Goa PCS Screening Mock Test- 4 - GPSC (Goa) MCQ

The main form of political work by the early Communists was to organize the peasants‘ and workers‘ parties, and work through them. The basic objective of the Workers‘ and Peasants‘ Party (WPP) was to work within the Congress to give it a more radical orientation. The first such organization was the Labour-Swaraj Party of the Indian National Congress, organized by Muzaffar Ahmed, Qazi Nazrul Islam, Hemanta Kumar Sarkar and others in Bengal in November, 1925.

• In late 1926, a Congress Labour Party was formed in Bombay and a Kirti- Kisan Party in Punjab. A Labour Kisan Party of Hindustan had been functioning in Madras since 1923.
• By 1928, all of these provincial organizations had been renamed the Workers‘ and Peasants‘ Party (WPP) and knit into an All India party. All Communists were the members of this party. Moreover, Jawaharlal Nehru and other radical Congressmen welcomed the WPPs’ efforts to radicalize the Congress. In 1924, the Government had tried to cripple the nascent Communist Movement by trying S.A. Dange, Muzaffar Ahmed, Nalini Gupa and Shaukat Usmani in the Kanpur Bolshevik Conspiracy Case. All four were sentenced to four years of imprisonment.

• By 1929, the government was deeply worried about the rapidly growing Communist influence in the National and Trade Union Movements.
• It decided to strike hard. In a sudden swoop, in March, 1929, it arrested 32 radical political and trade union activists, including three British Communists — Philip Spratt, Ben Bradley and Lester Hutchinson — who had come to India to help organize the Trade Union Movement.
• The basic aim of the government was to behead the Trade Union Movement and to isolate the Communists from the National Movement.
• The 32 accused were put up for trial at Meerut.
• The Meerut Conspiracy Case was soon to become a cause celebre.
• The defence of the prisoners was to be taken up by many nationalists, including Jawaharlal Nehru, M.A. Ansari and M.C. Chagla. Gandhiji visited the Meerut prisoners in the jail to show his solidarity with them and to seek their co-operation in the coming struggle.

• Many Indians had been planning to form an all-India organization of nationalist political workers. But, the credit for giving the idea concrete and final shape goes to A.O. Hume, a retired English Civil Servant. He got in touch with the prominent Indian leaders and organized with their cooperation the first Session of the Indian National Congress at Bombay in December, 1885. It was presided over by W.C. Bonnerjee, and attended by 72 delegates.
• It has been said that Hume‘s main purpose in encouraging the foundation of the Congress was to provide a safety valve‘ or a safe outlet to the growing discontent among the educated Indians. He wanted to prevent the union of a discontented nationalist intelligentsia with a discontented peasantry.
• The Safety Valve Theory is, however, a small part of the truth, and is totally inadequate and misleading. The Indian leaders, who cooperated with Hume in starting this National Congress, were patriotic men of high character, who willingly accepted Hume‘s help, as they did not want to arouse official hostility towards their efforts at so early a stage of political activity and they hoped that a retired Civil Servant‘s active presence would allay official suspicions. If Hume wanted to use the Congress as a safety valve‘, the early Congress leaders hoped to use him as a lightning conductor‘.

• Option (a) is incorrect: Raleigh Commission: The Viceroy filled with imperialistic design was not in favor of giving any power to the Indians. He concluded the Indian Universities and the college were slowly becoming cradle of Propaganda against the Government. So, with an idea to bring the Universities under control, Lord Curzon appointed Raleigh Commission under Sir Thomas Raleigh.

• Option (b) is incorrect: Mahalwari System: In Mahalwari system, all the properties of a Mahal were jointly and severally responsible, in their persons and property, for the sum assessed by the government on that Mahal. If the number of the proprietors was large, some of them were made representatives of all. The ownership and occupancy right was reserved for individual peasants. Even cultivation was to be done individually. But for the payment of the land revenue, the peasants were jointly responsible. Usually the village as a whole would be designated a Mahal and it paid the revenue via its headman called Lambardar. Thus, Lambardars worked as a link between the individual tillers and the government, but they were not given rights like those of Zamindars under permanent settlement.

• Option (c) is correct: Permanent Settlement: In permanent settlement, fixed revenue demand would give zamindars a sense of security and, assured of returns on their investment, encourage them to improve their estates. Initial demands were very high. The revenue was invariable, regardless of the harvest, and had to be paid punctually. In fact, according to the Sunset Law, if payment did not come in by sunset of the specified date, the zamindari was liable to be auctioned.

• Option (d) is incorrect: Macdonnell Commission: When the people were dying out of starvation and diseases, a MacDonnell Commission was appointed by Lord Curzon in 1901 which submitted its report in the same year. This commission came out with a “Moral Strategy”, distribution of advances and loans to the peasants and setting up a Famine Commissioner in the famine affected province.

Statement 2 is incorrect. In 1883, Surendranath Banerjea became the first Indian journalist to be imprisoned. In an angry editorial in The Bengalee Banerjea had criticised a judge

• Cabinet Ministers are usually top-level leaders of the ruling party or parties in charge of the major ministries.
• Since it is not practical for all ministers to meet regularly and discuss everything, the decisions are taken in Cabinet meetings. The cabinet works as a team.
• The ministers may have different views and opinions, but everyone has to own up to the Cabinet's decision. No minister can openly criticise the government's decision, even if it is about another Ministry or Department. Every ministry has secretaries, who are civil servants. The secretaries provide the necessary background information to the ministers to take decisions.

Special Provisions relating to certain classes are class-specific and not gender-specific. The

Option is more generic and does not relate to the protection given to the girl child in the

question. So, Option (b) is not correct.

In Fundamental duties apart from providing opportunities for education to a child, no specific

provision is given to protect the interest of a girl child. So, Option (c) is not correct.

Article 12 has defined the term for the purposes of Part III. According to it, the State includes the following:

(a) Government and Parliament of India i.e. executive and legislative organs of the Union government.

(b) Government and legislature of states i.e. executive and legislative organs of state government.

(c) All local authorities i.e. municipalities, panchayats, district boards, improvement trusts, etc.

(d) All other authorities i.e. statutory or non-statutory authorities like LIC, ONGC, SAIL, etc.

Thus, State has been defined in a wider sense so as to include all its agencies. It is the actions of these agencies that can be challenged in the courts as violating the Fundamental Rights.

According to the Supreme Court, even a private body or an agency working as an instrument of the State falls within the meaning of the ‘State’ under Article 12. High Court does not comes under article 12 of Indian constitution.

• Though the Directive Principles are non-justiciable, the Constitution (Article 37) makes it clear that these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws.

• The framers of the Constitution made the Directive Principles non-justiciable and legally non-enforceable because:

• The country did not possess sufficient financial resources to implement them. To implement all the directive principles the newly formed independent state would require an enormous amount of financial resources and this would be a challenge to the country. Keeping in this regard they were made non-justiciable. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The presence of vast diversity and backwardness in the country would stand in the way of their implementation. The directive principles are so diverse in character and constitutional makers felt that making them justiciable may create obstacles for the newly independent country as some of the directive principles like the Uniform Civil Code were opposed by some communities. They wanted to give the state sufficient time and a place of choosing to India's future leaders implement them. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Fundamental rights already have been made justiciable and making Directive principles justiciable will be meaningless. Hence statement 3 is not correct as making Directive Principles justiciable will not be meaningless and in fact making them justiciable can create a socially just and egalitarian society. They were not made justiciable for the above two reasons.

• The Constitution makers, therefore, taking a pragmatic view, refrained from giving teeth to these principles. They believed more in an awakened public opinion rather than in court procedures as the ultimate sanction for the fulfilment of these principles.

administrative officers cannot act in violation of the policies adopted by the legislature. It is the responsibility of the ministers to retain political control over the administration.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Administrative machinery in India comprises of Permanent Executive. It is not composed of the Political appointees of the government in power. India has established professional administrative machinery. At the same time, this machinery is made politically accountable. The bureaucracy is also expected to be politically neutral. This means that the bureaucracy will not take any political position on policy matters.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Other than the civil servants belonging to the State services, All India Services officers like IAS, IPS and IFS work under the supervision of the State governments but they can be removed only by the Central government.

An IAS or IPS officer is assigned to a particular State, where he or she works under the supervision of the State government. However, the IAS or IPS officers are appointed by the central government, they can go back into the service of the central government and most importantly, only the central government can take disciplinary action against them. This means that the key administrative officers of the States are under the supervision and control of the central government.

According to article 311, no person who is a member of a civil service of the Union or an all-India service or a civil service of a State or holds a civil post under the Union or a State shall be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to that by which he was appointed.

SVAMITVA scheme

The scheme seeks to achieve the following objectives: -

• Creation of accurate land records for rural planning and reduce property related disputes.
• To bring financial stability to the citizens in rural India by enabling them to use their property as a financial asset for taking loans and other financial benefits.
• Determination of property tax, which would accrue to the GPs directly in States where it is devolved or else, add to the State exchequer.
• Creation of survey infrastructure and GIS maps that can be leveraged by any department for their use.
• To support in preparation of better-quality Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP) by making use of GIS maps
• CORS network would help in benchmarking the location and provides 5 centimetre level accuracy. It supports in accurate Geo-referencing, ground truthing and demarcation of lands. This would be Creation of Public Infrastructure of 567 CORS stations, i.e. a geo-positioning infrastructure under the Scheme which can be used to replace the chain surveys practiced in several States.

Cabinet Committees are of two types - standing and ad hoc. The standing committees are permanent in nature, while ad hoc committees are temporary and constituted from time to time to deal with special problems.

Cabinet Committees are of two types - standing and ad hoc. The standing committees are permanent in nature, while ad hoc committees are temporary and constituted from time to time to deal with special problems.

The Political Affairs Committee is responsible for dealing with all policy matters related to domestic and foreign affairs.

The Appointments Committee is responsible for deciding all higher-level appointments in the Central Secretariat, Public Enterprises, Banks, and Financial Institutions.

Agenda 21 consists of a series of recommendations and goals related to various aspects of environmental protection and sustainable development, including climate change, biodiversity, land degradation, and poverty eradication. It is not related to human rights, nuclear disarmament, or the election of the president of SAARC.

Secondly, it will open avenues of additional income for dairy farmers from the sale of slurry/ dung. Thirdly, efficient manure management promotes general well-being & cleanliness and contributes to increasing the productive economic life cycle of the milch animals beyond milking. Thereby helping tackle the problem of stray cattle & lowering GHG emissions.

• The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) was established on 1st July, 1916 to promote survey, exploration and research leading to the advancement in our knowledge of various aspects of exceptionally rich wildlife of the erstwhile ́British Indian Empire ́. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• The survey has its genesis in the establishment of the Zoological Section of the Indian Museum at Calcutta in 1875.

• The Zoological Survey of India and the Botanical Survey of India have surveyed more than 70% of the total geographical area of India for the assessment of total number of species of plants and animals. So far, about 81,000 species of animals and 49,000 species of plants, have been recorded by these two institutions, respectively.

• The objectives of ZSI are classified as follows:

  • Primary Objectives

  • Exploration, Survey, Inventorying and Monitoring of faunal diversity in various States,

  • Ecosystems and Protected areas of India.

  • Taxonomic studies of all faunal components collected.

  • Periodic review of the Status of Threatened and Endemic species.

  • Preparation of Red Data Book, Fauna of India and Fauna of States.

  • Bioecological studies on selected important communities/species.

  • Preparation of databases for the recorded species of the country.

  • Maintenance & Development of National Zoological Collections.

  • Training, Capacity Building and Human Resource Development.

  • Faunal Identification, Advisory services and Library Services.

  • Publication of results including Fauna of India and Fauna of States.

• Secondary Objectives:

  • Environmental Impact Studies.

  • Maintenance and Development of Museum at Headquarters and Regional Stations.

  • Development of ENVIS and CITES Centers.

  • Research Fellowship, Associateship and Emeritus Scientist Programmes.

  • Collaborative research programmes on Biodiversity with other Organizations.

  • GIS and Remote Sensing studies for animal diversity as well as for selected threatened species.

  • Chromosomal Mapping and DNA finger printing.

• The All India Tiger Estimation done quadrennially is steered by the National Tiger Conservation Authority with technical backstopping from the Wildlife Institute of India and implemented by State Forest Departments and partners. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

• Recently, the fourth cycle of the All India Tiger Estimation 2018, results of which were declared to the nation on Global Tiger Day last year by Prime Minister has entered the Guinness World Record for being the world’s largest camera trap wildlife survey.

• Wetland types found in coastal watersheds include salt marshes, bottomland hardwood swamps, fresh marshes, mangrove swamps, etc.

• Flood Protection: Coastal wetlands protect upland areas, including valuable residential and commercial property, from flooding due to sea-level rise and storms. Hence option 4 is correct.

• Coastal wetlands provide habitat for many federally threatened and endangered species, They act as a habitat for migratory birds and animals. Hence option 1 is correct.

• Coastal Wetlands can improve water quality by removing pollutants from surface waters. Three pollutant removal processes provided by wetlands are particularly important: sediment trapping, nutrient removal, and chemical detoxification. Hence option 3 is correct.

• Recharges a drinking water source, such as a wellhead or source protection area. Reduces levels of contaminants in surface waters that recharge underlying or adjacent groundwaters such as wells. Hence option 4 is correct.

• Enhances or protects water quality through chemical action, by the removal of nutrients, by the retention or removal of sediments or organic matter, or by moderating the adverse water quality effects of soil erosion or stormwater runoff.

Statement 1 and 2 are correct:

What is Ambergris?

• Ambergris means grey amber in French, is a waxy substance that originates from the digestive system of sperm whales.
• The freshly passed ambergris is a light yellowish substance and is fatty but as it ages it turns waxy and gets red-brownish, sometimes with shades of grey and black in colour and attains a mild, earthy, sweet smell but still with notes of mild marine odour.
• Due to its high value in the market, ambergris is often called the ‘floating gold’ and ‘treasure of the sea’.
• Ambergris is a rare substance, which contributes to its high demand and high price in the international market.
• Traditionally, it is used to produce perfumes which have notes of musk.

Statement 3 is not correct: There is a ban on the possession and trade of ambergris in countries like the USA, Australia and India but in several other countries it is a tradable commodity, though with limitations in some of them.

• An exothermic reaction is a chemical reaction that involves the release of energy in the form of heat or light. Thus in an exothermic reaction, energy is transferred into the surroundings rather than taking energy from the surroundings as in an endothermic reaction.
• Formation of clouds is due to the condensation of water vapour. As heat is released during the conversion of gas into a liquid and from liquid to solid (snow), it is an exothermic reaction.
• When liquid water is heated that means heat is taken. So, it is an endothermic reaction. Latent heat of vaporization makes heat content in the stem greater than in liquid water at 1000 degree celcius.
• The process of rusting iron is an exothermic reaction. It's because the rust-producing process between iron and damp air releases a lot of heat. However, the reaction normally takes place at such a sluggish rate that the release of heat is barely apparent.

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

• Diamond and Graphite, both are allotropes of carbon. These minerals chemically consist of carbon atoms with different physical properties. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Graphite is soft with a greasy touch and is utilized as a lubricant in the form of dispersion material or powder. Diamond is the hardest naturally occurring substance and is used in making tools that are utilized for grinding, cutting, drilling, etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Graphite is used in the manufacture of electrodes of carbon employed in electrolytic cells, as it is an excellent conductor of electricity. In a Diamond, each carbon atom is attached to the other four carbon atoms through strong covalent bonds. Due to the absence of free electrons, a diamond is a poor electrical conductor. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect.

About the NISAR:

• NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR) represents a first-of-its-kind collaboration between NASA and ISRO for an Earth-observing mission.
• Launch: The radar satellite is set to launch in 2024,
• Aim: To monitor changes in Earth’s frozen regions, including ice sheets, glaciers and sea ice.
• Collaboration: NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory will lead the US component and provide the mission’s L-band SAR
  • ISRO’s UR Rao Satellite Centre and Space Applications Centre will contribute the spacecraft bus, launch vehicle and S-band SAR electronics.
• It will employ two radar systems, an L-band and an S-band, to penetrate clouds and darkness, offering comprehensive data even during polar winter nights, making it a valuable tool for allweather observations.
• NISAR will also shed light on the dynamics of sea ice near both the poles which are critical to understand global climate patterns.

• Most plants have roots, stems and leaves. These are called the vegetative parts of a plant. There are several ways by which plants produce their offspring. These are categorised into two types: (i) asexual, and (ii) sexual reproduction. In asexual reproduction plants can give rise to new plants without seeds, whereas in sexual reproduction, new plants are obtained from seeds.
• Vegetative propagation
  • It is a type of asexual reproduction in which new plants are produced from roots, stems, leaves and buds.
  • Since reproduction is through the vegetative parts of the plant, it is known as vegetative propagation.
  • For example- potato, Ginger, Sweet potato. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Budding
  • It is an asexual reproduction method in which a new organism develops from a bud of an existing organism.
  • Until the new organism matures, it remains attached to the parent organism.
  • The newly developed organism remains attached as it grows further. It is separated from the par ent organism when it gets matured by leaving scar tissues behind.
  • As this is asexual reproduction, the newly developed organism is a replica of the parent and is genetically identical. Bacteria, yeast, corals, flatworms, Jellyfish and sea anemones are some animal species which reproduce through budding.
• Fragmentation
  • It is a form of asexual reproduction or cloning, where an organism is split into fragments.
  • Each of these fragments develops into mature, fully grown individuals that are clones of the origi nal organism.
  • When water and nutrients are available algae grow and multiply rapidly by fragmentation.
  • An alga breaks up into two or more fragments. These fragments or pieces grow into new individuals. This process continues and they cover a large area in a short period of time. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
• Pollination
  • Generally, pollen grains have a tough protective coat which prevents them from drying up.
  • Since pollen grains are light, they can be carried by wind or water.
  • Insects visit flowers and carry away pollen on their bodies. Some of the pollen lands on the stigma of a flower of the same kind.
  • The transfer of pollen from the anther to the stigma of a flower is called pollination.
  • If the pollen lands on the stigma of the same flower or another flower of the same plant, it is called self-pollination. When the pollen of a flower lands on the stigma of a flower of a different plant of the same kind, it is called cross-pollination.
  • Tomatoes are self-pollinating, meaning they have flowers that contain both the male and female parts, so more than one plant is not needed for reproduction.

Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.

The p-Block Elements comprise those belonging to Group 13 to 18 and these together with the s-Block Elements are called the Representative Elements or Main Group Elements.
At the end of each period in a periodic table is a noble gas element with a closed valence shell. All the orbitals in the valence shell of the noble gases are completely filled by electrons and it is very difficult to alter this stable arrangement by the addition or removal of electrons. The noble gases thus exhibit very low chemical reactivity.
Noble gases have uses that are derived from their other chemical properties. The very low boiling points and melting points of the noble gases make them useful in the study of matter at extremely low temperatures. Therefore often used for specific industrial processes.

• The low solubility of helium in fluids leads to its admixture with oxygen for breathing by deep-sea divers: because helium does not dissolve in the blood, it does not form bubbles upon decompression (as nitrogen does, leading to the condition known as decompression sickness, or the bends).
• Xenon has been used as an anesthetic; although it is costly, it is non-flammable and readily eliminated from the body.
• Radon is highly radioactive; its only uses have been those that exploit this property (e.g., radiation therapy). (Oganesson is also radioactive, but, since only a few atoms of this element have thus far been observed, its physical and chemical properties cannot be documented.).
• Krypton is used in fluorescent bulbs, flashbulbs, and lasers. Lamps filled with krypton are used at some airports as approach lights since their light can penetrate dense fog unusually well.
• Neon is also used as fog lights. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

• Neora Valley National Park, nestled in the Eastern Himalayas of West Bengal, India, is a pristine biodiversity hotspot. Spanning around 88 square kilometers.
• The park is characterized by dense forests, gushing rivers, and diverse flora and fauna. Home to elusive species like the Red Panda, Himalayan Tahr, and numerous avian species, it attracts nature enthusiasts and researchers alike.
• The park’s elevation, ranging from 183 to 3,200 meters, contributes to its rich ecological diversity. With its breathtaking landscapes and unique wildlife,
• Neora Valley National Park stands as a conservation haven, preserving the natural treasures of the Eastern Himalayan region.

A recent image captured by trap cameras in the Neora Valley National Park in the hills of West Bengal has confirmed the presence of Royal Bengal Tigers at an altitude of 10,509 feet above sea level.

Lamarckism (or Lamarckian inheritance) is the idea that an organism can pass one characteristic that it acquired during its lifetime to its offspring (also known as the inheritance of acquired character). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Lamarck incorporated the following two ideas into his theory of evolution:

• Use and disuse of organs- Individuals lose characteristics which they do not require (or use) and develop characteristics which they do not require (or use) and develop characteristics that are useful. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Inheritance acquired traits- Individuals inherit the traits of their ancestors. Darwin's theory (Natural selection) has been supported by a lot of evidence. Lamarck's Theory of Inheritance of Acquired Characteristics has been disproved. This was done in two major ways. The first is by experiment. We have seen through many real examples and observations that changes that occur in an animal during life are not passed on to the animal's offspring. If a dog's ears are cropped short, its puppies are stillborn with long ears. If someone exercises every day, runs marathons, eats well, and is generally very healthy, the fitness is not passed on and the person's children still have to work just as hard to get that fit and healthy. These and other examples show that Lamarck's theory does not explain how life formed and became the way it is. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

About Cigaritis meghamalaiensis

• It is the new species of butterfly.
• It has become the first butterfly species to be described from the Western Ghats in 33 years.
• The researchers had first come across the distinct species belonging to the Cigaritis genus in the high elevations of Periyar in Idukki in 2018.
• Further explorations have revealed the species to be confined to the Meghamalais and the adjoining Periyar Tiger Reserve.
• Appearance
• The discal and post-discal bands on the forewing underside of the adult butterfly are conjoined and lie parallel from their origin at the costa.
• The unique feature distinguishes the new species from all other Cigaritis occurring in Peninsular India and Sri Lanka
• There are seven species of Cigaritisin the Western Ghats, viz., C. vulcanus, C. schistacea, C. ictis, C. elima elima, C. lohita lazularia, C. lilacinus, and C. abnormis. Of these, all except C. lilacinus have been reported from the southern Western Ghats.

The pristine hills of the Meghamalai in Tamil Nadu have thrown up a new species of ‘silverline’ butterflies.

Statement 1 is not correct: Moon’s interior is dynamic: Findings from Chandrayan 1 also showed 
that the Moon’s interior was dynamic and interacted with the exosphere, contrary to the belief 
that it was dormant.

• The terrain mapping camera found evidence of volcanic vent, lava pond, and lava channels as recent as 100 million years old, indicating recent volcanic activity. 
• Measurements of carbon dioxide by the MIP also pointed towards de-gassing from the surface. This shows an interaction of the lunar surface with the exosphere even in the absence of impacts by meteors.

Statement 2 is correct: Distribution of gas in lunar atmosphere: Chandrayaan 2 confirmed that  the Argon-40 (Ar-40) exists in the lunar exosphere but the knowledge of its distribution at higher latitudes was lacking. The findings were crucial for developing insights into the dynamics of the  lunar exosphere.

Statement 3 is correct: Mission experiments of Chandrayaan 3. The lander has four experiments 
on board.

• Study of the electrons and ions near the surface of the moon and how they change over time.
• The thermal properties of the lunar surface near the polar region. Chandrayaan-3 has landed  around 70 degree south latitude, the closest that any spacecraft has reached to the lunar south pole.
• To measure the lunar quakes near the landing site and study the composition of the Moon’s crust and mantle.
• The LASER Retroreflector Array (LRA) is a passive experiment sent by NASA that acts as a target for lasers for very accurate measurements for future missions.