Karnataka (KAS) Prelims Paper-I Mock Test- 6 - KPSC KAS (Karnataka) MCQ

• Statement 3 is incorrect.
• The proposed National Research Foundation (NRF), is a new centralised body to fund research.
• The two main objectives of the NRF are to boost private sector contribution to research in India and ensure that a greater slice of the funds apportioned by the government make its way to State universities and colleges.
• The Department of Science and Technology (DST) will be the administrative department of NRF, which will be governed by a board consisting of eminent researchers and professionals across disciplines.
• NRF’s functioning will be governed by an executive council chaired by the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India.
• The NRF was envisioned as a body that would be autonomous. The money given to it wouldn’t be controlled by the general financial rules (laid down by the Ministry of Finance) and the CEO as well the board would have autonomy in directing research funds. The proposed structure, however, has both the Science Minister and Education Minister as vice-presidents. The Science Ministry will administratively control it.

• Context: Sweden has officially become the 32nd member of NATO, joining the military alliance two years after applying following Russia’s invasion of Ukraine.
  • Sweden’s NATO membership was delayed due to objections from Turkey and Hungary, but eventually received approval.
• NATO’s founding member countries were: Belgium, Canada, Denmark, France, Iceland, Italy, Luxembourg, the Netherlands, Norway, Portugal, the United Kingdom and the United States.
  

• Only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
• Context: The UN has allocated US$100 million from the Central Emergency Response Fund (CERF) to support underfunded humanitarian crises in seven countries across Africa, the Americas, and the Middle East.
• About UN Central Emergency Response Fund (CERF)
  • It was established in 2005 by the UN General Assembly to provide rapid and life-saving assistance to vulnerable populations during humanitarian crises.
  • Managed by the Emergency Relief Coordinator on behalf of the UN Secretary-General, CERF releases resources for underfunded emergencies twice a year.
  • It addresses critical funding gaps exacerbated by increased global conflicts, climate-induced disasters, and poly-crisis phenomena. The fund is replenished annually through contributions from governments, the private sector, foundations, and individuals.
  • CERF’s allocations are divided into:
    • Rapid Responses: providing immediate aid during sudden crises
    • Underfunded Emergencies support countries facing prolonged humanitarian challenges.

Statement 3 is incorrect.

• The first detection of gravitational waves was announced on February 11, 2016. These had been predicted, almost exactly a century ago by Albert Einstein as a natural consequence of his theory of gravity — the Theory of General Relativity. General Relativity implies that under certain circumstances, space itself would be stretched and compressed resulting in the production of gravitational waves — much like throwing a stone in a placid pool of water.
• Since gravitational waves were first detected by LIGO (Laser Interferometry Gravitational-wave Observatory), its detectors have observed dozens of short high-frequency gravitational wave bursts. These high-frequency waves are thought to be a result of collisions of black holes — about as massive as our Sun — as well as of neutron stars. Black holes and neutron stars are stellar remnants of stars which have exhausted their nuclear fuel.

“In the UN’s Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide, genocide means any of the following acts committed with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group, as such: (a) Killing members of the group; (b) Causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group; (c) Deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about its physical destruction in whole or in part; (d) Imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group; (e) Forcibly transferring children of the group to another group.”

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• Khaps are mainly gotra – clans tracing their paternal lineage to a common ancestor – and region-based social outfits. They derive their name either from the number of villages/clusters of villages or the gotras they represent.
• khaps used to have three kinds of functions – settle familial/village disputes, maintain/protect the tenets of the faith, and protect the area from outside invasion. Today, the last function is largely irrelevant. The major function of khaps today is to settle disputes and ensure that social and religious custom is enforced in their area.
• With regards to leadership and succession, a defining feature of khaps is that they do not have a set organisation. While earlier, succession as a khap president/leader was hereditary, now, that is not necessarily the case. To preside over a meeting of a particular khap or a group of khaps, the chairman of the same is nominated unanimously and on the spot. As largely there are no defined rules to elect president of a khap, in many cases more than one person claims to be head of a particular khap – causing fights and disputes.
• There are nearly 300 main khaps in north India – in the states of Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Delhi, Rajasthan and Uttarakhand.

Statement 3 is incorrect.

International Organization for Migration (founded 1951; HQ: Grand-Saconnex, Switzerland) is the principal United Nations agency working in the field of migration. The organization implements operational assistance programmes for migrants, including internally displaced persons, refugees, and migrant workers.

• Statement 3 is incorrect.
• India is a founding member of GPAI, having joined the multi-stakeholder initiative in June 2020. The initiative aims “to bridge the gap between theory and practice on AI by supporting cutting-edge research and applied activities on AI-related priorities.”
• It also brings together people involved in the fields of science, industry, and civil society, along with governments, international organisations and academia for greater international cooperation. The first three GPAI summits were held in Montreal, Paris and Tokyo, respectively.

Statement 1 is incorrect.

• The fourth unit of the Kakrapar Atomic Power Project (KAPP-4) in Gujarat, with a capacity of 700 MWe, achieved criticality recently, marking the initiation of a controlled fission chain reaction.
• The Kakrapar facility, houses the largest indigenous nuclear power reactors built by the Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL).
• These pressurized heavy water reactors (PHWRs) utilize natural uranium as fuel and heavy water as coolant and moderator.
• The Kakrapar Atomic Power Station includes two operating PHWRs with a capacity of 220 MWe each, known as KAPS-1 and -2.
• The NPCIL, a public sector undertaking of the Department of Atomic Energy, already operates indigenous PHWRs at other facilities.

Statement 3 is incorrect.

A reserve currency refers to any currency that is widely used in cross-border transactions and is commonly held as reserves by central banks. 

Other currencies such as the British pound and the French franc have served as international reserve currencies in the past. It should be noted that it is the currencies of economic superpowers that have usually ended up being used as the global reserve currency. As the economic clout of these countries waned, their currencies faced a similar downfall. This was the case, for example, with the British pound which was gradually replaced by the U.S. dollar as Britain lost its status as a global economic superpower in the first half of the 20th century.

Only Statement 2 is correct.

The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) is an international coalition of countries, United Nations (UN) agencies, multilateral development banks, the private sector, and academic institutions, that aims to promote disaster-resilient infrastructure. Its objective is to promote research and knowledge sharing in the fields of infrastructure risk management, standards, financing, and recovery mechanisms. It was launched by the Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi at the 2019 UN Climate Action Summit in September 2019.

• Tactical nuclear weapons are intended to destroy enemy troops and weapons on the battlefield. They have a relatively short range and a much lower yield than nuclear warheads fitted to long-range strategic missiles that are capable of obliterating whole cities.
• Unlike strategic weapons, which have been subject to arms control agreements between Moscow and Washington, tactical weapons never have been limited by any such pacts, and Russia hasn’t released their numbers or any other specifics related to them.
• The U.S. government believes Russia has about 2,000 tactical nuclear weapons, which include bombs that can be carried by aircraft, warheads for short-range missiles and artillery rounds.

Benefits of wastes to energy plants:

• In terms of volume, usually waste-to-energy plants incinerate 80 to 90 percent of waste, thus helping large cities from choking due to unmanageable waste.
• Waste to energy generates clean, reliable energy from a renewable fuel source, thus reducing dependence on fossil fuels, the combustion of which is a major contributor to Greenhouse Gas (GHG) emissions.
• Sometimes, the residue ash is clean enough to be used for some purposes such as raw materials for use in manufacturing cinder blocks or for road construction.
• Some waste-to-energy plants convert salt water to potable fresh water as a by-product of cooling processes.
• Waste-to-energy plants cause less air pollution than coal plants.
• It is carbon-negative – processing waste into biofuel releases considerably less carbon and methane into the air than having waste decay away in landfills or the lake.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

Depleted uranium is a byproduct of the process of creating enriched uranium, which is used in nuclear reactors and nuclear weapons. In comparison to enriched uranium, depleted uranium is much less radioactive and is incapable of generating a nuclear reaction. However, due to its high density — it’s more dense than lead — depleted uranium is widely used in weapons as it can easily penetrate armour plating.

Even though depleted uranium munitions aren’t considered nuclear weapons, experts suggest that such weapons must be used with caution because they emit low levels of radiation and can cause severe diseases.

Ingesting or inhaling quantities of uranium – even depleted uranium – is dangerous: it depresses renal function and raises the risk of developing a range of cancers. According to the International Coalition to Ban Uranium Weapons, depleted uranium munitions which miss their target can poison groundwater and soil.

India and Bhutan agreed to discuss new routes of regional connectivity, and upgrade border and immigration posts to support Bhutan’s 5th King Jigme Khesar Namgyel Wangchuck’s plans for a smart city at Gelephu on the border between Bhutan and Assam.

Only Statement 3 is correct.

• Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) recently released the Landslide Atlas of India, a detailed guide identifying landslide hotspots in the country.
• Landslides are natural disasters occurring mainly in mountainous terrains where there are conducive conditions of soil, rock, geology and slope. A sudden movement of rock, boulders, earth or debris down a slope is termed as a landslide. Natural causes that trigger it include heavy rainfall, earthquakes, snowmelting and undercutting of slopes due to flooding.
• Landslides can also be caused by anthropogenic activities such as excavation, cutting of hills and trees, excessive infrastructure development, and overgrazing by cattle.
• Landslides are broadly classified based on the type of materials involved (rock, debris, soil, loose mud), type of movement of the material (fall, topple, slide, rotational slide or translational slide), and type of flow of the material. Another category is of landslides that spread laterally.
• ISRO’s National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC), Hyderabad, has created a database of landslide-prone regions of India based on events during 1998 – 2022, primarily along the Himalayas and the Western Ghats. In addition to aerial images, high resolution satellite images captured using cameras Indian Remote Sensing (IRS-1D) PAN + LISS-III, satellites ResourceSat-1 and 2, etc., were used to study the landslides over the past 25 years. 
  

Statement 3 is incorrect.

• The GOBARdhan initiative, a multi-ministerial effort, aims to transform organic waste, including cattle dung, agricultural residues, and biomass, into valuable resources like biogas, CBG, and organic manure. This initiative supports high-value Biogas/CBG production and promotes the use of bio-slurry to improve soil health, carbon content, and water retention.
• The Market Development Assistance (MDA) scheme, launched by the Department of Fertilizers aims to promote the production and adoption of organic fertilizers generated from GOBARdhan plants. It seeks to encourage sustainable/organic agricultural practices, reduce reliance on chemical fertilizers, and boost the use of bio-slurry in agriculture.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• The Government of India has introduced a new set of National Awards in the field of Science, Technology, and Innovation called “Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar.”
• These awards aim to acknowledge exceptional contributions made by scientists, technologists, and innovators, whether individually or in teams, across various domains of science and technology.
• It is open to individuals working in government, private sector organizations, or independently, as well as to People of Indian Origin residing abroad whose contributions have benefited Indian society.

These awards are categorized as follows:

• Vigyan Ratna (VR) award: Recognizing lifetime achievements and contributions in any field of science and technology.
• Vigyan Shri (VS) award: Acknowledging distinguished contributions in any field of science and technology.
• Vigyan Yuva-Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar (VY-SSB) award: Encouraging young scientists under the age of 45 who have made exceptional contributions in any field of science and technology.
• Vigyan Team (VT) award: Presented to teams comprising three or more scientists, researchers, or innovators who have made exceptional contributions while working collaboratively in any field of science and technology.

The Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar covers 13 domains, including Physics, Chemistry, Biological Sciences, Mathematics & Computer Science, Earth Science, Medicine, Engineering Sciences, Agricultural Science, Environmental Science, Technology & Innovation, Atomic Energy, Space Science and Technology, and Others.

The Human Development Report (HDR) is an annual Human Development Index report published by the Human Development Report Office of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

• Both statements 1 and 2 are related to Community reserves.
• Context: Villagers in Rajasthan oppose the state government’s proposal to classify sacred groves known as orans as deemed forests, fearing loss of access and livelihood. The notification, released on February 1, 2024, aims to give orans the status of deemed forests as per Supreme Court directives.
• Sacred groves are relic forest patches traditionally protected by communities in reverence of a deity. They are important repositories of forest biodiversity, providing refuge to many plant and animal species of conservation significance. India has over 13,000 documented sacred groves. These groves are known by different names in different regions, such as Kavu/Sarpa Kavu in Kerala, Devarakadu/Devkad in Karnataka, and Deorai/Devrai in Maharashtra.

• Only statement 3 is correct.
• It is an atoll, comprising two islands, North and South Agalega. It is governed by Mauritius and used by India for various purposes. Despite this, it remains under the sovereignty of Mauritius. A 2015 memorandum of understanding on India–Mauritius military cooperation envisaged developing the Agaléga islands for an Indian military base.

Statement 1 is incorrect.

• A heat dome occurs when an area of high-pressure traps warm air over a region, just like a lid on a pot, for an extended period of time. The longer that air remains trapped, the more the sun works to heat the air, producing warmer conditions with every passing day. Heat domes generally stay for a few days but sometimes they can extend up to weeks, which might cause deadly heat waves.
• Scientists suggest that any region of high pressure, whether a heat dome or not, forces air to sink and once it reaches the ground, it gets compressed and becomes even warmer. Moreover, when air sinks, it gets drier and further raises the temperature of the area.
• The heat dome’s formation is related to the behaviour of the jet stream — an area of fast-moving air high in the atmosphere. The jet stream is believed to have a wave-like pattern that keeps moving from north to south and then north again. When these waves get bigger and elongated, they move slowly and sometimes can become stationary. This is when a high-pressure system gets stuck and leads to the occurrence of a heat dome.
• Although heat domes are likely to have always existed, researchers say that climate change may be making them more intense and longer. They suggest with the rising temperatures, it is expected that the jet stream will become more wavy and will have larger deviations, causing more frequent extreme heat events.

Statement 1 is incorrect.

• The Subika painting style is deeply connected to the Meitei community’s cultural historythrough its six surviving manuscripts – Subika, Subika Achouba, Subika Laishaba, Subika Choudit, Subika Cheithil and Thengrakhel Subika.
• The paintings are a composition of cultural motifs created by pre-existing features and other influences. However, the Subika painting style is nearly extinct due to neglect.
• The Subika Laishaba is a composition of cultural motifs influenced by the cultural worldviews of the community.
• Its illustrations incorporate visual elements like lines, shapes, forms, colours, and patterns.
• These visual images serve as cultural motifs, creating visual effects and expressing cultural significance.
• The paintings are done on handmade paper, and the materials for manuscripts, such as handmade paper or tree bark, are prepared locally.
  

Article 25 lays down an individual’s fundamental right to religion; Article 26(b) upholds the right of each religious denomination or any section thereof to “manage its own affairs in matters of religion”; Article 29 defines the right to conserve distinctive culture. An individual’s freedom of religion under Article 25 is subject to “public order, health, morality” and other provisions relating to fundamental rights, but a group’s freedom under Article 26 has not been subjected to other fundamental rights. 

• As the Government of India presses ahead with its plan to internationalise the Indian Rupee (INR), an Inter-Departmental Group (IDG) of officials of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) have in a report cautioned that internationalisation may result in increased volatility in the rupee’s exchange rate in the initial stages.
• “This would further have monetary implications as the obligation of a country to supply its currency to meet the global demand may come in conflict with its domestic monetary policies, popularly known as the Triffin dilemma,” the IDG wrote.
• The Triffin dilemma or Triffin paradox is the conflict of economic interests that arises between short-term domestic and long-term international objectives for countries whose currencies serve as global reserve currencies. 

Only statement 3 is correct.

Diesel was promoted as a green-friendly auto fuel as part of the European Union’s response to the Kyoto Protocol (1997) to reduce carbon-dioxide emissions. While diesel as a fuel contains a little more carbon per litre than petrol, diesel engines are more “lean-burn”, which means they use a smaller amount of fuel to produce the same level of performance as a petrol engine.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• Parliament can also constitute a Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) with a special purpose, with members from both Houses, for detailed scrutiny of a subject or Bill. Also, either of the two Houses can set up a Select Committee with members from that House. JPCs and Select Committees are usually chaired by ruling party MPs, and are disbanded after they have submitted their report.
• The time to speak on a Bill is allocated according to the size of the party in the House. MPs often do not get adequate time to put forward their views in Parliament, even if they are experts on the subject. Committees are small groups with relatively less demands on their time; in these meetings, every MP gets a chance and the time to contribute to the discussion. Parliament has only around 100 sittings a year; Committee meetings are independent of Parliament’s calendar.
•  There are 16 Departmentally Related Standing Committees for Lok Sabha and eight for Rajya Sabha; however, every Committee has members from both Houses. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha panels are headed by members of these respective Houses.

Only Statement 3 is correct.

Jallikattu, also known as eruthazhuvuthal, is a bull-taming sport traditionally played in Tamil Nadu as part of the Pongal harvest festival. The festival is a celebration of nature, and thanksgiving for a bountiful harvest, of which cattle-worship is part.

The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws and promotes animal welfare in the country. Established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960.

Entry 17 of List III of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution which relates to the prevention of cruelty to animals.

Statement 3 is incorrect.