s Journal of Hydrometeorology reveals that peninsular river basins in India, including Narmada, Mahanadi, and Godavari, face a higher likelihood of widespread flooding compared to transboundary rivers like Ganga and Brahmaputra.

Drivers of widespread flooding are associated with atmospheric rivers, large atmospheric circulations carrying moisture from the tropics to extratropic. Events like the 2018 Kerala floods, the 2022 Pakistan floods, and the lower Mississippi River floods in 2008, 2011, and 2015–19 were linked to atmospheric rivers.

What are Atmospheric rivers?

They are long, narrow regions of the atmosphere that transport water vapour from the tropics to the poles. They can be 250–375 miles wide and over 1,000 miles long. When atmospheric rivers make landfall, they can contribute significantly to precipitation.

Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 9

Consider the following statements.

  1. The size of the State Legislative Council cannot exceed one third of the membership of the State Legislative Assembly, with a lower cap of 40 members.
  2. The total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen per cent of the total number of members of the House of the People.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 9
  • The size of the State Legislative Council cannot be more than one third of the membership of the State Legislative Assembly. However, its size cannot be less than 40 members.
  • Before the 91st Amendment Act (2003), the convention of appointing a lot of ministers on the council due to political reasons led to widespread abuse of the system.
  • It led to very large size of the Council of Ministers. Besides, when no party had a clear majority, there was a temptation to win over the support of the members of the Parliament by giving them ministerial positions as there was no restriction on the number of the members of the Council of Ministers.
  • This was happening in many States also. Therefore, an amendment was made that the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of total number of members of the House of People (or Assembly, in the case of the States).
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 10

Consider the following statements regarding Dare to Dream (D2D) scheme.

  1. The Dare to Dream (D2D) schemeis a contest that provides a unique opportunity for start-ups, entrepreneurs, and individuals to enhance India’s defence and aerospace capabilities.
  2. It is an annual initiative by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
  3. It is initiated in memory of former President Dr APJ Abdul Kalam.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 10

The Dare to Dream Contest, initiated in memory of former President Dr APJ Abdul Kalam, is an annual initiative by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).

Launched in 2019, the contest provides a unique opportunity for start-ups, innovators, entrepreneurs, and individuals above 18 years old to address key challenges in emerging technologies, ultimately contributing to enhancing India’s defence and aerospace capabilities.

Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 11

Consider the following statements regarding Natural gas.

  1. Natural gas is used to power appliances like stoves and furnaces.
  2. Natural gas is a relatively clean burning fossil fuel, resulting in fewer emissions of nearly all types of air pollutants and CO2 when compared with burning coal or petroleum products.
  3. Extraction of natural gas from the ground does not involve release of any greenhouse gas.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 11

Statement 3 is incorrect.
Natural gas, extracted from the earth, powers appliances like stoves and furnaces.

Natural gas is mainly methane, which is a greenhouse gas – capable of trapping significant amounts of heat in the atmosphere. Natural gas is a relatively clean burning fossil fuel, resulting in fewer emissions of nearly all types of air pollutants and CO2 when compared with burning coal or petroleum products to produce an equal amount of energy.

Extraction of natural gas from the ground also involves release of certain greenhouse gases.

Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 12

Consider the following statements.

  1. The 2023 Global Survey on Persons with Disabilities and Disasters was conducted by World Bank.
  2. Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction (DRR) 2015–2030recognizes Persons with Disabilities (PwDs) and emphasises the need for their inclusion in all DRR policies and practices.
  3. National Disaster Management Authority’s (NDMA) guidelines was the first comprehensive set of guidelinesissued by any country globally on disability-inclusive disaster risk reduction (DiDRR).

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 12

Statement 1 is incorrect.

  • The UN Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR) conducted the 2023 Global Survey on Persons with Disabilities and Disasters, following up on the 2013 survey.
  • Sendai Framework for DRR 2015–2030 recognizes Persons with Disabilities (PwDs) as contributing stakeholders and emphasises the need for their inclusion in all DRR policies and practices.

India’s Initiatives:

  • September 2019: NDMA came out with comprehensive guidelines under the title, ‘National Disaster Management Guidelines on Disability-Inclusive Disaster Risk Reduction, 2019’ (NDMA 2019). This was the first comprehensive set of guidelines issued by any country globally on disability-inclusive disaster risk reduction (DiDRR).
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 13

Consider the following statements regarding European Free Trade Association (EFTA).

  1. The European Free Trade Association (EFTA) is a regional trade organization and free trade area consisting of all Nordic countries.
  2. The organization operates in parallel with the European Union (EU) and all members are part of the Schengen Area.
  3. India has signed the Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement with European Free Trade Association (EFTA).

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 13

Only Statement 2 is correct.

  • Talks about TEPA (Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement) and a Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT) between India, and four European countries who make up the European Free Trade Association (EFTA), outside the European Union (EU): Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland, began 15 years ago, and despite 20 rounds of negotiations, they have not yet been closed.
  • European Free Trade Association (EFTA) operates in parallel with the European Union (EU), and all four member states participate in the European Single Market and are part of the Schengen Area. They are not, however, party to the European Union Customs Union.
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 14

Consider the following statements regarding Large Hadron Collider (LHC).

  1. Large Hadron Collider (LHC) considered as the world’s largest science experiment is built by International Atomic Energy Agency.
  2. It accelerates two beams of particles in opposite directions and smashes them head on.
  3. The LHC typically uses protons, which are made up of quarks and gluons.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 14

Statement 1 is incorrect.

The Large Hadron Collider (LHC) is three things. First, it is large – so large that it’s the world’s largest science experiment. Second, it’s a collider. It accelerates two beams of particles in opposite directions and smashes them head on. Third, these particles are hadrons. The LHC, built by the European Organisation for Nuclear Research (CERN), is on the energy frontier of physics research, conducting experiments with highly energised particles.

A hadron is a subatomic particle made up of smaller particles. The LHC typically uses protons, which are made up of quarks and gluons.

Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 15

Consider the following statements regarding total lunar eclipse.

  1. A total lunar eclipse occurs when the orbits of the Earth, moon and sun align so that the moon is directly behind Earth relative to the sun.
  2. Total lunar eclipses is a rare event and occurs once in 10 to 12 years.
  3. During total lunar eclipse, reddish appearance of the lunar surface is caused by rays of sunlight around the outer edge of the eclipse shadow being filtered and refracted as it passes through Earth’s atmosphere.

Which of the above statements is/are correct? 

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 15

A total lunar eclipse occurs when the Earth casts its shadow completely over a full moon, blocking reflection of all direct sunlight from the lunar orb and dimming the color of the moon to a reddish hue, hence the term “blood moon.”

This is only possible when the orbits of the Earth, moon and sun align so that the moon is directly behind Earth relative to the sun. Otherwise, the moon passes above or below Earth’s shadow because its orbit around Earth is usually tilted relative to Earth’s orbit about the sun.

 The reddish appearance of the lunar surface — the moon does not entirely disappear from view — is caused by rays of sunlight around the outer edge of the eclipse shadow, or umbra, being filtered and refracted as it passes through Earth’s atmosphere, bathing the moon indirectly in a dim copper glow.

The degree of redness depends on atmospheric conditions that vary with levels of air pollution, dust storms, wildfire smoke and even volcanic ash.

 Total lunar eclipses occur, on average, about once every year and a half, according to NASA. But the interval varies.

Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 16

Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crimes(UNTOC).

  1. The United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is a legally non-binding instrumentadopted by the UN General Assembly.
  2. It is the first comprehensive treaty aimed at combatting human trafficking, migrant smuggling, and illicit firearms trafficking.
  3. Central Bureau of Investigationacts as the national Nodal Authority from India.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 16

Statement 1 is incorrect.

  • The United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is a global and legally binding instrumentadopted by the UN General Assembly in 2000 and enforced in 2003.
  • It is the first comprehensive treaty aimed at combatting transnational organized crime including human trafficking, migrant smuggling, and illicit firearms trafficking.
  • Currently, there are 191 parties to the Convention, including India (who joined it in 2002 and ratified it in 2011). Central Bureau of Investigationacts as the national Nodal Authority from India. India also enacted the Criminal Law Amendment Act in 2013, which specifically defines human trafficking.
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 17

Consider the following statements regarding Esports.

  1. Esports refers to organized competitive video gaming.
  2. Esports was officially debuted at the Asian Games 2023.
  3. It involves only individual games and not team games.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 17

Statement 3 is incorrect.

  • Esports officially debuted as an official event at the Asian Games 2023 (in Hangzhou, China), featuring seven top titles, including League of Legends, and involving teams from over 30 countries.
  • The competition included both PC and mobile games, covering multiplayer online battle arena (MOBA) and single-player genres. Gold medals were awarded for each game.
  • Esports, short for electronic sports, refers to organized competitive video gamingIt involves individuals or teams competing in various video games at a professional level, often in tournaments with significant prizes.
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 18

Consider the following statements regarding Rhinos.

  1. Indian Rhinos are Asia’s largest species of Rhino.
  2. In India they are found only in Assam and West Bengal.
  3. In 2022 Assam recorded zero poaching of Rhinoceros for the 1st time in nearly 40 years.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 18

Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 19

Which of the following are the sources of arsenic contamination?

  1. Intense exploitation of groundwater
  2. Weathering of rocks and minerals followed by leaching and runoff
  3. Iron coprecipitation
  4. Burning of coal

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 19

Statement 3 is incorrect.

  • The sources of arsenic are natural or may partly stem from anthropogenic activities like intense exploitation of groundwater, application of fertilizers, burning of coal and leaching of metals from coal-ash tailings.
  • Arsenic is introduced into soil and groundwater during weathering of rocks and minerals followed by subsequent leaching and runoff.
  • Among the various arsenic removal technologies, lime softening and iron coprecipitation have been reported to be the most effective.
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 20

Consider the following statements regarding the Geological Survey of India (GSI).

  1. The Geological Survey of India (GSI) declares geo-heritage sites/ national geological monuments for protection and maintenance.
  2. The Geological Survey of India (GSI) functions under the Ministry of Culture.
  3. The GSI has the power to acquire geo-relics for its preservation and maintenance.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 20
  • Statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The Geological Survey of India (GSI) declares geo-heritage sites/ national geological monuments for protection and maintenance. The GSI or the respective state governments take necessary measures to protect these sites.
  • Coming under the Ministry of Mines, the GSI was established in 1851 to investigate and assess coal and other mineral resources of the country through regional-level exploration.
  • Geoheritage sites are “sites containing geo-relics and phenomena, stratigraphic type sections, geological structures and geomorphic landforms including caves, natural rock-sculptures of national and international interest; and includes such portion of land adjoining the site,” that may be required for their conservation or to access to such sites.
  • A Geo-relic is defined as “any relic or material of a geological significance or interest like sediments, rocks, minerals, meteorite or fossils”. The GSI will have the power to acquire geo-relics “for its preservation and maintenance”.
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 21

Consider the following statements:

  1. The G4 nations primarily focus on economic cooperation and trade agreements within the Asia-Pacific region.
  2. The G4 nations are exclusively European countries seeking closer integration within the European Union.
  3. The G4 nations emerged as a coalition to combat climate change and promote sustainable development globally.

How many of the above statements about the G4 nations are true?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 21
  • The G4 nations are a group composed of Brazil, Germany, India, and Japan, which aim to support each other’s bids for permanent seats on the United Nations Security Council. These countries seek reform in the composition of the Security Council to reflect contemporary global power dynamics.
  • S1 is incorrect because the G4 nations’ main focus is not limited to economic cooperation within the Asia-Pacific region; rather, it’s centered around UN reform.
  • S2 is incorrect as the G4 nations include Brazil and India, which are not European countries.
  • S3 is incorrect because while the G4 nations might have interests in combating climate change and promoting sustainable development, this is not their primary purpose as a group.
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 22

The Mission LiFE, a global mass movement to nudge individual and community action to protect and preserve the environment,  introduced by India at 

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 22
  • Context: The United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA) adopted a resolution on sustainable lifestyles submitted by India, and co-sponsored by Sri Lanka and Bolivia.
  • Mission LiFE, introduced by India at UNFCCC COP26 (Oct 2022), aims to encourage individual and community actions for environmental preservation. It operates in three phases: changing demand by nudging individuals towards eco-friendly practices, changing supply by enabling industries to meet this demand, and changing policy to support Sustainable Consumption and Production (SCP).
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 23

Consider the following statements regarding Compressed natural gas (CNG).

  1. CNG is comprised mostly of methane gas.
  2. CNG engines run more quietly due to very low octane rating of CNG over gasoline.
  3. CNG vehicles reduce Harmful emissions such as carbon monoxide (CO), carbon dioxide (CO2) and nitrous oxide (N2O) by more than 90% when compared to gasoline powered vehicles.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 23

Statement 2 is incorrect.

Compressed natural gas, or CNG, is natural gas under pressure which remains clear, odourless, and non-corrosive – and can be used as a cheaper, greener, and more efficient alternative to the traditional petrol and diesel fuels for vehicles.

CNG is comprised mostly of methane gas which, like gasoline, produces engine power when mixed with air and fed into your engine’s combustion chamber.

CNG engines run more quietly due to the higher-octane rating of CNG over gasoline and they produce less exhaust emissions. Harmful emissions such as carbon monoxide (CO), carbon dioxide (CO2) and nitrous oxide (N2O) can be reduced by as much as 95% when compared to gasoline powered vehicles.

Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 24

As per theInterim Union Budget 2024-25, arrange the various components of the Receipts of the Government in the decreasing order.

  1. Corporation tax
  2. Non-debt capital receipts
  3. Income Tax
  4. Borrowings and other liabilities
  5. Union Excise Duties

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 24

Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 25

Gaza strip, often seen in the news, shares border with which of the following countries?

  1. Syria
  2. Israel
  3. Jordan
  4. Egypt

Select the correct answer code:

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 25

The Gaza Strip is a self-governing Palestinian territory on the eastern coast of the Mediterranean Sea. It borders Egypt on the southwest and Israel on the east and north. 

Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 26

Consider the following pairs.

  1. Commutation: Substitution of a harsher punishment with a lighter one
  2. Respite: Reducing the sentence period without changing its character
  3. Remission:Awarding a lesser sentence due to special circumstances
  4. Reprieve: Temporary stay of sentence execution to seek pardon or commutation

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 26

Statement 1 and 4 is correct.

  • Pardon: Removes sentence and conviction, absolves from all sentences, punishments, and disqualifications.
  • Commutation: Substitution of a harsher punishment with a lighter one (e.g., death sentence to rigorous imprisonment).
  • Remission: Reducing the sentence period without changing its character.
  • Respite: Awarding a lesser sentence due to special circumstances
  • Reprieve: Temporary stay of sentence execution to seek pardon or commutation
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 27

Consider the following statements regarding loan write-off.

  1. Writing off a loan essentially means it will no longer be counted as an asset, by the bank.
  2. The amount so written off does not reduce the bank’s tax liability.
  3. After the write-off, banks are not supposed to continue their efforts to recover the loan.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 27

Only statement 1 is correct.

  • Writing off a loan essentially means it will no longer be counted as an asset. By writing off loans, a bank can reduce the level of non-performing assets (NPAs) on its books. An additional benefit is that the amount so written off reduces the bank’s tax liability.
  • The bank writes off a loan after the borrower has defaulted on the loan repayment and there is a very low chance of recovery. The lender then moves the defaulted loan, or NPA, out of the assets side and reports the amount as a loss.
  • After the write-off, banks are supposed to continue their efforts to recover the loan using various options. They have to make provisioning as well. The tax liability will also come down as the written-off amount is reduced from the profit.
  • However, the chances of recovery from written-off loans are very low.
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 28

Consider the following statements regarding ONGC.

  1. It is a Navratna company contributing around 71%to the Indian domestic production.
  2. ONGC has a unique distinction of being a company with in-house service capabilities in all areas of Exploration and Production of oil & gas.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 28
  • Maharatna ONGC is the largest crude oil and natural gas Company in India, contributing around 71 per cent to Indian domestic production. Crude oil is the raw material used by downstream companies like IOC, BPCL, HPCL and MRPL (Last two are subsidiaries of ONGC) to produce petroleum products like Petrol, Diesel, Kerosene, Naphtha, and Cooking Gas LPG.
  • ONGC has a unique distinction of being a company with in-house service capabilities in all areas of Exploration and Production of oil & gas and related oil-field services.
Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 29

Consider the following statements regarding Committee on Subordinate Legislation in Rajya Sabha.

  1. It is formed as per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Businessin the Council of States.
  2. Its mandate involves scrutinizing and reporting to the House on the proper exercise of powersto make rules, regulations, and bylaws as conferred by the Constitution.
  3. The parliament cannot delegate to the committee to frame rules.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 29

Statement 3 is incorrect.

About the Committee on Subordinate Legislation in Rajya Sabha

It is formed under Rule 204 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Council of States. Its mandate involves scrutinizing and reporting to the House on the proper exercise of powers to make rules, regulations, bylaws, schemes, etc., as conferred by the Constitution or delegated by Parliament.

Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 30

Consider the following statements regarding Permafrost.

  1. Permafrost is essentially any ground that stays frozen for at least two straight months.
  2. Permafrost is composed of a combination of soil, rocks and sand that are held together by ice.
  3. Permafrost regions are always covered with snow.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 4 - Question 30

Only Statement 2 is correct.

  • Permafrost is essentially any ground that stays frozen — 0 degree Celsius or lower — for at least two years straight. These permanently frozen grounds are often found in Arctic regions such as Greenland, Alaska (the United States), Canada, Russia and Eastern Europe.
  • Permafrost is composed of “a combination of soil, rocks and sand that are held together by ice. The soil and ice in permafrost stay frozen all year long.” However, although the ground remains perennially frozen, permafrost regions aren’t always covered with snow.
  • As the Arctic is getting warmer nearly four times as fast as the rest of the planet due to climate change, permafrost is thawing rapidly. Thawing permafrost can severely impact the planet. One of its most dangerous consequences is the release of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere.
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