Goa PCS Screening Mock Test- 8 - GPSC (Goa) MCQ

• Robert Clive concluded two important treaties at Allahabad in August 1765 - one with the Nawab of Awadh and the other with the Mughal Emperor, Shah Alam II.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Under the treaty Nawab of Awadh Shuja-ud-Daula agreed to surrender Allahabad and Kara to Emperor Shah Alam II.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Under the treaty Nawab of Awadh Shuja-ud-Daula agreed to pay Rs 50 lakh to the Company as war indemnity.

• Most of the Indian princes had not only remained loyal to the British but had actively aided the latter in suppressing the Revolt. Moreover, the experience of the Revolt had convinced the British authorities that the princely states could serve as useful allies and supporters in case of popular opposition or revolt. The Revolt of 1857 led the British to reverse some aspects of their policy towards the Indian States.

• Some of the relaxation announced by the British to the princely states were:

  • Before 1857, the British availed every opportunity to annex princely states. This policy was now abandoned. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • The right of princes to adopt heirs would be respected and the integrity of their territories guaranteed against future annexation.

• On the other hand, some of the old policies were applied even after the revolt of 1857:

  • Princes were made to acknowledge Britain as the paramount power as the price of their continued existence. In 1876, Queen Victoria assumed the title of the Empress of India to emphasize British sovereignty over the entire Indian subcontinent. Hence statement 3 is correct.

  • British claimed the right to supervise the internal government of the princely states.

  • They not only interfered in the day-to-day administration through the Residents but insisted on appointing and dismissing ministers and other high officials. Sometimes the rulers themselves were removed or deprived of their powers. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

• Their perpetuation was only one aspect of the British policy towardé the princely state. Complete integration of princely states with British India was another aspect of the British policy towardé the princely states.

• Tribal movements under British rule were the most frequent, militant, and violent of all movements. The land settlements of the British affected the joint ownership tradition among the tribals and disrupted their social fabric.
• The cause of the tribal violence was directed towards the money-lenders and traders who were seen as extensions of the colonial government. As agriculture was extended in a settled form by the Company government, the tribals lost their land, and there was an influx of non-tribals to these areas due to colonial revenue policies. The money lenders introduced in the tribal areas led to severe exploitation of the local tribals. They became bonded labourers under the new economic system. The tribal societies had a system of joint ownership of land which was replaced by the notion of private property. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Another common cause was the resentment against the imposition of laws by the ‘foreign government’ that was seen as an effort at destroying the tribal's traditional socio-economic framework. The Indian Forest Act of 1865 extended British colonialism's claim over forests in India. o Its main aim was an assertion of the monopoly of the British over the Indian forest land, and it gave the government undisputable power to regulate the forest and pastures. It enabled the Revenue and Forest Department to control the entire forest and grazing land. Some forests were classified as Reserved Forests for they produced timber that the British wanted. In these forests, people were not allowed to move freely, practice jhum cultivation, collect fruits, or hunt animals. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Begar system of forced labour was introduced in tribal areas as well that had altered labour relations. An influx of Christian Missionaries was supported by the British. The reason behind intense tribal rebellion is that zamindars, the Police, the revenue, and the court alas have exercised a combined system of extortions, oppressive exactions, forcible dispossession of property, abuse, and personal violence, and a variety of petty tyrannies upon the tribals. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Under British rule, the functions and powers of the tribal chiefs changed considerably. They were allowed to keep their land titles over a cluster of villages and rent out lands as zamindars but they lost much of their administrative power and were forced to follow laws made by British officials in India.
  • They also had to pay tribute to the British, and discipline the tribal groups on behalf of the British. They lost the authority they had earlier enjoyed amongst their people and were unable to fulfill their traditional functions.
• All these reasons compelled tribals to rise against the British rulers.

• Subhas Chandra Bose reorganized and revitalized the Indian National Army under Mohan Singh and Major-General Shah Nawaz Khan in Singapore in May 1943. So, Option (a) is not correct.
• On October 17, 1940, Mahatma Gandhi chose Acharya Vinoba Bhave as the first satyagrahi (proponent of satyagraha) to start personal satyagraha (a movement that meant holding to the truth) and Jawaharlal Nehru as the second. The British Colonial government had committed India to the Second World War without the consent of the Indian leaders. To oppose this decision by the foreign government, the Congress party launched individual satyagraha. So, Option (b) is correct.
• Chittaranjan Das formed the Congress-Khilafat-Swaraj Party within the Congress on 31 December 1922. He was aided by Motilal Nehru and Malaviya from UP, Lajpat Rai from Punjab, M. R. Jayakar and VithalbhaiPatel from Gujarat, the ‘Tilak group’ from Bombay and some leaders from south India. It became both a minority faction within the Congress and an independent organization ‘running candidates for legislatures  outside the purview of the Congress. The plan, program and constitution of the Swaraj Party (Swarajya Party) were drawn up at its first conference in Allahabad in 1924. Chittaranjan Das became the President of this new party, and Motilal Nehru was one of its secretaries. So, Option (c) is not correct.
• Cripps Mission was sent to India to discuss the British Government’s Draft Declaration on the Constitution of India with representative Indian leaders from all parties. Cripps arrived in Delhi on 22 March 1942, where they discussed the Draft Declaration with many Indian leaders. The Cripps Mission failed, and the issue of India’s constitution was postponed until the  end of the war.

Thus, Viceroy Linlithgow announced the Cripps Mission to offer dominion status to India on behalf of British
Parliament in 1942. So, Option (d) is not correct.
 

• Before the Indian nationalist intelligentsia began to associate itself with working-class agitations, there were also some early attempts at organized efforts to improve the condition of the workers. These efforts were made as early as the 1870s by philanthropists. 
• In 1878, Sorabjee Shapoorji Bengalee tried unsuccessfully to introduce a Bill in the Bombay Legislative Council to limit the working hours for labour. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• In Bengal, Sasipada Banerjea, a Brahmo Social reformer, set up a Workingmen’s Club in 1870 and published a monthly journal called Bharat Sramjeebi (Indian Labour), with the primary idea of educating the workers. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• In Bombay, Narayan Meghajee Lokhanday brought out an Anglo-Marathi weekly called Dina Bandhu (Friend of the Poor) in 1880, and started the Bombay Mill and Millhands’ Association in 1890. Lokhanday held meetings of workers and in one instance sent a memorial signed by 5,500 mill workers, to the Bombay Factory Commission, putting forward some minimum workers’ demands. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

The features of parliamentary government in India are:

• Presence of nominal and real executives;
• Majority party rule,
• Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature,
• Membership of the ministers in the legislature,
• Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister,
• Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly).

There are some differences between the British Parliamentary system and that of India. For example, the Indian Parliament is not a sovereign body like the British Parliament. Also, the Indian State has an elected head (republic) while the British State has hereditary head (monarchy).
 

• Statement 1 is correct: It provides safeguards against the exploitation of Scheduled Castes and Anglo Indian communities. It aims to promote and protect their social, educational, economic and cultural interests provided in the Constitution. It also participates in the planning process of the socio-economic development of SCs and Anglo Indians.

• Statement 2 is not correct: The President specifies what castes in each state and union territory are to be treated as the SCs. But any inclusion or exclusion of any caste from presidential notification can be done by parliament only. NCSC has an advisory role only in this regard.

• Statement 3 is correct: It presents to the President, annually and at such other times as it may deem fit, reports upon safeguards of SCs and Anglo Indians. It also discharges such other functions in relation to the protection, welfare and development of SCs as the President may specify.

Central government has proposed to constitute a new backward classes commission after the term of National Commission for Other Backward Classes (NCBC) ended.

Statement 1 is correct. Parliament has passed the Constitution (123rd Amendment) Bill which grants the National Commission on Backward Classes (NCBC) constitutional status by inserting a new article 338 B in the Constitution.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Bill states that the President may specify the socially and educationally backward classes in the various states and union territories. He may do this in consultation with the Governor of the concerned state, however a law of Parliament will be required if the list of backward classes is to be amended.

The commission will have a chairperson, vice-chairperson and three other members and hear the grievances of socially and educationally backward classes, a function discharged so far by the National Commission of Scheduled Castes (NCSC).

The bill also provides NCBC with the authority to examine complaints and welfare measures regarding socially and educationally backward classes.

NCBC will also have the powers of a civil court while investigating or inquiring into any complaints.

• The Preamble of the Constitution of India reveals four components.

• It states that the constitution derives its authority from the people of India. Therefore it reveals the source of authority of the constitution.

• It declares India to be of a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, and republican polity. Therefore, it reveals the nature of the Indian State.

• It specifies justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity as the objectives of the constitution

• It stipulates November 26, 1949, as the date of adoption of the constitution.

• The preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of legislation.

• Like Fundamental Duties and Directive Principle of State Policy, Preamble is also non-justiciable, that is, its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law.

• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Citizenship

• Indian Citizenship Act does not provide for dual citizenship.
• As per the Passport Act, it is mandatory for all Indian passport holders to surrender their last Indian passport to the Consulate immediately after acquisition of foreign nationality.
• It is an offence under the Citizenship Act and the Passports Act for foreign nationals to hold Indian passports.
• Once Indian passport is surrendered, The Embassy of India, The Hague will cancel and return it to the Passport holder along with Renunciation/Surrender certifi cate.
• The Embassy will not be in a position to render services like OCI, Visa etc. until Renunciation Certifi cate is submitted.

The chief minister  plays a very significant and highly crucial role in the state administration and it is the function of the Chief Minister shall communicate to the Governor all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration and the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation.

Schedule 4 deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the union territories. It covers articles 4 and 80. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.

• Schedule 5 deals with provisions relating to the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
• Schedule 6 deals with provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• 10^th Schedule deals with the provisions relating to disqualification of the members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the ground of defection. This schedule was added by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985, also known as Anti-defection Law. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.

• With an objective to shift the focus of measuring the performance of hospitals from the volume of services provided to the value of healthcare services, National Health Authority (NHA) is introducing a new system to measure and grade hospital performance under the flagship scheme Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY).
• The new initiative will introduce the concept of ‘value-based care’, where payment will be outcome- based and providers will be rewarded according to quality of treatment delivered. 
• AB PMJAY is a centrally sponsored health assurance scheme. It provides a cover of up to Rs. 5 lakhs per family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization. This is the “world’s largest government-funded healthcare program” targeting more than 50 crore beneficiaries. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It provides cashless and paperless access to services for beneficiaries at point of service. Beneficiary families have been identified from Socio-Economic Caste Census, 2011. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• National Health Authority (NHA) is the apex body responsible for implementing India’s flagship public health insurance/assurance scheme called “Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana” & has been entrusted with the role of designing strategy, building technological infrastructure, and implementing of “National Digital Health Mission” to create a National Digital Health Eco- system. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• National Health Authority is the successor of the National Health Agency, which was functioning as a registered society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 since 23rd May 2018. Pursuant to Cabinet decision for full functional autonomy, National Health Agency was reconstituted as the National Health Authority.

• Swaran Singh Committee was set up in 1976 by the Congress government to provide suggestions on the inclusion of the Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution. The Congress Government at the Centre accepted these recommendations and enacted the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976. This amendment added a new part, namely, Part IVA to the Constitution. This new part consists of only one Article, that is, Article 51A.
• Though the Swaran Singh Committee suggested the incorporation of eight Fundamental Duties in the Constitution, the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) included ten Fundamental Duties. Interestingly, certain recommendations of the Committee were not accepted by the Congress Party and hence, not incorporated in the Constitution.
• Certain recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee were not accepted and hence, not incorporated into the Constitution. This include: o The Parliament may provide for the imposition of such penalty or punishment as may be considered appropriate for any non-compliance with or refusal to observe any of the duties. Hence statement (a) is not correct. o No law imposing such penalty or punishment shall be called in question in any court on the ground of infringement of any of Fundamental Rights or on the ground of repugnancy to any other provision of the Constitution. Hence statement (d) is not correct. o Duty to pay taxes should also be a Fundamental Duty of the citizens. Hence statement (c) is not correct.
• Duty to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so is part of Fundamental duties under article 51A (d) of the constitution. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

In partnership with the United Nations Environment Programme, the Ocean Agency has launched Glowing Glowing Gone, a creative awareness campaign that draws attention to coral fluorescence due to climate change.

• Coral fluorescence, or “glowing” coral, is a last line of defense before coral dies and bleaches. Through Glowing Glowing Gone, UNEP hopes to garner public support to inspire policy and funding to conserve coral reefs and save an ecosystem on which our entire planet depends.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

• Nitrogen exists in organic and inorganic (ammonia, nitrate) forms and in different oxidation states. Nitrogen is a highly interchangeable compound and hence undergoes transformations from one oxidation state to another according to the use of organisms. The transformations include nitrogen fixation, nitrification, denitrification and ammonification carried out by the microorganisms especially the bacteria and fungi.
• Dinitrogen is made biologically available through nitrogen fixation. The conversion process is very energy demanding and only few prokaryotes can convert N2 into biological nitrogen.
• Lightning and certain industrial process also break the dinitrogen into biological available nitrogen. Some nitrogen fixers are free living and some exhibit symbiotic relationship with the host plant eg. Rhizobium in leguminous plants; Cyanobacteria in aquatic systems. The nitrogenase enzyme present in the nitrogen fixers catalyzes the reduction of N2 to NH3 (ammonia).
• The ammonia is oxidized to nitrite and nitrate by the nitrifying bacteria through the process of nitrification. Two distinct steps are involved in nitrification. First step involves the oxidation of ammonia to nitrite via an intermediate, the hydroxylamine carried out by ammonia oxidizing bacteria.
• Ammonia oxidizing bacteria are autotrophic and involve two enzymes viz. ammonia monooxygenase and hydroxylamine oxidoreductase.
• The second step involves the oxidation of nitrite to nitrate carried out by a specific group of bacteria nitrite oxidizing bacteria. Nitrospira, Nitrobacter, Nitrococcus, and Nitrospina are few of the nitrite oxidizing bacteria. Nitrate is highly soluble in water and hence gets leached out into the water body. Hence option 1 is not correct.
• The biological nitrogen is returned back to the atmosphere by the process of denitrification. Denitrifying bacteria converts the nitrate to dinitrogen under anaerobic conditions with a series of intermediate nitrogen compounds such as NO2, NO, N2O. Denitrification is carried out by anaerobic bacteria in soils, sediments, lakes and oceans. Denitrifying bacteria are chemoorganotrophs and require carbon for its growth. ThioBacillus, Paracoccus and Pseudomonas are some of the examples of denitrifying bacteria. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

• Migration remains one of the most compelling aspects of the avian world. Twice a year, billions of birds migrate vast distances across the globe. Typically, these journeys follow a predominantly north-south axis, linking breeding grounds in arctic and temperate regions with non-breeding sites in temperate and tropical areas.
• Many species migrate along broadly similar, well-established routes known as flyways.
• Recent research has identified eight such pathways: the East Atlantic, the Mediterranean/Black Sea, the East Asia/East Africa, the Central Asia, the East Asia/Australasia, and three flyways in the Americas and the Neotropics. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The Central Asian Flyway is the shortest flyway in the world. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Lying entirely within the Northern Hemisphere, it connects a large swathe of the Palaearctic with the Indian subcontinent.
• Separating the subcontinent from the Tibetan Plateau to the north are the Himalayas, which rise to over 8km and stretch 200km from north to south. Many of the migratory birds that breed in the mid-Palaearctic choose to avoid this formidable barrier and instead make a longer, south-westerly flight to Africa for the northern winter.
• There are however several Palaearctic breeders that do migrate to South Asia.
• Most ‘squeeze’ into the Indian subcontinent via routes at the two ends of the Tibetan massif.
• Others, like the Bar-headed Goose Anser indicus, follow a route directly over the Himalayan range. The species is the world's highest-altitude migrant, capable of clearing even Mount Everest. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  

Statement 1 is not correct and 2 is correct: Recent researches suggest that hydrocarbon-producing plants can become alternative energy sources, which can be inexhaustible and ideal for liquid fuel. These plants called petro plants/petro crops can be grown on land which is unfit for agriculture and not covered with forests.

Statement 3 is correct. Jatropha Curcas is an important petro plant

• Amensalim is an antagonistic interspecific interaction where one species suffers and the other species remains unaffected. This is commonly the effect when one species produces a chemical compound (as part of its normal metabolic reactions) that is harmful to the other species. It is also called antibiosis. The affected species is called amensal and the affecting species is called inhibitor.
• Allelopathy, in which some plants produce chemical compounds that inhibit the growth of nearby would-be competitors, is one type of amensalistic interaction. For example Black Walnut tree (Juglans nigra), secretes juglone from its roots, it is a chemical that harms or kills some of the surrounding plants species. The other plants are prohibited from growing under or near the trees while the walnut trees do not really get benefit in any way. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• The "inhibitory" chemicals are released into the environment and affect the development and growth of nearby plants. These substances influence the growth and development of agricultural and biological systems. Allelopathic chemicals can be present in the leaves, flowers, roots, fruits, or stems and may be released from these parts of the plant. Allelochemicals are introduced by the plants into the environment via root exudation, foliar leaching, volatilization, residue decomposition. They can also be found in the surrounding soil. Target species are affected by these toxins in many different ways. The toxic chemicals may reduce the plant growth by inhibiting the shoot/root growth, by blocking the nutrient uptake, or by disturbing the naturally occurring symbiotic relationship thereby destroying the plant's usable source of a nutrient. Allelochemicals may be involved in plant-plant, plant herbivore or plant insect communication via chemicals.

• Recently, the Prime Minister of India flagged off the world’s longest river cruise from Varanasi to Dibrugarh via Bangladesh carrying 32 Swiss tourists which will reach Dibrugarh after 50 days covering more than 3,200 km.
• It will cost $300 a day per passenger and this fare is same for Indians and foreigners.
• MV Ganga Vilas, the privately-operated luxurious three-deck cruise ship measuring 62 metres in length and 12 metres in width.

Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

• Protein is found throughout the body—in muscle, bone, skin, hair, and virtually every other body part or tissue. It makes up the enzymes that power many chemical reactions and the hemoglobin that carries oxygen in your blood.
• Within a protein, multiple amino acids are linearly linked together by peptide bonds, thereby forming a long chain. Peptide bonds are formed by a biochemical reaction that extracts a water molecule as it joins the amino group of one amino acid to the carboxyl group of a neighboring amino acid. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Collagen is the most abundant protein in the human body, found in the bones, muscles, skin, and tendons. It is an essential component of connective tissue and plays a crucial role in holding the body’s cells together. It also gives strength and elasticity to the skin. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Statements 1 and 2 are not correct : China launched the Einstein Probe (EP) to observe mysterious transient phenomena in the universe.

• A Long March-2C carrier rocket carried a satellite called Einstein Probe.
• It is a new astronomical satellite which is shaped like a lotus in full bloom.
• It is a mission of the Chinese Academy of Sciences (CAS) dedicated to time-domain high-energy astrophysics.
• It aims to capture the first light from supernova explosions, search for X-ray signals accompanying gravitational wave events, and discover dormant black holes and other celestial objects.
• The satellite's X-ray detection technology is inspired by lobster-eye telescopes.

• The first-ever joint exercise between the special forces of the Indian Army and the Egyptian Army named “Exercise Cyclone-I” is in progress at Jaisalmer in Rajasthan since 14 January 2023.
• Exercise “Cyclone - I” is the first exercise of its kind bringing the special forces of both nations on a common platform. The 14 day long exercise which is being carried out in the deserts of Rajasthan engages both the contingents to advance special forces skills such as Sniping, Combat Free Fall, Reconnaissance, Surveillance & Target Designation, sharing of information on weapons, equipment, innovations, tactics, techniques & procedures.
• The participants would also undertake joint planning and drills for Special Forces operations in a mechanized warfare setting as well as surgical strikes on terrorist camps/hideouts to include sniping of High-Value Targets.
• The joint exercise would provide an insight into the culture and ethos of both armies thereby fostering military cooperation and interoperability to further strengthen the diplomatic relations between India and Egypt.
• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Named after two scientists, Lee and Kim, and the year of its discovery — 1999 — LK-99 is a 
compound which is a room-temperature superconductor working at ambient pressure.

Statement 1

• It is a Constitutionally mandated body that is at the center of fiscal federalism.
• It is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution, mainly to give its recommendations on distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and amongst the States themselves.
• Its working is characterized by extensive and intensive consultations with all levels of governments, thus strengthening the principle of cooperative federalism.

Functions
It is the duty of the Commission to make recommendations to the President as to—

• the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or may be, divided between them and the allocation between the States of the respective shares of such proceeds;
• the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India;
• the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State;
• the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Municipalities in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State; any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interests of sound finance.

Composition
As per the provisions contained in the Finance Commission [Miscellaneous Provisions] Act, 1951 and The Finance Commission (Salaries & Allowances) Rules, 1951, the Chairman of the Commission is selected from among persons who have had experience in public affairs, and the four other members are selected from among persons who–

• are, or have been, or are qualified to be appointed as Judges of a High Court; or
• have special knowledge of the finances and accounts of Government; or
• have had wide experience in financial matters and in administration; or
• have special knowledge of economics

The government appointed former Niti Aayog vice chairman, Arvind Panagariya as the chairman of the Sixteenth Finance Commission

None of the pairs are correctly matched.

•  Nebulae are enormous clouds of gas and dust in interstellar space.
•  Transients refer to astronomical phenomena with durations of fractions of a second to weeks  or years. Typically they are extreme, short-lived events associated with the total or partial destruction of an astrophysical object.
• A supernova is the colossal explosion of a star.  It happens when a star has reached the end of  its life and explodes in a brilliant burst of light

Statement 1

• NJA, established in 1993 under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, is an independent society, fully funded by the Government of India, and works under the directions of the Supreme Court of India.
• Mandate: Strengthening the Administration of Justice through Judicial Education, Research, and Policy Development.

Statement 2

• The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is the Chairman of the General Body of NJA as well as the Chairman of the Governing Council, the Executive Committee, and the Academic Council of NJA.
• The Director, NJA is the Principal Executive Officer of NJA. The Director is appointed by the Chairman, the Hon’ble Chief Justice of India.

Supreme Court said recently while asserting that all advocates should undergo compulsory training.

DNA fingerprinting is a chemical test that shows the genetic makeup of a person or other living things.
It‘s used as evidence in courts, to identify bodies, track down blood relatives, and to look for cures for
disease.
Uses:
DNA fingerprinting most often has been used in court cases and legal matters. It can:

• Physically connect a piece of evidence to a person or rule out someone as a suspect.
• Show who your parents, siblings, and other relatives may be.
• Identify a dead body that‘s too old or damaged to be recognizable.
• DNA fingerprinting is extremely accurate. Most countries now keep DNA records on file in much the same way police keep copies of actual fingerprints.
• For criminal identification. Hence, option1 is correct.
• To resolve disputes of maternity/paternity. Hence, option 2 is correct.
• To identify mutilated remains. Hence, option 3 is correct.
• In cases of exchange of babies in a hospital ward. Hence, option 4 is correct.
• In forensic wildlife. Hence, option 5 is correct.

It also has medical uses. It can:

• Match tissues of organ donors with those of people who need transplants.
• Identify diseases that are passed down through your family.
• Help find cures for those diseases, called hereditary conditions.