Goa PCS Screening Mock Test- 9 - GPSC (Goa) MCQ

Option c is correct

• Policy of Ring Fence: It is followed by Warren Hastings, under which aimed at creating buffer zones to defend the Company’s frontiers. Broadly speaking, it was the policy of defence of their neighbours’ frontiers for safeguarding their own territories. This policy of Warren Hastings was reflected in his war against the Marathas and Mysore. NOT by Lord Hastings. Both are different.

• Policy of Subsidiary Alliance: It is followed by Lord Wellesley, under which the allying Indian state’s ruler was compelled to accept the permanent stationing of a British force within his territory and to pay a subsidy for its maintenance. Also, the Indian ruler had to agree to the posting of a British resident in his court. Under the system, the Indian ruler could not employ any European in his service without the prior approval of the British. Nor could he negotiate with any other Indian ruler without consulting the governor-general. In return for all this, the British would defend the ruler from his enemies and adopt a policy of non-interference in the internal matters of the allied state.

• Policy of Doctrine of Lapse: It is followed by Lord Dalhousie, under which the adopted son could be the heir to his foster father’s private property, but not the state; it was for the paramount power (the British) to decide whether to bestow the state on the adopted son or to annex it.

• Statement 1 is not correct: The share-croppers demand two-third of the produce from the land. There was huge participation of peasants from rural areas. North Bengal was the epicentre of the movement. The demands of sharecroppers were incorporated in the Bengal Bargadars Temporary Regulation Bill. At the request of the jotedars, the police suppressed the sharecroppers and the movement slowly disappeared by the end of March 1947.

• Statement 2 is not correct: The demands were based on the recommendation of the Floud Commission also known as the Bengal Land Revenue Commission which recommended two-third share to the bargardars (sharecroppers).

• The Sanyasis rose in rebellion after the great famine of 1770 in Bengal which caused acute chaos and misery. The Bengal famine of 1770 led peasants whose lands were confiscated, displaced zamindars, and disbanded soldiers, and poor to come together in a rebellion. They were joined by the Sanyasis (who were originally peasants) and Fakirs.
• However, the immediate cause of the rebellion was the restrictions imposed by the British upon pilgrims visiting holy places among both Hindus and Muslims. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Two famous Hindu leaders who supported them were Bhawani Pathak and a woman, Devi Choudhurani. They attacked English factories and seized their goods, cash, arms and ammunition. Maznoom Shah was one of their prominent leaders.
  • It was only after a prolonged action that Lord Warren Hastings (Governor-General of Bengal) could subdue the sanyasis. Equal participation of Hindus and Muslims characterized the uprisings. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Anandamath, a semi-historical novel by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, is based on the Sanyasi Revolt. Bankim Chandra also wrote a novel, Devi Chaudhurani, as he saw the importance of women too taking up the struggle against an alien rule that posed a threat to traditional Indian values. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• In 1935, the Government of India Act was passed. It evolved into the concept of the All India Federation. Provincial Autonomy was introduced. There was to be a transfer of financial control from London to Delhi in response to the long-standing demand of the Government of India for fiscal autonomy. Provinces were given independent financial powers and resources. Provincial governments could borrow money for their own security. So, Statement 1 is correct.
• The Government of India Act 1935 expanded the size of the electorate to 30 million but retained high property qualifications. Only 10 percent of the Indian population got the right to vote. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
• The Government of India Act 1935 expanded women's franchise through preferential or special franchise qualifications, it also reserved seats for women in legislatures in accordance with the allocation of seats for different communities. So, Statement 3 is correct.
• The Government of India Act 1935 replaced the diarchy. At the same time, it gave provincial governors enormous 'discretionary power' to call the legislature, to not give consent to bills passed in legislatures, and, most important and undemocratic of all, to take over the control of a province from its elected majority ministry on the grounds of public order. Dyarchy was introduced at the center under the condition of several safeguards, and the Viceroy retained full control over foreign affairs, defense, and internal security. So, Statement 4 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
GOVERNMENT OF INDIA ACT, 1935
Main Features 3⁄4 The establishment of an All-India Federation in which Governors' Provinces, the
Chief Commissioners' Provinces, and those Indian states which might accede to
be united were to be included.

• The Federal Legislature was to have two chambers (bicameral)—the Council of States and the  Federal Legislative Assembly. The Council of States (the Upper House) was to be a permanent body
• There was a provision for joint sitting in cases of deadlock between the houses. There were to be three subject lists—the Federal Legislative List, the Provincial Legislative List, and the Concurrent Legislative List. Residuary legislative powers were subject to the discretion of the governor-general.
• Dyarchy in the provinces was abolished, and provinces were given autonomy, Provinces derived their power and authority directly from the British Crown. They were given independent financial powers and resources Provincial legislatures were further expanded.
• The principles of 'communal electorates' and 'weightage' were further extended to depressed classes, women, and labor The franchise was extended, with about 10 percent of the total population getting
• the right to vote.
• The Act also provided for a Federal Court
• The India Council of the Secretary of State was abolished
   

Satyasodhak Samaj – 

1. It was a social reform organisation founded by Jyotiba Phule 1873. It espoused a mission of education and increased social rights and political access for underprivileged groups, focused especially on women, shudras and Dalits in Maharashtra. 
2. Satyasodhak Samaj argued equality of all human beings. It maintained faith in one-god, rejected any kind of intermediary between god and man (No need of Brahmans to connect with God) and rejected the caste system. 
3. Phule in his book Ghulamgiri claimed that Brahmans were Aryan invaders who came from Central Asian and invaded India. Later they enslaved all the other population of India. They wrote scriptures, law and custom to conceal their crimes. 
4. The Samaj thus advocated that to reclaim their social status, low caste group should oppose priests as middlemen between man and God in religious rituals. The Samaj also advocated for less expensive weddings, inter-caste marriages, end of child marriage and right to marry for the widows.
5. Emphasised on English education

• The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Later, it was transferred to the Ministry of Personnel and now it enjoys the status of an attached office. The Special Police Establishment (which looked into vigilance cases) setup in 1941 was also merged with the CBI. The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–1964). The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, of 1946.
• The functions of CBI are:
  • Investigating cases of corruption, bribery, and misconduct of Central government employees. Hence statement (a) is correct.
  • Investigating cases relating to infringement of fiscal and economic laws, that is, breach of laws concerning export and import control, customs and central excise, income tax, foreign exchange regulations, and so on. However, such cases are taken up either in consultation with or at the request of the department concerned.
  • Investigating serious crimes, having national and international ramifications, committed by organized gangs of professional criminals. Hence statement (c) is correct.
  • Coordinating the activities of the anticorruption agencies and the various state police forces
  • Taking up, on the request of a state government, any case of public importance for investigation.
  • Maintaining crime statistics and disseminating criminal information. Hence statement (d) is correct.
• Probing terror attacks including bomb blasts, hijacking of aircraft and ships, attacks on nuclear installations, and use of weapons of mass destruction is the function of the National Investigation Agency. Hence option (b) is not correct.

• Statement 1 is not correct: The President appoints Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners. They have tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to Judges of the Supreme Court of India.

• Statement 2 is correct: The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through impeachment by Parliament.

• Statement 3 is not correct: The decisions of the Commission can be challenged in the High Court and the Supreme Court of India by appropriate petitions. By long standing convention and several judicial pronouncements, once the actual process of elections has started, the judiciary does not intervene in the actual conduct of the polls. Once the polls are completed and results declared, the Commission cannot review any result on its own. This can only be reviewed through the process of an election petition, which can be filed before the High Court, in respect of elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures. In respect of elections for the offices of the President and Vice President, such petitions can only be filed before the Supreme Court.

It is the Prime Minister who allocates portfolios to the other Ministers. The Prime Minister may call for the resignation of any Minister at any time. In case of refusal he may advise the President to dismiss the Minister.

Statement 1 is correct. Under the principle of collective responsibility, the resignation of PM results in resignation of the whole council.

Statement 2 is incorrect. As per Article 75, all the ministers are appointed by the President and they tender their resignation to him only.

All the members of the Council of Ministers do not belong to the same rank. The Constitution does not classify ministers into different ranks but in practice 4 ranks have come to be recognized.

I. Cabinet Ministers—He has a right to be present and participate in every meeting of the Cabinet. For proclamation of an emergency under Art. 352 the advice must come from the Prime Minister and other Ministers of cabinet rank.

II. Minister of State with independent charge—He is a Minister of State who does not work under a Cabinet Minister. When any matter concerning his Department is on the agenda of the Cabinet, he is invited to attend the meeting.

III. Minister of State—He is a Minister who does not have independent charge of any Department and works under a Cabinet Minister. The work to such Minister is allotted by his Cabinet Minister.

IV. Deputy Minister—He is a Minister who works under a Cabinet Minister or a Minister of State with independent charge. The work to him is allotted by the Minister under whom he is working. The Prime Minister allocates portfolios to the Cabinet Ministers and Ministers of State with independent charge. The other Ministers are allocated work by their respective Cabinet Ministers. Ministers may be chosen from the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. A Minister who is a member of one House has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of the other House. A Minister is allowed to vote only in the House of which he is a member. A person who is not a member of either House may also be appointed as a Minister. He can continue as a Minister only for six months.

Because that is the limit fixed by Art. 75(5). If he desires to continue as Minister he has to become a member of any one of the Houses of Parliament before the expiration of the period of 6 months. A person who is not qualified to become a member of a legislature cannot be appointed a minister under Art. 75(5). In this case minister would not include Prime Minister because non-election of Prime Minister would dissolve the Council

of Ministers after expiration of the period of 6 months.

• While the Prime Minister is the head of the government, the President is the head of the State. In our political system, the head of the State exercises only nominal powers. The President supervises the overall functioning of all the political institutions in the country so that they operate in harmony to achieve the objectives of the State.

• Presidents all over the world are not always nominal executives like the President of India. In many countries of the world, the President is both the head of the state and the head of the government. The President of the United States of America is the most well-known example of this kind of President. The US President is directly elected by the people. He personally chooses and appoints all Ministers. The law- making is still done by the legislature (called the Congress in the US), but the president can veto any law.

• Most importantly, the president does not need the support of the majority of members in Congress and neither is he answerable to them. He has a fixed tenure of four years and completes it even if his party does not have a majority in the Congress

• Merits of Presidential System:

  • Stable government. Hence option 2 is correct.

  • Definiteness in policies.

  • Based on separation of powers. Hence option 3 is correct.

  • Government by experts.

• Demerits of Presidential System:

  • The conflict between legislature and executive.

  • Non-responsible government. Hence option 4 is not correct.

  • May lead to autocracy.

  • Narrow representation. Hence option 1 is not correct.

1. Supremacy of the Constitution.

2. Rule of law.

3. The principle of Separation of Powers.

4. The objectives specified in the Preamble to the Constitution.

5. Judicial Review.

6. Articles 32 and 226.

7. Federalism (including financial liberty of states under Articles 282 and 293)

8. Secularism.

9. The Sovereign, Democratic, Republican structure.

10. Freedom and dignity of the individual.

11. Unity and integrity of the Nation.

12. The principle of equality, not every feature of equality, but the quintessence of equal justice.

13. The "essence" of other Fundamental Rights in Part III.

14. The concept of social and economic justice — to build a Welfare State: Part IV.

15. The balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.

16. The Parliamentary system of government.

17. The principle of free and fair elections.

18. Limitations upon the amending power conferred by Article 368.

19. Independence of the Judiciary.

20. Effective access to justice.

21. Powers of the Supreme Court under Articles 32, 136, 141, 142.

22. Legislation seeking to nullify the awards made in exercise of the judicial power of the State.

23. By Arbitration Tribunals constituted under an Act.

24. Welfare state.

Article 33 and its uses

• Article 33 empowers the Parliament of India to restrict or modify the fundamental rights of members of the armed forces, paramilitary forces, and police forces.
• This includes the power to curtail or suspend rights related to freedom of speech and expression, freedom of assembly, freedom to form associations or unions, and the right to move freely throughout the territory of India.
• The primary objective of Article 33 is to maintain discipline and ensure the proper functioning of these organizations in the interest of national security.
• By allowing certain restrictions on fundamental rights, it enables the armed forces and other forces to effectively carry out their duties without compromising on the requirements of discipline and hierarchy.

The Constitution provides for the abolition or creation of legislative councils in states. Accordingly, the Parliament can abolish a legislative council (where it already exists) or create it (where it does not exist), if the legislative assembly of the concerned state passes a resolution to that effect. Such a specific resolution must be passed by the state assembly by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the assembly and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the assembly present and voting.

As at the Centre, there is no provision in the Constitution for the system of legal responsibility of the minister in the states. It is not required that a minister should countersign an order of the governor for a public act. Moreover, the courts are barred from inquiring into the nature of advice rendered by the ministers to the governor.

Like the President, the governor is also entitled to several privileges and immunities personal immunity from legal liability for his acts. During his term of office, he is immune to any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts. He cannot be arrested or imprisoned. However, after giving two months' notice, civil proceedings can be instituted against him during his term of office in respect of his personal acts.

The oath of office to the governor is administered by the chief justice of the concerned state high court and in his absence, the senior-most judge of that court available.

• While many different types of trash enter the ocean, plastics make up the majority of marine debris for two reasons. 
• First, plastic’s durability, low cost, and malleability mean that it’s being used in more and more consumer and industrial products. Second, plastic goods do not biodegrade but instead, break down into smaller pieces.
• In the ocean, the sun breaks down these plastics into tinier and tinier pieces, a process known as photodegradation. Most of this debris comes from plastic bags, bottle caps, plastic water bottles, and Styrofoam cups.
• Marine debris can be very harmful to marine life in the gyre. For instance, loggerhead sea turtles often mistake plastic bags for jellies, their favourite food. Albatrosses mistake plastic resin pellets for fish eggs and feed them to chicks, which die of starvation or ruptured organs.
• Seals and other marine mammals are especially at risk. They can get entangled in abandoned plastic fishing nets, which are being discarded largely due to inclement weather and illegal fishing. Seals and other mammals often drown in these forgotten nets—a phenomenon known as “ghost fishing.” Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
• Other fishing types --Bottom fishing is angling with heavy weight at the bottom of water. It can be done from boats and from the land and its aim is catching the fish that lives at the bottom.-Kite fishing is using kites to carry line and fishhook to the places that are not easily reachable. It was invented in China and it is still used on New Guinea and other Pacific Islands.- Fly fishing uses artificial flies as lures with specially constructed fly rods and fly lines. Artificial flies are usually hand made in variety of shapes.

• The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB) is a global initiative focused on “making nature’s values visible”. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Its principal objective is to mainstream the values of biodiversity and ecosystem services into decisionmaking at all levels.
• It aims to achieve this goal by following a structured approach to valuation that helps decision-makers recognize the wide range of benefits provided by ecosystems and biodiversity, demonstrate their values in economic terms, and, where appropriate, suggest how to capture those values in decision-making.
• TEEB finds its institutional home at the United Nations Environment Programme in Geneva, Switzerland, and sets up an office to manage day-to-day operations and communications activities. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Government of India launched The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity TEEB-India Initiative (TII) in 2015 to highlight the economic consequences of the loss of biological diversity and the associated decline in ecosystem services. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
• The Initiative focussed on three ecosystems, namely forests, inland wetlands, and coastal and marine ecosystems.

• Bioaccumulation: It refers to how pollutants enter a food chain. In bioaccumulation there is an increase in concentration of a pollutant from the environment to the first organism in a food chain.
• Biomagnification: It refers to the tendency of pollutants to concentrate as they move from one trophic level to the next. Thus in biomagnification there is an increase in concentration of a pollutant from one link in a food chain to another.
• We are concerned about these phenomena because together they enable even small concentrations of chemicals in the environment to find their way into organisms in high enough dosages to cause problems. In order for biomagnification to occur, the pollutant must be
  • long-lived;
  • mobile;
  • soluble in fats;
  • biologically active. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
• If a pollutant is short-lived, it will be broken down before it can become dangerous. If it is not mobile, it will stay in one place and is unlikely to be taken up by organisms. If the pollutant is soluble in water, it will be excreted by the organism. Pollutants that dissolve in fats, however, may be retained for a long time.
• It is traditional or customary to measure the amount of pollutants in fatty tissues of organisms such as fish. In mammals, we often test the milk produced by females, since the milk has a lot of fat in it and because the very young are often more susceptible to damage from toxins (poisons). If a pollutant is not active biologically, it may biomagnify, but we really do not worry about it much, since it probably, will not cause any problems.

• The Action Plan for Vulture Conservation (APVC) in India, 2020-2025 is an important measure for the vulture conservation in the country. With the expiry of the first action plan in 2009, it was imperative that a new document be drafted that outlines the vision for vulture conservation for the coming years.
• The APVC 2020-2025, has identified priority actions and additional action points for the conservation of vultures than mentioned in the action plan of 2006. Some of its objectives are:
  • Prevent the poisoning of the principal food of vultures, the cattle carcasses, with veterinary Non- steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), by ensuring that sale of veterinary NSAIDs is regulated and is disbursed only on prescription and by ensuring that treatment of livestock is done only by qualified veterinarians.
  • Carry out safety testing of available molecules of veterinary NSAIDs on vultures.
  • The DCGI must institute a system that automatically removes a drug from veterinary use if it is found to be toxic to vultures.
  • There is a need to establish additional Conservation Breeding Centres in the country. Currently, there are 8 Vulture Conservation Breeding Centres in different parts of the country. So it is proposed to set up one centre each in Uttar Pradesh, Tripura, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, which will cover most parts of the country. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Four rescue centres have been proposed for different geographical areas like Pinjore in the north, Bhopal in Central India, Guwahati in Northeast India and Hyderabad in South India.
  • It is proposed to have at least one vulture safe zone in each State for the conservation of the remnant populations in that State. The vulture safe zone shall be created ensuring low prevalence of toxic NSAIDs in an area of 100 km radius from the vulture colony through targeted advocacy and awareness programmes following the established protocol. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Detritus Food Chain 

• The detritus food chain (DFC) begins with dead organic matter. It is made up of decomposers which are heterotrophic organisms, mainly fungi and bacteria.
• They meet their energy and nutrient requirements by degrading dead organic matter or detritus. These are also known as saprotrophs (sapro: to decompose).
• Decomposers secrete digestive enzymes that breakdown dead and waste materials into simple, inorganic materials, which are subsequently absorbed by them.

• Recent Context: The Bihar government recently launched the caste survey which aims to compile data on each family digitally through a mobile application from the panchayat to the district level.
  • However, pleas were submitted to quash the notification on the ground that the caste-based census “violated the basic structure of the Constitution”
  • Supreme Court refused to entertain the petitions and asked the petitioners to approach the high court.
• About Caste Census
  • The caste census is the caste-wise tabulation of the population in the census exercise.
  • The first census in India began in 1872 and the periodic count in 1881 under British rule. Since then, the data on caste was always included, though only till 1931. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • Ever since independence, the Census had only the data related to SC and ST populations.
  • The caste census is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Earlier in 2011 attempt was made to Caste Census by conducting the Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC). Rohini Commission was another attempt at categorization within OBCs for better-targeted service delivery.

• Recently, the sale of the 25th tranche of electoral bonds started.
• An electoral bond would be a bearer instrument in the nature of a promissory note and an interest-free banking instrument. A citizen of India or a body incorporated in India will be eligible to purchase the bond. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Electoral Bond (s) would be issued/purchased for any value, in multiples of Rs.1,000, Rs.10,000, Rs.1,00,000, Rs.10,00,000, and Rs.1,00,00,000 from the Specified Branches of the State Bank of India (SBI). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The purchaser would be allowed to buy Electoral Bond(s) only on due fulfilment of all the extant KYC norms and by making payment from a bank account. It will not carry the name of the payee. Electoral Bonds would have a life of only 15 days during which they can be used for making donations only to the political parties registered under section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, and which secured not less than one percent of the votes polled in the last general election to the House of the People or a Legislative Assembly. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The Electoral Bonds under the Scheme shall be available for purchase for a period of 10 days each in the months of January, April, July, and October, as may be specified by the Central Government. An additional period of 30 days shall be specified by the Central Government in the year of the General election to the House of People.
• The Electoral Bond(s) shall be encashed by an eligible political party only through a designated bank account with the authorized bank.
• Eligibility: Registered political parties that secured at least one percent of votes polled in the most recent General or Assembly elections.

Both the statements are correct.

What is the Polygraph Test?

• The Polygraph Test is commonly known as a lie detector test.
• It is based on the assumption that physiological responses (heartbeat, changes in breathing, sweating, etc.) triggered when a person is lying are different from what they would be otherwise. Are the results of the tests admissible as evidence?
• In ‘Selvi & Ors vs State of Karnataka & Anr’ (2010) the Supreme Court said, that the results of the tests cannot be considered to be “confessions”.

• Green crackers are dubbed as ‘eco-friendly’ crackers and are known to cause less air and noise pollution as compared to traditional firecrackers. They are not completely pollution-free but are relatively cleaner and safer than regular crackers. The regular crackers produce 160-200 decibels of sound, while the green crackers are limited to about 100-130 decibels. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Green crackers use alternative chemicals such as potassium nitrate and aluminum instead of magnesium and barium as well as carbon instead of arsenic and other harmful pollutants. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Intermolecular forces tend to keep the molecules together but the thermal energy of the molecules tends to keep them apart. Three states of matter are the result of a balance between intermolecular forces and the thermal energy of the molecules. Hence the correct option is (c)
When molecular interactions are very weak, molecules do not cling together to make liquid or solid unless thermal energy is reduced by lowering the temperature.
Gases do not liquify on compression-only, although molecules come very close to each other and intermolecular forces operate to the maximum. However, when the thermal energy of molecules is reduced by lowering the temperature; the gases can be very easily liquified.

About Salton Sea

• It is a shallow, saline lake located in the lower Colorado Desert, southern California, USA.
• It is a geological depression tucked between mountain ranges and lying below sea level.

Formation:

• The area that is now the lake was formerly a salt-covered sink or depression (a remnant of prehistoric Lake Cahuilla) about 280 feet (85 metres) below sea level until 1905–06, when diversion controls on the Colorado River broke a few miles below the California-Mexico border and floodwaters rushed northward, filling the depression.
• Subsequent deepening of the sink was stopped in 1907, when a line of protective levees was built.
• It is currently 228 feet below sea level.
• It covers an area of 970 square km and includes 130 miles of shoreline.
• It has an average depth of 29.9 feet and, at its deepest, 51 feet.
• Its salinity (some 45 parts per thousand) far exceeds that of seawater.
• The Salton Sea is an important stopping point for migratory waterfowl and serves as critical habitat for birds moving south to Mexico and Central America.

The U.S. Department of Energy recently discovered the world’s largest Lithium reserve beneath California’s Salton Sea.

The xylem and the phloem make up the vascular tissue of a plant and transports water, sugars, and other important substances around a plant. What is commonly referred to as  ̳sap‘ is indeed the substances that are being transported around a plant by its xylem and phloem.

Phloem and xylem are closely associated and are usually found right next to one another. One xylem and one phloem are known as a  ̳vascular bundle‘ and most plants have multiple vascular bundles running the length of their leaves, stems, and roots.

Xylem tissue is used mostly for transporting water from roots to stems and leaves but also transports other dissolved compounds. Phloem is responsible for transporting food produced from photosynthesis from leaves to non-photosynthesizing parts of a plant such as roots and stems. Phloem

• The phloem carries important sugars, organic compounds, and minerals around a plant. Sap within the phloem simply travels by diffusion between cells and works its way from leaves down to the roots with help from gravity. The phloem is made from cells called  ̳sieve-tube members‘ and  ̳companion cells‘. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Xylem

• The xylem is responsible for keeping a plant hydrated. Xylem sap travels upwards and has to overcome serious gravitational forces to deliver water to a plant‘s upper extremities, especially in tall trees. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

About FAST Telescope

• The Five-hundred-meter Aperture Spherical radio Telescope (FAST), located in a karst depression in Guizhou, China.
• It is the world’s largest single-dish radio telescope, with a receiving area equivalent to 30 football fields.
• It is expected that FAST will maintain its world-class status for the next 20 to 30 years.

Goals

• Detect neutral hydrogen to the edge of the universe, reconstruct the images of the early universe;
• Discover pulsar, establish a pulsar timing array, and participate in pulsar navigation and gravitational wave detection in the future;
• Join the International Very-Long-Baseline Interferometry Network to obtain hyperfine structures of celestial bodies;
• Perform high resolution radio spectral survey. Detect weak space signals;
• Participate in the search for extraterrestrial intelligence.

Recently, astronomers from the Nanjing University in China and elsewhere have detected a radio pulsar in a supernova remnant known as CTB 87 by using the Five-hundred-meter Aperture Spherical radio Telescope (FAST)

A fluorescent lamp, or fluorescent tube, is a low-pressure mercury-vapour gas-discharge lamp that uses fluorescence to produce visible light.

An electric current in the gas excites mercury vapour, which produces short-wave ultraviolet light that then causes a phosphor coating on the inside of the lamp to glow. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Astatine is a radioactive element of the halogen series: a decay product of uranium and thorium that occurs naturally in minute amounts and is artificially produced by bombarding bismuth with alpha particles. There are currently no uses for astatine outside of research.

Cinnabar is a toxic mercury sulfide mineral with a chemical composition of HgS. It is the only important ore of mercury. It has a bright red colour that has caused people to use it as a pigment, and carve it into jewellery and ornaments for thousands of years in many parts of the world.