Goa PCS Screening Mock Test- 6 - GPSC (Goa) MCQ

• Statement 1 is correct: Historians have observed that the idea of finding an ocean route to India had become an obsession for Prince Henry of Portugal, who was nicknamed the ‘Navigator’.

• Statement 2 is correct: In 1453, Constantinople fell to the Ottoman Turks, due to which merchandise trade from India to the European markets came under Arab Muslim intermediaries. The Red Sea trade route was a state monopoly from which Islamic rulers earned tremendous revenues.

• Statement 3 is correct: In 15th Century, Europe had made great advances in the art of ship-building and navigation. Hence, there was eagerness all over Europe for adventurous sea voyages to reach the unknown corners of the East.

• The British Government summoned the first Round Table Conference of Indian leaders and spokesmen of the British Government in London in 1930 to discuss Simon Commission Report. The National Congress boycotted the Conference.

• The Government now made attempts to negotiate an agreement with the Congress so that it would attend the Round Table Conference. Finally, the Pact was signed by Gandhiji on behalf of the Congress and by Lord Irwin on behalf of the Government, a procedure that was hardly popular with officialdom as it placed the Congress on an equal footing with the Government.

• The terms of the agreement included:

  • the immediate release of all political prisoners not convicted for violence,

  • the remission of all fines not yet collected,

  • the return of confiscated lands not yet sold to third parties, and

  • lenient treatment for those government employees who had resigned.

• The Government also conceded the right to make salt for consumption to villages along the coast, as also the right to peaceful and non-aggressive picketing. The Congress demand for a public inquiry into police excesses was not accepted, but Gandhiji’s insistent request for an inquiry was recorded in the agreement. Congress, on its part, agreed to discontinue the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Hence option (b) is not the correct answer.

• Rural indebtedness and large-scale alienation of agricultural land to non-cultivating classes was a countrywide phenomenon in rural India during the last quarter of the 19th century. Faced with peasant uprisings in Bengal and Maharashtra the Government could not wait for a similar rebellion in Punjab before it would act. The communal complexion of the Punjab rural situation and the martial character of the Sikhs called for early effective action.
  • Following its annexation by the British in 1847, Punjab province witnessed several significant developments—individualization of property rights in land, fixation and rigorous collection of land revenue in cash, the introduction of a new legal-administrative system, construction of a road and railway network, canal-building activities and a colonization program, commercialization of agriculture and increased monetization of economic transactions.
  • These developments created a situation which, in turn, gave rise to two related problems –agricultural indebtedness and land transfer.
• As early as 1895 the Government addressed a circular to the provincial governments suggesting the advisability of imposing restrictions on the alienation of agricultural land. The famines of 1896-97 and 1899-1900 resulted in large-scale distress and brought the matter into sharp focus. The Punjab Land Alienation Act, 1900 was passed "as an experimental measure " to be extended to the rest of the country if it worked successfully in Punjab.
  • The Act divided the Punjab population under three heads viz., the agricultural classes, the statutory agriculturist class (those who though not belonging to the agricultural class long settled interests in the land) and the rest of the population including the moneylenders.
  • Restrictions were imposed on the sale and mortgage of the land from the first category to the other two categories, though members of the second and third category could sell or mortgage land as they pleased.
  • The Punjab peasant was also given partial relief against the oppressive incidence of land revenue demand by the Government whereby the state land revenue demand was not to exceed 50% of the annual rental value of the land.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

• Mahatma Gandhi was requested by Rajkumar Shukla, a local man, to look into the problems of the farmers in the context of indigo planters of Champaran in Bihar. Gandhi went to Champaran with Rajkumar early in 1917 accompanied by Rajendra Prasad, Mazhar-ul-Haq, Mahadev Desai, Narhari Parekh, and J.B. Kripalani.
• Whereas, Indulal Yajnik assisted Gandhi in Kheda satyagraha. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
• Mahatma Gandhi was assisted in Kheda Satyagraha by Sardar Vallabhai Patel and other local lawyers and advocates such as Indulal Yagnik, Shankarlal Banker, Mahadev Desai, Narhari Parikh, Mohanlal Pandya, and Ravi Shankar Vyas. Anasuya Sarabhai also played a major role in the Kheda satyagraha and was also one of the first signatories of the ‘Satyagraha Pledge’ created by Gandhi to oppose the Rowlatt Bill. So, Statement 2 is correct.
• Gandhi organized the third campaign in Ahmedabad where he intervened in a dispute between the mill owners and workers. Gandhi knew Ambalal Sarabhai, a millowner, as the latter had financially helped Gandhi’s Ashram. Moreover, Ambalal’s sister Anasuya Sarabhai had reverence for Gandhi. He was assisted by Anasuya Sarabhai organized daily mass meetings of workers, in which he delivered lectures and issued a series of leaflets on the situation. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information:

MAHATMA GANDHI
Champaran Satyagraha

• The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was the first Satyagraha movement led by Gandhi in India and is considered a historically important revolt in the Indian Independence Movement.
• It was a farmer's uprising that took place in the Champaran district of Bihar, India, during the British colonial period. The farmers were protesting against having to grow indigo with barely any payment for it.
• When Gandhi returned to India from South Africa in 1915 and saw peasants in northern India oppressed by indigo planters, he tried to use the same methods that he had used in South Africa to organize mass uprisings by people to protest against injustice.
• Champaran Satyagraha was the first popular satyagraha movement.
• Other popular leaders associated with Champaran Satyagraha were Brajkishore Prasad, Anugrah Narayan Sinha, Ramnavmi Prasad, and Shambhusharan Varma.

Kheda Satyagraha

• Because of the drought in 1918, the crops failed in the Kheda district of Gujarat.
• According to the Revenue Code, if the yield was less than one-fourth of the normal
• production, the farmers were entitled to remission.
• The Gujarat Sabha, consisting of the peasants, submitted petitions to the highest governing authorities of the province requesting that the revenue assessment for the year 1919 be suspended.
• The government, however, remained adamant and said that the property of the farmers would be seized if the taxes were not paid.
• Gandhi asked the farmers not to pay taxes.
• Gandhi, however, was mainly the spiritual head of the struggle.
• It was Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and a group of other devoted Gandhians, namely, Narahari Parikh, Mohanlal Pandya, and Ravi Shankar Vyas, who went around the villages, organized the villagers and told them what to do, and gave the necessary political leadership.
• Patel, along with his colleagues, organized the tax revolt which the different ethnic and caste communities of Kheda supported.
• The revolt was remarkable in that discipline and unity were maintained.
• Even when, on non-payment of taxes, the government seized the farmers’ personal property, land, and livelihood, a vast majority of Kheda’s farmers did not desert Sardar Patel.
• Those Indians who sought to buy the confiscated lands were socially ostracised.
• Ultimately, the government sought to bring about an agreement with the farmers.
• It agreed to suspend the tax for the year in question, and for the next; reduce the rate increase, and return all the confiscated property.
• The struggle at Kheda brought a new awakening among the peasantry.
• They became aware that they would not be free of injustice and exploitation unless and until their country achieved complete independence.

Ahmedabad mill strike

• In March 1918, Gandhi intervened in a dispute between cotton mill owners of Ahmedabad and the workers over the issue of discontinuation of the plague bonus.
• The mill owners wanted to withdraw the bonus.
• The workers were demanding a rise of 50 percent in their wages so that they could manage in the times of wartime inflation (which doubled the prices of food grains, cloth, and other necessities) caused by Britain’s involvement in World War I.
• The mill owners were ready to give only a 20 percent wage hike.
• The workers went on strike. The relations between the workers and the m ill owners worsened with the striking workers being arbitrarily dismissed and the mill owners deciding to bring in weavers from Bombay.
• The workers of the mill turned to Anusuya Sarabhai for help in fighting for justice.
• Anusuya Sarabhai was a social worker who was also the sister of Ambalal Sarabhai, one of the mill owners and the president of the Ahmedabad Mill Owners Association (founded in 1891 to develop the textile industry in Ahmedabad), for help in fighting for justice.
• Though Gandhi was a friend of Ambalal, he took up the workers’ cause.
• Gandhi asked the workers to go on a strike and demand a 35 percent increase in wages instead of 50 percent.
• Gandhi advised the workers to remain non-violent while on strike.
• When negotiations with mill owners did not progress, he undertook a fast unto death (his first) to strengthen the workers’ resolve.
• But the fast also had the effect of putting pressure on the mill owners who finally agreed to submit the issue to a tribunal.

• In 1534 AD the Portuguese gained possession of Bombay, after the Treaty of Bassein was signed between them and Bahadur Shah of the Gujarat Sultanate. In 1612, a battle was fought between the British and the Portuguese at Surat for the possession of Bombay, which ended the Portuguese monopoly over trade in India. 
• In 1661, under the Treaty of Whitehall, Bombay changed hands as it was presented to King Charles II as part of the dowry, when he married Princess Catherine de Braganza of Portugal. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Treaty included a secret provision that it would be used to protect the Portuguese settlements in India. It involved a mutual defence pact against the aggressive and expanding Dutch East India Company. 
• The French East India Company was founded on 1 September 1664 to compete with the English and Dutch trading companies in the East Indies. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

• The Grounds for removal of Judge of SC are two - proved misbehaviour and incapacity.
• The removal procedure is regulated by The Judges Enquiry Act 1968.

Objective Resolutions:

• India is an independent, sovereign, republic. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• India shall be a Union of erstwhile British Indian territories, Indian States, and other parts outside British India and the Indian States as are willing to be a part of the Union.
• Territories forming the Union shall be autonomous units and exercise all powers and functions of the Government and administration, except those assigned to or vested in the Union.
• All powers and authority of sovereign and independent India and its constitution shall flow from the people. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
• All people of India shall be guaranteed and secured social, economic, and political justice; equality of status and opportunities and equality before the law; and fundamental freedoms - of speech, expression, belief, faith, worship, vocation, association, and action subject to the law and public morality.
• The minorities, backward and tribal areas, depressed and other backward classes shall be provided adequate safeguards. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• The territorial integrity of the Republic and its sovereign rights on land, sea, and air shall be maintained according to justice and law of civilized nations.
• The land would make a full and willing contribution to the promotion of world peace and the welfare of mankind. 

• Statement 1 is correct: DPSPs are fundamental in governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws. They are fundamental because they provide a roadmap and vision for the country.They also help courts in determining the constitutional validity of a law despite them being non-Justiciable.

• Statement 2 is correct: While fundamental rights aim to establish political democracy, Directive principles aim at establishing social and economic democracy. Thus, together they establish Socio-political democracy in the country.

- 1. Residence for Employment: Parliament can prescribe residence within a state as a condition for certain public employment to ensure local representation.

- 2. Special Benefits:This refers to a scenario where a state grants special benefits or privileges to its residents that are not available to citizens uniformly across the country.

- 3. Scheduled Tribes' Protection: The Constitution allows special measures for Scheduled Tribes to protect their interests, acknowledging their unique socio-economic status.

Thus, all three scenarios allow for permissible discrimination as per constitutional provisions.

Statement 1 is correct. The Constitution clearly demarcates subjects, which are under the exclusive domain of the Union and those under the States. If there is any dispute about which powers come under the control of the union and which under the States, this can be resolved by the Judiciary on the basis of the constitutional provisions.

Statement 2 is correct. One of the important aspects of this division of powers is that economic and financial powers are centralized in the hands of the central government by the Constitution. The States have immense responsibilities but very meager revenue sources.

• Statement 1 is correct: In the Westminster, the executive branch is formed by the political party or coalition that holds the majority of seats in the parliament.
• Statement 2 is correct: The semipresidential system combines elements of both parliamentary and presidential systems. France, Russia, and South Korea are examples of countries with a semipresidential system.

Notes

Types of Parliamentary forms of Government

• Parliamentary forms of government are a common system of governance employed by many countries around the world. This form of government is characterized by the presence of a parliament that serves as the legislative body and exercises considerable power in the political system. While there are variations within parliamentary systems, there are generally three main types: the Westminster system, the consensus system, and the semi-presidential system.

Westminster System:

• The Westminster system, also known as the British model, is the most prevalent form of parliamentary government. It originated in the United Kingdom and has been adopted by many Commonwealth countries.
• In this system, the executive branch is formed by the political party or coalition that holds the majority of seats in the parliament. The head of government is usually the Prime Minister, who is appointed by the head of state.
• Examples of countries with the Westminster system include the United Kingdom, Canada, Australia, New Zealand, and India.

Consensus System:

• The consensus system, also known as the proportional representation system, is characterized by the representation of multiple political parties in the parliament based on the proportion of votes they receive. In this system, no single party usually obtains an absolute majority, and governments are formed through coalitions and negotiations between different parties.
• Switzerland, Germany, the Netherlands, and Sweden are examples of countries that employ the consensus system.

Semi-Presidential System:

• The semi-presidential system combines elements of both parliamentary and presidential systems. In this system, the executive branch consists of a President and a Prime Minister.
• The President is directly elected by the people and serves as the head of state, while the Prime Minister is appointed by the President and is responsible for day-today governance.
• France, Russia, and South Korea are examples of countries with a semipresidential system.

The doctrine of judicial review originated and developed in the USA. It was propounded for the first time in the famous case of Marbury V. Madison (1803) by John Marshall, the then chief justice of the American Supreme Court. In India, on the other hand, the Constitution itself confers the power of judicial review on the judiciary (both the Supreme Court as well as High Courts).

• Article 13 declares that all inconsistent laws with or derogation of any of the fundamental rights shall be void. In other words, it expressly provides for the doctrine of judicial review.
• This power has been conferred on the Supreme Court (Article 32) and the High Courts (Article 226) that can declare a law unconstitutional and invalid on the ground of contravention of any of the Fundamental Rights.

The judiciary in India is immensely powerful. Barring a few cases, it has the right to review most acts/rules and regulations. Decisions taken by regulatory authorities like the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) are although subjected to Appellate Tribunals' scrutiny. They can also be challenged in the High courts and Supreme Court.

• This means that if a dispute arises regarding the meaning of specific provisions of the constitution, the court gives the final version of the meaning of those specific provisions, for example, the Right to Life under Article 21 of the constitution. 
• It is the power of judicial review. Under judicial review powers, the judiciary can strike down laws, administrative acts, and even constitutional amendments if they violate the constitution or the constitution's basic premises.

Statement 1 is correct: It controls the trans-boundary movement of mercury. It does not include natural emissions of mercury. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Union Cabinet has approved the proposal for ratification of Minamata Convention on Mercury along with flexibility for continued use of mercury-based products and processes involving mercury compounds up to 2025 and depositing the instrument of ratification enabling India to become a Party of the Convention.

Statement 3 is correct: The GEF serves as "financial mechanism" to five conventions, which are Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs), UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), and Minamata Convention on Mercury.

• Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is not correct: A national park is an area which is strictly reserved for the betterment of the wildlife and where human activities like forestry, grazing or cultivation are not permitted. It is associated with the habitat of wild animal species like Rhino, Tiger etc. Some examples of national parks are Jim Corbett, Tadoba National Park etc.

• An area, whether within a sanctuary or not, can be notified by the state government to be constituted as a National Park, by reason of its ecological, faunal, floral, geomorphological, or zoological association or importance, needed to for the purpose of protecting & propagating or developing wildlife therein or its environment. No human activity is permitted inside the national park except for the ones permitted by the Chief Wildlife Warden of the state.

• A wildlife sanctuary is a protected area that is reserved for the conservation only of wildlife - animals and plant species. Human activities like harvesting or timber, collection of minor forest products and private ownership rights are allowed. Some examples are Periyar (Kerala), Ranipur (Uttar Pradesh) etc.

• A biosphere reserve is a special area of land or coastal environment in which multiple use of land is permitted by dividing it into certain zones. The natural or core zones. The natural or core zone consists of an undisturbed and legally protected ecosystem. The buffer zone surrounds the core area and is managed to accommodate a greater variety of resource use strategies.

• It takes into consideration the entire ecosystem. The purpose of the formation of the biosphere reserve is to conserve in situ all forms of life, along with its support system, in its totality, so that it could serve as a referral system for monitoring and evaluating changes in natural ecosystems.

• Ozone in the stratosphere is a product of UV radiations acting on dioxygen (O2) molecules. The UV radiations split apart molecular oxygen into free oxygen (O) atoms. Ozone is thermodynamically unstable and decomposes to molecular oxygen. Thus, a dynamic equilibrium exists between the production and decomposition of ozone molecules.

• In recent years, there have been reports of the depletion of this protective ozone layer because of the presence of certain chemicals in the stratosphere. The main reason for ozone layer depletion is the release of chlorofluorocarbon compounds (CFCs), also known as freons. These compounds are nonreactive, nonflammable, nontoxic organic molecules and therefore used in refrigerators, air conditioners, in the production of plastic foam, and by the electronic industry for cleaning computer parts, etc. Once CFCs are released into the atmosphere, they mix with the normal atmospheric gases and eventually reach the stratosphere. In the stratosphere, they get broken down by powerful UV radiations, releasing chlorine-free radicals. The chlorine radicals then react with stratospheric ozone to form chlorine monoxide radicals and molecular oxygen. The reaction of chlorine monoxide radical with atomic oxygen produces more chlorine radicals. The chlorine radicals are continuously regenerated and cause the breakdown of ozone. Thus, CFCs are transporting agents for continuously generating chlorine radicals into the stratosphere and damaging the ozone layer. Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct.

• In winter, a special type of cloud called polar stratospheric cloud is formed over Antarctica. These polar stratospheric clouds provide a surface on which chlorine nitrate formed gets hydrolyzed to form hypochlorous acid. It also reacts with hydrogen chloride produced as per reaction (v) to give molecular chlorine. When sunlight returns to Antarctica in the spring, the sun’s warmth breaks up the clouds, and HOCl and Cl₂ are photolyzed by sunlight. The chlorine radicals thus formed, initiate the chain reaction for ozone depletion as described earlier. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• Diatoms and dinoflagellates are types of phytoplankton. They are single-celled algae.
• Diatoms have a thick cell covering, which acts as an external cell wall made up of silica and Dinoflagellates have a bi-flagellated structure with cellulose-based cell walls. Both are capable of performing photosynthesis and possess pigments.
• Dinoflagellates have special features, such as the ability to produce neurotoxins and the ability for bioluminescence. Both diatoms and dinoflagellates are motile (Cell motility is an essential process in many biological phenomena.
• Different molecules and pathways have been linked to cell migration, but very little is known about how they are integrated in time and space to regulate the motility process).

So, Option (c) is correct.

• In the five kingdom classification of Whittaker there is no mention of some acellular organisms like viruses and viroids, and lichens. Viruses did not find a place in classification since they are not truly ‘living’, if we understand living as those organisms that have a cell structure. Viruses are non-cellular organisms that are characterised by having an inert crystalline structure outside the living cell. Once they infect a cell they take over the machinery of the host cell to replicate themselves, killing the host.
• In addition to proteins, viruses also contain genetic material, that could be either RNA or DNA. Leuko virus contains both DNA and RNA. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• A virus is a nucleoprotein and the genetic material is infectious. In general, viruses that infect plants have single stranded RNA and viruses that infect animals have either single or double stranded RNA or double stranded DNA. Bacterial viruses or bacteriophages (viruses that infect the bacteria) are usually double stranded DNA viruses. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Viruses cause diseases like mumps, small pox, herpes and influenza. AIDS in humans is also caused by a virus. In plants, the symptoms can be mosaic formation, leaf rolling and curling, yellowing and vein clearing, dwarfing and stunted growth.

Human blood group inheritance shows an example of codominance as well as multiple alleles. The plasma membrane of the red blood cells has sugar polymers that protrude from its surface and the kind of sugar is controlled by the gene. The gene (I) has three alleles Iᴬ, Iᴮ and i. The alleles Iᴬ and Iᴮ produce a slightly different form of sugar while allele i do not produce any sugar. i is recessive to both Iᴬ, and Iᴮ. Iᴬand Iᴮ may show codominance.

• The parents have A and AB, blood groups. Blood group A indicates that the underlying genotype may be Iᴬ Iᴬ or Iᴬ i. Blood group AB indicates co-dominance and the underlying genotype must be Iᴬ Iᴮ.
• Now two cases, In the first case (considering a person with A blood group has Iᴬ i genotype: Iᴬ i (A blood group) X Iᴬ Iᴮ (AB blood group)
  
  • So, the possible blood groups of children born in this case are A, B, and AB blood groups
• Similarly in the second case, considering a person with A blood group has Iᴬ Iᴬ genotype): Iᴬ Iᴬ (A blood group) X Iᴬ Iᴮ (AB blood group)
  
  • So, the possible blood groups of children born in this case are A and AB blood groups.
• In none of the above cases, children have O blood group.
  

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

This phenomenon occurs at perigee, when moon is closest to Earth.

Thirty Meter Telescope (TMT) project

• The TMT has been conceived as a 30-metre diameter primary-mirror optical and infrared telescope that will enable observations into deep space.
• It is proposed as a joint collaboration involving institutions in the US, Japan, China, Canada, and India.
• Indian participation in the project was approved by the Union Cabinet in 2014

• Erythroblastosis fetalis, also called hemolytic disease of the newborn, type of anemia in which the red blood cells (erythrocytes) of a fetus are destroyed in a maternal immune reaction resulting from a blood group incompatibility between the fetus and its mother.
• This incompatibility arises when the fetus inherits a certain blood factor from the father that is absent in the mother. Symptoms of erythroblastosis fetalis range from mild to severe; death of the fetus or newborn sometimes results.
• Two blood group systems, Rh and ABO, primarily are associated with erythroblastosis fetalis.
• The Rh system is responsible for the most severe form of the disease, which can occur when an Rhnegative woman (a woman whose blood cells lack the Rh factor) conceives an Rh-positive fetus. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Sensitization of the mother’s immune system (immunization) occurs when fetal red blood cells that carry the Rh factor (an antigen in this context) cross the placental barrier and enter the mother’s bloodstream.
• They stimulate the production of antibodies, some of which pass across the placenta into fetal circulation and lyse, or break apart, the red blood cells of the fetus (hemolysis).
• These antibodies usually don't cause problems during a first pregnancy.
• But Rh incompatibility may cause problems in later pregnancies, if the baby is Rh-positive. This is because the antibodies stay in your body once they have formed. The antibodies can cross the placenta and attack the baby's red blood cells. The baby could get Rh disease, a serious condition that can cause a serious type of anemia. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• It is rare for a mother to become sensitized during the course of her first Rh-positive pregnancy because the amount of fetal Rh antigen that enters maternal circulation is insufficient to cause sensitization; usually only during labour will exposure be significant.
• However, because Rh sensitivity is likely to develop during labour, the risk of the disease developing in subsequent Rh-positive pregnancies increases.
• The risk can be reduced if the mother receives injections of Rh immunoglobulin, which destroys fetal red blood cells in her bloodstream, during her first pregnancy. The fetus also is protected from Rh hemolytic disease if an ABO blood group incompatibility exists concurrently; protection is conferred by ABO antibodies, which destroy fetal blood cells in the maternal circulation before the mother develops Rh sensitivity.
• Fetal-maternal incompatibilities within the ABO blood group alone are more common than those of the Rh type, but the immune reaction is usually much less severe, unless the fetus is type A and the mother type O.

Statement 1 is correct: A fuel cell uses the chemical energy of hydrogen or other fuels to cleanly  and efficiently produce electricity. 
Statement 2 is not correct: They can provide power for systems as large as a utility power station  and as small as a laptop computer.

Statement Analysis:
Statement 1

• It is located in the state of Andhra Pradesh.
• It is located on the banks of Vamsadhara River and is dedicated to lord Srimukha Lingeswara (a form of Shiva).
• The Shivalinga here has a mukha or facial representation of Lord Shiva.

Statement 2

• This temple, built in the Kalinga architectural style.
• The Trinity of Madhukeswara, Someswara and Bheemeswara Temples are a testimony to the magnificent architectural skills of Kalinga Kings.

Statement 3

• It was constructed in the 9th century CE by kings of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty.
• It was built by Kamarnava II, ruler from the family line of Eastern Ganga.

Archaeological Survey of India assured to send a note to UNESCO over inclusion of Srimukhalingam temple in Andhra Pradesh in world heritage structures’ list.

• Statement 1 is not correct: SMRs are advanced nuclear reactors that have a power capacity of up  to 300 MW(e) per unit, which is about one-third of the generating capacity of traditional nuclear  power reactors.
• Statement 2 is not correct: SMRs are based on nuclear reaction technology, which will come under  the provisions of Atomic Energy Act, 1962.

Statement Analysis:
Statement 1

• Nazool land is owned by the government but is most often not directly administered as state property.
• The state generally allots such land to any entity on lease for a fixed period, generally between 15 and 99 years.

Statement 2

• How does the government use Nazool land?
• The government generally uses Nazool land for public purposes like building schools, hospitals, Gram Panchayat buildings, etc.
• Several cities in India have also seen large tracts of land denoted as Nazool land used for housing societies, generally on lease.

Statement 3

• How did Nazool Land emerge?
• During British rule, kings and kingdoms which opposed the British frequently revolted against them, leading to several battles between them and the British Army.
• Upon defeating these kings in battle, the British would often take their land away from them.
• After India got Independence, the British vacated these lands.
• But with kings and royals often lacking proper documentation to prove prior ownership, these lands were marked as Nazool land—to be owned by the respective state governments.

Violence erupted in Uttarakhand recently after a mosque and a madrasa standing on Nazool land were demolished.

Electric Fuse is a current interrupting device that protects the electrical circuit. The principle behind the operation of the fuse is the heating effect of the electrical current. If the current passes through a conductor with a certain resistance, the loss due to the conductor's resistance is dissipated in the form of heat. Under normal operating conditions, the heat produced in the fuse element is easily dissipated into the environment due to the flow of current through it. As a result, the fuse part remains at a temperature below its melting point. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Whenever some faults, such as short circuits, occur, the current flow through the fuse element exceeds the prescribed limits. This creates an excess of heat that melts the fuse part and breaks the circuit. So if the electrical current passing through the fuse goes beyond what the device can handle, the fuse link is melted and the circuit is opened to prevent damage to the electrical component. Fuses are always connected in series with the component to be protected from overcurrent, so that when the fuse blows (opens) it will open the entire circuit and stop current through the component. Hence statement 2 is not correct.