Goa PCS Screening Mock Test- 7 - GPSC (Goa) MCQ

• Treaty of Ryswick: In July 1697 the treaty brought to an end the Nine Years War, in which Louis XIV's France faced a grand coalition of England, the Dutch, and Spain. Louis agreed to return most of his territorial acquisitions or réunions made since Nijmegen, but retained the important fortress town of Strasbourg.

  • The Dutch were allowed to garrison barrier fortresses in the Spanish Netherlands. In India Pondicherry was restored to French by Dutch.

  • The treaty, negotiated with much difficulty, lasted only four years before the War of the Spanish Succession broke out.

• Treaty of Aix-La Chapelle: It was signed between British and French in 1748 after first Carnatic war. Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle 1748 was negotiated largely by Britain and France with the other powers following their lead, ending the War of the Austrian Succession (1740–48).

  • The treaty was marked by the mutual restitution of conquests, including the fortress of Louisburg on Cape Breton Island, Nova Scotia, to France; Madras in India, to England.

• Treaty of peace of Paris: The Treaty of Paris of 1763 ended the French and Indian War/Seven Years’ War between Great Britain and France, as well as their respective allies.

  • In the terms of the treaty, France gave up all its territories in mainland North America, effectively ending any foreign military threat to the British colonies there. In India Pondicherry, Karaikal and other French possessions were returned to the French on condition that they should not fortify them and it ended the third Carnatic war in 1763.

• In November 1927, the British Government appointed the Indian Statutory Commission, known popularly after the name of its Chairman as the Simon Commission, to go into the question of further constitutional reform. It was formed by the Conservative Government of Britain. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• All the members of the Commission were Englishmen. This announcement was greeted by a chorus of protest from all Indians. What angered them most was the exclusion of Indians from the Commission and the basic notion behind this exclusion that foreigners would discuss and decide upon India's fitness for Self government. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• At its Madras Session in 1927, presided over by Dr. Ansari, the National Congress decided to boycott the Commission 'at every stage and in every form.' The Muslim League and the Hindu Mahasabha decided to support the Congress decision.

• The action began as soon as Simon Commission landed at Bombay on 3 February 1928. That day, people were out on the streets participating in black-flag demonstrations. In Madras, T. Prakasam symbolized the defiant spirit of the occasion by baring his chest before the armed policemen. In Lucknow, Khaliquzzaman executed the brilliant idea of floating kites and balloons imprinted with the popular slogan ‘Go Back Simon’ over the reception organized in Kaiserbagh by the taluqdars for members of the Commission.

• In Lucknow, Jawaharlal and Govind Ballabh Pant were beaten up by the police. But the worst incident happened in Lahore where Lala Lajpat Rai, the hero of the Extremist days and the most revered leader of Punjab, was hit on the chest by lathis on 30 October and succumbed to the injuries on 17 November 1928. It was his death that Bhagat Singh and his comrades were seeking to avenge when they killed the white police official, Saunders, in December 1928.

• The Simon Commission report contained no mention of the Dominion Status and was in other ways also a regressive document. It disappointed national leaders including moderates.

Hence statement 3 is not correct.

• The Pitt’s India Act, 1784 also called the East India Company Act, 1784 was passed by the British Parliament to correct the defects of the Regulating Act of 1773.
• Provisions:
  • This act resulted in dual control of British possessions in India by the British government and the Company with the final authority resting with the government.
  • A Board of Control consisting of six members was constituted to take care of civil and military affairs, and would include one of the Secretary of State (Board President), the chancellor of the exchequer and four privy councillors. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The Governor-General’s council’s strength was reduced to three from four members. One of the three would be the Commander-in-Chief of the British Crown’s army in India. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • The orders of the board became binding on the Court of Directors, which was required to send all its letters and dispatches to the board for its perusal. Hence statement 2 is correct.

In 1898, Annie Besant established a Central Hindu College near Town Hall, Varanasi, to impart religious, moral instructions and secular education. In 1910, she was supposed to set up a university and while this did not happen, in 1911, in collaboration with Madan Mohan Malviya and others, the Central Hindu College became the nucleus of Banares Hindu University. So, Pair 1 is correct.
The 'Bharat Mata Mandir, or Bharat Mata temple, is dedicated to Mother India and was constructed by Babu Shiv Prasad Gupta between 1918 and 1924. It is located in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh. Mahatma Gandhi inaugurated the 'Bharat Mata Mandir temple on October 25, 1936. Hence, the temple is not located in Mathura. So, Pair 2 is not correct.
The Non - Cooperation Movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi was an expression of the growing resentment of all classes of the Indian people against oppressive British rule. Gandhi took up three specific points on which the movement was initiated:

• the Khilafat wrong,
• the Punjab wrong,
• Swaraj.

On February 04, 1922, The volunteers marched through the streets of Chauri Chaura village of Gorakhpur district of the United Provinces, shouting slogans of Gandhi and the Khilafat. As the crowd grew larger and fiercer, the cops retreated inside the police station. The protestors doused the building in kerosene and set it on fire. Twenty-three policemen were killed, and 228 people were brought to trial in the incident, out of which 19 were sentenced to death. This event marked the end of the non-cooperation movement. The Congress Working Committee met at Bardoli in February 1922 and resolved to stop all activity that led to breaking of the law and to get down to constructive work, instead, which was to include popularisation of khadi, national schools, and campaigning for temperance, for Hindu-Muslim unity and against untouchability. So, Pair 3 is correct.
The Hindustan Republic Association (HRA) was founded in October 1924 in Kanpur by Ramprasad Bismil, Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee, and Sachin Sanyal to organize an armed revolution to overthrow the colonial  Government and establish in its place the Federal Republic of United States of India.
Under the leadership of Chandra Shekhar Azad, the name of the Hindustan Republic Association (HRA) was changed to the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA), an Indian revolutionary organization.
Kakori Conspiracy, also called Kakori Conspiracy Case or Kakori Train Robbery, was a train robbery at Kakori, a village near Lucknow, in 1925. An armed robbery was organized by ten revolutionaries of the Hindustan Republic Association, an organization that aimed to achieve independence through revolution.
So, Pair 4 is correct.
 

• The Bombay Presidency Association was started by Badruddin Tyabji, Pherozshah Mehta and K.T. Telang in 1885. It was founded in response to Lytton's reactionary policies and the Ilbert Bill controversy. The association has always had cordial relations with the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha. The Bombay Presidency Association, the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha, the Madras Mahajana Sabha, and the Indian Association of Calcutta sent a joint deputation to England in September 1885 to present India's case to the British electorate. It championed Indian interests and also hosted the first meeting of the Indian National Congress in Bombay at the end of 1885. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched. 
• The Madras Mahajan Sabha was founded in 1884 by M. Viraraghavachari, B. Subramaniya Aiyer and P. Anandacharlu. The Mahajana Sabha held its first conference between 29 December 1884 and 2 January 1885. It demanded fundamental rights of Indians such as national freedom and other common social issues for the welfare of our fellowmen since 1884. In September 1885, the Sabha in collaboration with the Bombay Presidency Association and the Indian Association sent a delegation to England. On April 22, 1930, the Sabha organized the Salt Satyagraha movement in Madras' George Town, Esplanade, High Court, and Beach areas. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched. 
• The Bangabhasha Prakasika Sabha was formed in 1836 by associates of Raja Rammohan Roy. Raja Ram Mohan Roy died in 1833. Prasanna Kr. Thakur, Kalinath Chowdhury, Dwarakanath Tagore, and others were the associates of Raja Rammohan Roy who founded the Bangabhasa Prakasika Sabha in 1836. The Bangabhasha Prakasika Sabha is regarded as the earliest political organisation in India. It sought to increase the association of Indians in the administration, the spread of education, pushing forward Indian demands to the British parliament. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.

• It was introduced by Justice P.N. Bhagwati of the Supreme Court.
• It was not mentioned in the constitution of India nor any law enacted by Parliament. It is a result of Judicial activism.
• An individual or group of people directly files public Interest Litigation in the supreme court.
• It was felt that the government undermines its interests. In such a situation, the court directly accepts the public good. It is a new legal horizon in which the court of law can initiate and enforce action to serve and secure significant Public Interest.

Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect because the salaries and allowances of the judges are determined by the Parliament. Article 125(1) of the Indian Constitution states that the salaries and allowances of the Judges shall be determined by the Parliament by law and, until provision in that behalf is so made, shall be as specified in the Second Schedule.

Statement 2 is also incorrect because a Judge of the Supreme Court or High Court can be removed only on the grounds of proven misbehavior or incapacity, not merely on the ground of violation of the Constitution. This is specified under Article 124(4) for Supreme Court judges and under Article 217(1)(b) for High Court judges. The removal process requires a special majority (two-thirds majority) in both houses of Parliament.

Statement 1 is incorrect. SHREYAS – Scheme for Higher Education Youth for Apprenticeship and Skills was launched by Ministry of Human Resource Development (HRD) in collaboration with the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship and Ministry of Labour and Employment.

Statement 2 is correct. It aims to:

(a) To improve the employability of students by introducing employment relevance into the learning process of the higher education system

(b) To forge a close functional link between education and industry/service sectors on a sustainable basis

(c)To provide skills which are in demand, to the students in a dynamic manner

(d) To establish an ‘earn while you learn’ system into higher education

(e) To help business/industry in securing good quality manpower and

(f) To link student community with employment facilitating efforts of the Government.

SHREYAS portal will enable educational institutions and industry to log in and provide their respective demand and supply of apprenticeship.

The State Governments are expected to play a major role in securing apprenticeship opportunities, apart from the Sector Skill Councils, so that general degree students passing out can gain the option of industry & service sector apprenticeship.

Sector Skill Councils are set up as autonomous industry-led bodies by National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC), which are responsible for defining the skilling needs, concept, processes, certification, and accreditation of their respective industry sectors in accordance with National Skill Qualification Framework.

• A proclamation of emergency may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require parliamentary approval. Hence Statement 1 is not correct.

• If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the emergency continues for six months and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months. Hence Statement 2 is not correct.

• Additional Information:

  • National Emergency: National emergency can be declared on the basis of war, external aggression or armed rebellion. The Constitution employs the expression ‘proclamation of emergency’ to denote an emergency of this type.

  • Grounds of declaration: Under Article 352, the president can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.

  • The President can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence of war or armed rebellion or external aggression

• Parliamentary approval and duration

  • The proclamation of emergency must be approved by both the houses of parliament within one month from the date of its issue. If approved by both the houses, the Emergency continues for 6 months and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months.

  • Every resolution approving the proclamation of emergency or its continuance must be passed by either House of Parliament by a special majority.

• Effects of national emergency

  • A proclamation of Emergency has drastic and wide-ranging effects on the political system. These consequences can be grouped into 3 categories:

  • Effects on the centre-state relations: While a proclamation of Emergency is in force, the normal fabric of the Centre-State relations undergoes a basic change. this can be studied under three heads:

  • Executive: Centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to a state on ‘any’ matter

  • Legislative: The parliament becomes empowered to make laws on any subject mentioned in the state list, the president can issue ordinances on State subjects also, if the parliament is not in session. The laws made on state subjects by the parliament become inoperative six months after the emergency has ceased to be in operation.

  • Financial: the president can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the centre and the states

• Effect on the life of the Lok Sabha and State Assembly:

  • While a proclamation of National Emergency is in operation, the life of the Lok Sabha may be extended beyond the normal term for one year at a time. However, this extension cannot continue beyond a period of six months after the emergency has ceased to operate.

  • Similarly, the Parliament may extend the normal tenure of a state Legislative Assembly by one year each time during a national emergency, subject to a maximum period of six months after the emergency has ceased to operate.

  • Effect on fundamental rights: Articles 358 and 359 describes the effect of a National Emergency on the Fundamental Rights. These two provisions are explained below:

    (i) Suspension of Fundamental rights under Article 19: According to Article 358, when a proclamation of National Emergency is made, the six fundamental rights under article 19 are automatically suspended. Article 19 is automatically revived after the expiry of the emergency.

    (ii) The 44th Amendment Act laid out that Article 19 can only be suspended when the National Emergency is laid on the grounds of war or external aggression and not in the case of armed rebellion.

• Suspension of other Fundamental Rights: Under Article 359, the President is authorised to suspend, by order, the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency. Thus, remedial measures are suspended and not the Fundamental Rights.

• The suspension of enforcement relates to only those Fundamental Rights that are specified in the Presidential Order.

• The suspension could be for the period during the operation of emergency or for a shorter period.

• The Order should be laid before each House of Parliament for approval.

• The 44 Amendment Act mandates that the President cannot suspend the right to move the court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 20 and 21.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The office of the State Election Commissioner is autonomous like the Election Commission of India. It is an independent office and is not linked to nor is this office under the control of the Election Commission of India.

• Pair 1 is correct: Indian Councils Act of 1909 - Increased the size of the legislative councils, both Central and provincial.
• Pair 2 is incorrect: Charter Act of 1793 - Extension of Powers to Governor-General
• Pair 3 is incorrect: Pitt’s India Act of 1784 - established a system of double government.

Notes

The Company Rule (1773–1858) Pitt’s India Act of 1784:

• The Act established the Board of Control to oversee political issues while retaining the Court of Directors to oversee business affairs. As a result, it created a system of dual government.
• Pitt’s India Act of 1784 made a distinction between the British East India Company’s commercial and political roles.

Charter Act of 1793:

• The Charter Act of 1793 increased the Company’s trading rights for a further twenty years. When Lord Cornwallis was appointed, he was given an explicit authority to overthrow his Council; but, the Charter of 1793 did not provide all Governors or Governors-General the same authority. The Governor-power General was given more attention by the Charter Act of 1793 than the other two Presidency—Bombay and Madras.
• The Charter Act of 1793 had an impact on the Home Government as well. Two junior members who were not required to be Privy Council members would be on the Board of Control together with a senior member who would serve as President. Instead of coming from the British Exchequer, the salaries of all Board of Control members were to be paid from Indian profi ts.

The Crown Rule (1858–1947) Indian Councils Act of 1909:

• The Morley-Minto Reform is also known as the Indian Council Act of 1909. It was put into place to appease the moderates in Congress and bring in distinct electorates based on religion. The Morley-Minto or Minto-Morley Reforms, also known as the Indian Councils Act of 1909, was an act of the British Parliament that led to a modest increase in the participation of Indians in the administration of British India.
• The purpose of the Councils, which were increased in size, was to make sure that Indian parliamentarians had a voice. The British also acknowledged Muslims’ right to their own electorate.

The correct answer is C. Both A & B.

• In most states in India, the Lokayukta and Upalokayukta are appointed by the Governor of the state, but only after consultation with the Chief Justice of the State High Court and the Leader of Opposition in the State Legislative Assembly.
• The Lokayukta is an anti-corruption authority or ombudsman who represents the public interest. The Lokayukta investigates allegations of corruption and mal-administration against public servants and is tasked with quickly redressing public grievances.
• The Chief Justice and the Leader of Opposition are consulted to ensure a fair and unbiased appointment. This is because the Lokayukta should be an individual of high integrity and impartiality. The involvement of these two key figures helps uphold the credibility and independence of the Lokayukta.

• The Constitution of India has borrowed most of its provisions from the constitutions of various other countries as well as from the Government of India Act of 1935. Dr B R Ambedkar proudly acclaimed that the Constitution of India has been framed after ‘ransacking all the known Constitutions of the World’.
• The structural part of the Constitution is, to a large extent, derived from the Government of India Act of 1935. The philosophical part of the Constitution (the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy) derive their inspiration from the American and Irish Constitutions respectively. The political part of the Constitution (the principle of Cabinet Government and the relations between the executive and the legislature) have been largely drawn from the British Constitution.
• The other provisions of the Constitution have been drawn from the constitutions of Canada, Australia, Germany, USSR (now Russia), France, South Africa, Japan, and so on.
• However, the criticism that the Indian Constitution is a ‘borrowed Constitution’, a ‘patchwork’ and contains nothing new and original is unfair and illogical. This is because, the framers of the Constitution made necessary modifications in the features borrowed from other constitutions for their suitability to the Indian conditions, at the same time avoiding their faults.

• National Commission for Minorities falls under the Minorities Ministry of Minority Affairs.
• National Commission for Women falls under the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
• National Commission for STs falls under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
• Hence, only pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.

• Freedom of Religion is a Fundamental Right provided under Articles 25-28 of the Constitution. Freedom of religion also includes the freedom of conscience. This means that a person may choose any religion or may choose not to follow any religion. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Freedom of Religion includes the right to not just practice one’s religion but also to propagate it. This includes persuading people to join one’s religion and willful conversion from one religion to another. The Constitution bars forceful conversions and conversions done by inducements. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Freedom of Religion is available to not just Indian citizens but also to foreign nationals residing within Indian territory. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

ICANN is not constituted under the United Nations, and it is not a government body. It is a multi-stakeholder organization that is governed by a board of directors representing various constituencies and interests from the global Internet community.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Plantation is also a type of commercial farming. In this type of farming, a single crop is grown on a large area. The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry. Plantations cover large tracts of land, using capital intensive inputs, with the help of migrant labourers.

All the produce is used as raw material in respective industries. In India, tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, banana, etc.are important plantation crops. Tea in Assam and North Bengal coffee in Karnataka are some of the important plantation crops grown in these states. Intensive type of farming is practised in areas of high population pressure on land. It is labour- intensive farming, where high doses of biochemical inputs and irrigation are used for obtaining higher production.

Statement 2 is correct. Relay Cropping: Growing two or more crops simultaneously during the part of the life cycle of each. A second crop is planted after the first crop has reached its reproductive stage of growth, but before it is ready for harvest. Often simply referred to as relay cropping. Example: Redgram- base crop for 180 days. Groundnut/onion/coriander- One set of intercrops. Samai/ thinai/panivaragu- 2nd set of intercrops.

Statement 3 is correct. Ratooning refers to raising a crop with re-growth coming out of roots or stalks after harvest of crops.

Ratooning is a method of harvesting a crop which leaves the roots and the lower parts of the plant uncut to give the ratoon or the stubble crop.This method cannot be used endlessly as the yield of the ratoon crop decreases after each cycle. Ratooning is most often used with crops which are known to give a steady yield for three years under most conditions. Example: Sugarcane, Banana, Pineapple.

• Statement 1 is correct: The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), also known as the Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit, the Rio Summit, the Rio Conference, and the Earth Summit (Portuguese: ECO92), was a major United Nations conference held in Rio de Janeiro from 3 to 14 June in 1992.

• Its aim was to put the concept of sustainable development at the forefront of our concerns and to seek common action to protect the planet from environmental degradation that even threatens to change the global climate.

• Statement 2 is correct: The three Rio Conventions—on Biodiversity, Climate Change and Desertification—derive directly from the 1992 Earth Summit. Each instrument represents a way of contributing to the sustainable development goals of Agenda 21. The three conventions are intrinsically linked, operating in the same ecosystems and addressing interdependent issues.

• Agenda 21 is a non-binding action plan of the United Nations with regard to sustainable development. Since 2015, Sustainable Development Goals are included in the newer Agenda 2030.

• The greenhouse effect is a natural process that warms the Earth’s surface. When the Sun’s energy reaches the Earth’s atmosphere, some of it is reflected back to space and the rest is absorbed and re-radiated by greenhouse gases. Earth is surrounded by a blanket of air called the atmosphere. Greenhouse gas molecules in the atmosphere trap heat as they are transparent to sunlight but not to heat radiation. If the amount of carbon dioxide crosses the delicate proportion of 0.03 percent, the natural greenhouse balance may get disturbed. Carbon dioxide is a major contributor to global warming.

• Besides carbon dioxide, other greenhouse gases are methane, water vapor, nitrous oxide, and ozone. Methane is produced naturally when vegetation is burnt, digested, or rotted in the absence of oxygen. Large amounts of methane are released in paddy fields, coal mines, rotting garbage dumps, and by fossil fuels. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are man-made industrial chemicals used in air conditioning etc. CFCs are also damaging the ozone layer. Nitrous oxide occurs naturally in the environment. In recent years, their quantities have increased significantly due to the use of chemical fertilizers and the burning of fossil fuels.

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

• Foraminifera is amoeba-like, single-celled protist (very simple micro-organisms). They have been called 'armored amoebae' because they secrete a tiny shell (or 'test'), usually about a half and one millimeter long. Foraminifera is found in all marine environments, from the intertidal to the deepest ocean trenches and from the tropics to the poles, but species of foraminifera can be very particular about the environment in which they live. They may be planktic or benthic in their mode of life. So, Statement 1 is correct.
• Copepods are major secondary producers in the World Ocean. They represent an important link between phytoplankton, microzooplankton and higher trophic levels, such as fish. They are an important food source for many fish species but also a significant producer of detritus. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
• Sea otters are part of the weasel family. They have webbed feet, water-repellent fur to keep them dry and warm, and nostrils and ears that close in the water. Sea otters live in shallow coastal waters of the North Pacific Ocean. They are among the select group of animals known to use tools. They use rocks or other objects to pry shellfish from hard surfaces and hammer them open or as an anvil against which to break their shells. Sea otters were hunted for their fur to the point of near extinction.

So, Statement 3 is correct.

• The basic needs of all living organisms are essentially the same. They require macromolecules, such as carbohydrates, proteins and fats, and water and minerals for their growth and development.
• The criteria for essentiality of an element are given below:
  • The element must be absolutely necessary for supporting normal growth and reproduction. In the absence of the element the plants do not complete their life cycle or set the seeds.
  • The requirement of the element must be specific and not replaceable by another element. In other words, deficiency of any one element cannot be met by supplying some other element.
  • The element must be directly involved in the metabolism of the plant.
• Only a few elements have been found to be absolutely essential for plant growth and metabolism. These elements are further divided into two broad categories based on their quantitative requirements.
• Macronutrients are generally present in plant tissues in large amounts. The macronutrients include Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Phosphorous, Sulphur, Potassium, Calcium and Magnesium.
• Micronutrients or trace elements, are needed in very small amounts. These include Iron, Manganese, Copper, Molybdenum, Zinc, Boron, Chlorine and Nickel. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
• In addition to the 17 essential elements named above, there are some beneficial elements such as Sodium, Silicon, Cobalt and Selenium. They are required by higher plants.
• Role of Macro and Micro-nutrients: Essential elements perform several functions. They participate in various metabolic processes in the plant cells such as permeability of cell membrane, maintenance of osmotic concentration of cell sap, electron- transport systems, buffering action, enzymatic activity and act as major constituents of macromolecules and co-enzymes.

• Recently, the Indian Army issued a proposal for vehicle-based drone jammers. Various ways of drone jamming: Radio Frequency jamming, Satellite link disruption, spoofing, and dazzling.
• Cybercrime can be defined as a crime or an unlawful act where the computer is used either as a tool, a target, or both. In other terms, cyber crimes in India can be defined as unauthorized access to some computer system without the permission of the rightful owner or place of criminal activity and include everything from online cracking to denial of service attacks.
• Some examples of cybercrime include phishing, spoofing, DoS (Denial of Service) attack, credit card fraud, online transaction fraud, cyber defamation, child pornography, etc.
• Spoofing: Spoofing is a type of attack on a computer device in which the attacker tries to steal the identity of the legitimate user and act as another person. This kind of attack is done to breach the security of the system or to steal the information of the users. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Phishing is a type of attack on a computer device where the attacker tries to find the sensitive information of users in a fraudulent manner through electronic communication by intending to be from a related trusted organization in an automated manner. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Spoofing can be part of phishing. But Phishing can’t be part of the spoofing. Spoofing doesn’t require fraud. But Phishing is operated in a fraudulent manner.
• Ransomware Attack: Ransomware attacks are a very common type of cybercrime. It is a type of malware that has the capability to prevent users from accessing all of their personal data on the system by encrypting them and then asking for a ransom in order to give access to the encrypted data.
• Hacking/Misusing Computer Networks: This term refers to the crime of unauthorized access to private computers or networks and misuse of it either by shutting it down or tampering with the data stored or other illegal approaches.
• Vishing is an attempt where fraudsters try to seek personal information like Customer ID, Net Banking password, ATM PIN, OTP, Card expiry date, CVV etc. through a phone call.
• Smishing is a type of fraud that uses mobile phone text messages to lure victims into calling back on a fraudulent phone number, visiting fraudulent websites or downloading malicious content via phone or the web.
• Denial of Services (DoS) attack is an attack intended for denying access to computer resources without the permission of the owner or any other person who is in charge of a computer, computer system or computer network.
  • A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack is an attempt to make an online service unavailable by overwhelming it with traffic from multiple sources.
• Cryptojacking is the unauthorized use of computing resources to mine cryptocurrencies.

It is artificially created isotope of cobalt.

Statement 1 and 2 are not correct and Statement 3 is correct.

Square Kilometre Array Observatory

• The SKA Observatory is an intergovernmental organization bringing together 14 countries; Australia, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Italy, New Zealand, Spain, South Africa, Sweden, Switzerland, The Netherlands and the United Kingdom.
• Headquarters: United Kingdom
• Mandate: Its aim is to build and operate cutting-edge radio telescopes to transform the understanding of the Universe.
  • It will explore the formation and evolution of galaxies, fundamental physics in extreme environments and the origins of life.
• The observatory consists of the two telescopes at radio-quiet sites in South Africa and Australia, and associated facilities to support the operations of the telescopes. Indian Engagement in SKAO
• India, through the Pune-based National Centre for Radio Astrophysics (NCRA) has been involved in the development of SKA since its inception in the 1990s.
• India’s main contribution is in the development, and operation, of the Telescope Manager element, the “neural network” or the software that will make the telescope work.

Electric Bulb:

• The electric bulb is also known as an incandescent lamp, incandescent light globe, or incandescent light bulb.
• An electric bulb is a small and simple light source that uses a wire filament to glow on the application of electricity.
• The filament, which is a coiled thin wire, is made of tungsten. Tungsten is chosen as filament since it has a high melting point, which avoids the melting of the filament at high temperatures. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The filament is enclosed in a globe-shaped glass mount and is connected with copper and lead wires connected to the lamp’s base.
• The wires and the filament are enclosed in like nitrogen, argon, or krypton - so that the filament doesn't catch fire. Since argon is an inactive gas, it protects the filament from burning as well as increases the lifetime of the filament. Thin glass is used to manufacture the bulb, preventing the air from reaching the filament to protect it from burning. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• When electric power is passed through the bulb, it reaches the filament through copper and lead wires. The base holds the bulb upright and connects to the electric circuit.
• Copper and lead wires let the electricity pass from the base to the tungsten filament. It causes the filament to emit light and glow.

Convention on International Liability for Damage Caused by Space Objects

1. This convention is one of the several international agreements that complement the Outer Space Treaty, the overarching framework guiding the behaviour of countries in space.
2. The Liability Convention came into force in 1972 and deals mainly with damage caused by space objects to other space assets, but it also applies to damage caused by falling objects on earth. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
3. The Convention makes the launching country “absolutely liable” to pay compensation for any  damage caused by its space object on the earth or to a flight in air. Hence, Statement 2 is  correct.

 The country where the junk falls can stake a claim for compensation if it has been damaged by the falling object.
 The amount of compensation is to be decided “in accordance with international law and  the principles of justice and equity”.

• This provision of the Convention has resulted in compensation payment only once so far — when Canada sought damages from the then Soviet Union, for a satellite with radioactive substance that fell into an uninhabited region in its northern territory in 1978. The Soviet Union is reported to have paid 3 million Canadian dollars. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.

Statement Analysis:
Earthquakes are sudden tremors of the Earth’s surface caused by the release of energy in the form of seismic waves. These waves travel outward from the point of origin, shaking the ground and sometimes causing widespread damage.
Causes:

• Tectonic plate movement: The Earth’s crust is made up of giant plates that are constantly moving. When these plates grind against each other or suddenly slip, the energy released can trigger an earthquake.
• Volcanic activity: Magma movement within volcanoes can also cause earthquakes, though generally less powerful than those caused by plate movement.

Types of Seismic Waves:

• P-waves: These are the fastest waves, traveling through the Earth’s interior. They compress and expand the ground as they pass.
• S-waves: These are slower than P-waves and can only travel through solid rock. They shake the ground from side to side.
• Surface waves: These are the slowest and most destructive waves, causing the ground to roll and sway. They travel along the Earth’s surface.

Measuring Earthquakes: Earthquakes are measured by two main scales:

• Magnitude: This measures the amount of energy released by the earthquake, based on the amplitude of seismic waves recorded on seismographs. It is a logarithmic scale, meaning that a magnitude 7 earthquake is ten times stronger than a magnitude 6 earthquake.
• Intensity: This measures the shaking felt at a specific location, considering factors like distance from the epicenter and local geology. It is not a fixed scale and can vary significantly within a single earthquake.

Impact of Earthquakes: Earthquakes can have devastating consequences, causing:

• Ground shaking: The most immediate impact, leading to building collapses, infrastructure damage, and landslides.
• Tsunamis: Large earthquakes underwater can generate tsunamis, giant waves that can inundate coastal areas.
• Liquefaction: When earthquake shaking loosens and saturates the ground, it can liquefy, causing buildings to sink and infrastructure to buckle.
• Fires: Broken gas lines and electrical sparks can ignite fires, exacerbating the damage.

Context: Earthquake and Tsunami strikes Central Japan

All three statements are correct:

•  Aditya-L1 is the first space-based Indian observatory to study the Sun. It will be launched by  the PSLV-C57.
• The solar mission will not see the spacecraft actually go to the sun, it will instead create a space  observatory at a point from which the sun can be observed even during an eclipse.
• The spacecraft is planned to be placed in a halo orbit around the Lagrange point 1 (L1), around  1.5 million km from the Earth, of the Sun-Earth system.
• A satellite placed in the halo orbit around the L1 point has the major advantage of  continuously viewing the Sun without any occultation/eclipses. This will provide a greater  advantage of observing the solar activities and its effect on space weather in real time.
• It is equipped with seven payloads (instruments) on board with four of them carrying out  remote sensing of the Sun and three of them carrying in-situ observation.
• The mission will focus on study of the Solar upper atmospheric (chromosphere and corona)  dynamics. It will also study the chromospheric and coronal heating, physics of the partially  ionized plasma, initiation of the coronal mass ejections, and flares

Statement Analysis:
Statement 1

• He was a social reformer who founded Arya Samaj in 1875 to counter then prevalent social inequities.
• The purpose of the Samaj was to move the Hindu religion away from the fictitious beliefs.
• ‘Krinvanto Vishwam Aryam” was the motto of the Samaj, which means, “Make this world noble”.

Statement 2

• Shuddhi Movement: The Shuddhi Movement was introduced to bring back the individuals to Hinduism who were either voluntarily or involuntarily converted to other religions like Islam or Christianity.
• Back to Vedas: He highlighted the social reformer’s role in awakening India from the shackles of ignorance and superstition, leading a movement to rediscover the essence of Vedic knowledge.
• Women’s Rights: Dayanand Saraswati advocated for the rights and empowerment of women.

Statement 3

• The Samaj directs its members to condemn ritualistic practices like idol worship, pilgrimage and bathing in holy rivers, animal sacrifice, offering in temples, sponsoring priesthood etc.
• The philosophy of Dayananda Saraswati can be known from his three famous contributions namely “Satyartha Prakash”, “Veda Bhashya Bhumika” and “Veda Bhashya Bhumika” and Veda Bhashya.
• Further the journal “Arya Patrika’ edited by him also reflects his thoughts.

The Prime Minister virtually addressed the 200th birth anniversary celebrations of Swami Dayanand Saraswati.

Proton, neutron, and electron are tiny particles that makeup atoms. The neutrino is also a tiny elementary particle, but it is not part of the atom. Such particles are also found to exist in nature. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Neutrino has a very tiny mass and no charge. It interacts very weakly with other matter particles. So weakly that every second trillion of neutrinos fall on us and pass through our bodies unnoticed. Neutrinos come from the sun (solar neutrinos) and other stars, cosmic rays that come from beyond the solar system, and from the Big Bang from which our Universe originated. They can also be produced in the lab. Hence statement 3 is correct.

The INO (India based Neutrino Observatory) will study atmospheric neutrinos only. Solar neutrinos have much lower energy than the detector can detect. INO Project is aimed at building a world-class underground laboratory with a rock cover to conduct basic research on the neutrino. The Tata Institute of Fundamental Research is the nodal institution. The observatory is to be built jointly with the Department of Atomic Energy and the Department of Science and Technology. The observatory will be located underground so as to provide adequate shielding to the neutrino detector from cosmic background radiation.

The operation of INO will have no release of radioactive or toxic substances. It is not a weapons laboratory and will have no strategic or defence applications.

They are the second most abundant particle in the universe after particles of light called photons. Hence statement 2 is not correct.