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KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - KVS PGT/TGT/PRT MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7

KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 for KVS PGT/TGT/PRT 2024 is part of KVS PGT/TGT/PRT preparation. The KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 questions and answers have been prepared according to the KVS PGT/TGT/PRT exam syllabus.The KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 MCQs are made for KVS PGT/TGT/PRT 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 below.
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KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 1

Directions: In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active (or Passive) Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one that best expresses the same sentence in Passive/ Active Voice.

People are raising a hue and cry and are breaking the furniture.

Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 1

The given sentence in active voice is: "People are raising a hue and cry and are breaking the furniture."

The correct transformation of this sentence into the passive voice is: "A hue and cry is being raised and the furniture is being broken by the people."

Therefore, the correct answer is option C: "A hue and cry is being raised and the furniture is being broken by the people."

KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 2

Fill in the blank with the correct option. 

I never lend money to Curtis. He ______ pays me back.

Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 2

Answer: C Explanation: The correct option is C: never, because the sentence implies that Curtis has a habit of not paying back the borrowed money. The sentence with the correct option would be: - I never lend money to Curtis. He never pays me back.

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KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 3

मदनश्लाका किसका पर्यायवाची है?

Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 3
मदनश्लाका कोयल का पर्यायवाची है। Key Points Additional Informationकबूतर
  • बहुवचन - कबूतर
  • समानार्थी शब्द - कपोत
  • लिंग - पुल्लिंग
  • संज्ञा के प्रकार - जातिवाचक

चिड़िया

  • बहुवचन - चिड़ियाँ
  • समानार्थी शब्द - पंछी , पक्षी , परिंदा
  • लिंग - स्त्रीलिंग
  • संज्ञा के प्रकार - जातिवाचक

कोयल

  • बहुवचन - कोयलें
  • समानार्थी शब्द - कोकिल , कोकिला
  • लिंग - स्त्रीलिंग
  • संज्ञा के प्रकार - जातिवाचक

कौआ

  • समानार्थी शब्द - काग , काक , कौवा
  • विलोम शब्द - कौवी , कौवी
  • लिंग - पुल्लिंग
KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 4
Generally, the following characteristic of physical development of girls and boys are observed-
Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 4

Development refers to an increase in structure for better and enhanced functioning of organs. It is a product of the interaction of hereditary and environment.

  • The major domains of development such as physicalintellectual, social-emotional, and language are developed in an integrated and holistic process.
  • Physical development is the process that starts in human infancy and continues into late adolescence concentrating on gross and fine motor skills as well as puberty.
  • It gives structure, form, and functions to the human body. It includes changes in the body - in the brain, muscles, sense organs, bones, and so on, and in ways an individual uses his/her body e.g., motor development.

Key Points

The characteristic of the physical development of girls and boys are observed is that 'Girls are two-three years ahead in physical development' as:

  • In girls, puberty usually starts between ages 9 and 11 while in boys, puberty usually starts around age 11.
  • Physical changes in girls usually start after age 12 while in boys it usually starts around age 13.
  • In girls, acne first appears at the age of 12 while in boys, acne appears around age 14.

Hence, it could be concluded that 'Girls are two-three years ahead in physical development' is the appropriate answer in the context of the question.

KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 5

Which one of the following statements best summarizes the relationship between development and learning?

A. Development and learning affect each other

B. Development process lags behind the learning process

C. Development is synonymous with learning

D. Learning and Development are parallel processes

Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 5

Learning is a process through which an individual goes through qualitative changes in comparison to what has been conceived by him or her earlier in life. 

Key Points 

  • Developmentby contrast, refers to qualitative changes taking place simultaneously with quantitative changes of growth. It may be defined as a progressive series of orderly, coherent changes.
  • The organism does not simply live in the environment but is also acted upon by it. In turn, the organism also acts upon the environment. All such action-reaction behaviors involve changes and modifications in the organism. This kind of change or modification is termed ‘learning’.  

Important Points

 Relationship between development and learning:-

  • The processes of child development are independent of learning. 
  • Few believe that learning leads to development whereas others believe that development leads to learning.
  • It merely utilizes the achievements of development rather than providing an impetus for modifying its course. 
  • Development and learning affect each other:- Learning and development as the same, or at least indistinguishable. In this view, learning is the mastery of conditioned responses, the acquisition of the range of habits and behavioral tendencies.
  • Learning and Development are parallel processes:- Learning awakens the developmental process through social interactions with peers and teachers. They both are parallel processes.

Thus, it is concluded that  Development and learning affect each other, and Learning and Development are parallel processes that are the best statements that summarize the relationship between development and learning.

KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 6
Which of the following is not the way to promote inclusive practices for a child suffering from autism?
Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 6

Autism Spectrum Disorder is a neurodevelopmental disability that affects a child's ability to communicate, understand language, play and interact with others. It is a life-long pervasive developmental disorder that affects the normal development of the brain in areas that impact communication and social interaction combined with restricted patterns of behaviours. Impairments in these areas range from mild to profound. A high-functioning individual with autism can have a high IQ, can be verbal and may socially interact with others while a low-functioning individual with autism may have mental retardation, be completely non-verbal and may not interact with others. This extensive range represents many autism conditions that are known as Autism Spectrum Disorders.

Traditionally students with autism were not considered for placement in Inclusive settings as they present significant challenges to classroom teachers. A key challenge of the successful inclusion of these students is the incorporation of curricular needs into the educational programme. They are as follows:

  • To develop basic language and social skills.
  • To provide academic instruction consistent with cognitive level
  • To teach functional skills for post-school success.
  • To provide behavioural intervention to enhance social and functional skills.

Hence, we conclude that all the above points are related to promoting inclusive practices.

KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 7
Depression, self-harm, anxiety disorders, and eating disorders are all examples of _______health problems faced by children.
Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 7

Health means different things to different people but if we talk about a universal approach, then calling ourselves healthy means that we can successfully manage all the social, physical, and emotional challenges that we face in our life.

Key Points

  • Emotional health is about how we think and feel.
  • It is about our sense of well-being, our ability to deal with life events, and how we accept our feelings as well as the feelings of others.
  • Emotional health is that in which you are in control of your mental state, thoughts, feelings, and behaviors.
  • Depression, self-harm, anxiety disorders, and eating disorders are all examples of Emotional health problems faced by children.

Additional Information

  • ​Physical health: Physical well-being implies a state in which every cell and organ is functionin6 at optimum capacity and in harmony with the rest of the body. It is a very important component of health.
  • Spiritual health: Spiritual health refers to the striving to understand the meaning and purpose of life. It is that "something" that goes beyond physiology and psychology.
  • Intellectual health: It is the cognitive ability to develop skills and knowledge to enhance one's life. Our intellectual capacity helps to stimulate our creativity and improve our decision-making ability.

Hence, we can conclude that depression, self-harm, anxiety disorders, and eating disorders are all examples of Emotional health problems faced by children.

KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 8
“Anyone can become angry - that is easy, but to be angry with the right person, to the right degree, at the right time, for the right purpose, and in the right way - that is not easy.” This is related to
Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 8

The term ‘development’ refers to qualitative changes in an individual such as a change in personality or other mental and emotional aspects. However, very often growth and development are used interchangeably.

  • The process of development continues even after the individual has attained physical maturity (growth). The individual is continuously changing as he/she interacts with the environment.
  • Emotion is a mental state associated with fear, anger, love, etc while emotional development refers to the capability of an individual to recognize, control and manage one's own emotions and the emotions of others as well.

Important Points

Anybody can become angry, that is easy; but to be angry with the right person, and to the right degree, and at the right time, and for the right purpose, and in the right way, that is not within everybody’s power, that is not easy.” —Aristotle. Evaluate the statement in the context of the concept of emotional development.

Key Points

Characteristics of Emotional Development:

  • Emotions are the product of perception.
  • Emotions start immediately after birth.
  • Emotions have the quality of displacement.
  • Emotions are subjective and purely individual.
  • Emotion is accompanied by physiological changes.
  • An intense form of emotions is seen during the early childhood period.

Hence, we can conclude that 'Anyone can become angry - that is easy, but to be angry with the right person, to the right degree, at the right time, for the right purpose, and in the right way - that is not easy.” This is related to emotional development.

KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 9
What are the changes required to be made in RTE 2009 as per NEP 2020?
Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 9

The National Education Policy (NEP) was approved by the Union Cabinet in July 2020 and aims to implement various improvements to the Indian educational system from the school level to the college level.

Key Points

  • According to NEP 2020, Children from 3 to 18 years old will have access to a free and compulsory high-quality education.
  • This implies that all children between the ages of 3 and 18 will be entitled to receive a quality education from the government, regardless of their socioeconomic status.
  • Everyone has access to get-quality education for all children from the age of 3-18 years instead of 6-14 years as per the RTE 2009.

 Therefore, the Arrangement of free and compulsory education for 3-18-year-old students are the changes required to be made in RTE 2009 as per NEP 2020.

Additional Information

  • Right to Education Act (RTE) provided free and compulsory education to children between the age group of 6-14 years in 2009 and enforced it as a fundamental right under Article 21-A.
  • India became one of 135 countries to make education a fundamental right of every child when the Act came into force on 1 April 2010.
KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 10
The declaration of 'the rights of man and of citizens' by the French constituent assembly on ________, is one of the most significant events of the french revolution.
Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 10
  • On 26 August 1789, the French National Constituent Assembly issued the Déclaration des droits de l'homme et du citoyen (Declaration of the Rights of Man and the Citizen) which defined individual and collective rights at the time of the French Revolution.
  • Some delegates at the Assembly had expressed their admiration for the Magna Carta and other constitutional documents, such as the United States Declaration of Independence, but ultimately the Déclaration rejected appeals to ancient charters of liberties, based on the principle that the rights of man were natural, universal and inalienable.
  • The Declaration of 1791 is a fundamental document of the French Revolution and in the history of human and civil rights. The inspiration and content of the document emerged largely from the ideals of the American Revolution.
  • The key drafts were prepared by General Lafayette, working at times with his close friend Thomas Jefferson. The concepts in the Declaration come from the tenets of the Enlightenment, including individualism, the social contract as theorized by Jean-Jacques Rousseau, and the separation of powers espoused by Montesquieu.
  • The spirit of secular natural law rests at the foundations of the Declaration. At the time of writing, the rights contained in the declaration were only awarded to men. Furthermore, the declaration was a statement of vision rather than reality as it was not deeply rooted in the practice of the West or even France at the time.
  • It embodied ideals toward which France pledged to aspire in the future. While the French Revolution provided rights to a larger portion of the population, there remained a distinction between those who obtained the political rights in the Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen and those who did not.
  • Those who were deemed to hold these rights were called active citizens, a designation granted to men who were French, at least 25 years old, paid taxes equal to three days of work, and could not be defined as servants. Tensions arose between active and passive citizens throughout the Revolution and the question of women’s rights emerged as particularly prominent.
  • The Declaration did not recognize women as active citizens. The absence of women’s rights prompted Olympe de Gouges to publish the Declaration of the Rights of Woman and the Female Citizen in September 1791. The Declaration did not revoke the institution of slavery, as lobbied for by Jacques-Pierre Brissot’s Les Amis des Noirs and defended by the group of colonial planters called the Club Massiac. However, it played an important rhetorical role in the Haitian Revolution.
KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 11
Who among the following opposed Mahatma Gandhi's association with the Khilafat movement?
Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 11

The correct answer is Mohammed Ali Jinnah.

Key Points

  • While Jinnah was away in England, Gandhi changed his tactics and united Hindus and Muslims by espousing a Muslim-only religious cause: the ‘Khilafat’.
  • Jinnah was especially opposed to befriending radical Muslim leaders and felt it would be nothing short of a `disaster for the country.
    • The Khilafat movement, a campaign that called for the restoration of a caliphate spread across several countries, had started in 1919.
    • It had gained traction in India only after Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi had fused the pan-Islamic agitation with the Non-Cooperation Movement.

Additional Information

  • Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, also known as Badshah Khan, Frontier Gandhi, or Bacha Khan, and honorably addressed as Fakhr-e-Afghan, was a Pashtun freedom fighter and independence activist against British colonial rule in India. 
  • Abul Kasem Fazlul Huq popularly known as Sher-e-Bangla (Lion of Bengal) was a British Indian and Pakistani lawyer, writer, and statesman from eastern Bengal (present-day Bangladesh). 
  • Abul Kalam Ghulam Muhiyuddin Ahmed bin Khairuddin Al-Hussaini Azad was an Indian independence activist, Islamic theologian, writer, and senior leader of the Indian National Congress.
KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 12
In the concentration camps in Nazi Germany, there were ______ prisoners who acted as trustees who had special privileges or well-known prisoners.
Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 12

Nazi was a term associated with the members of the National Socialist German Worker’s Party of Adolf Hitler. The first concentration camps in Nazi Germany were established in January 1933.

  • The aim of Nazi concentration camps was to contain prisoners in one place.

Key Points

  • The origin of the word Kapo is not definitive.
  • Some historians believe it was directly transferred from the Italian word Cappo which means the boss.
  • Kapo was first used at Dachau from which it spread to other camps.
  • Kapo played a vital role in the Nazi camps system as a large number of prisoners within the system required constant oversight.
  • Kapos were put in charge of a prisoner work gang called Kommando.
  • Kapos's job was to brutally force prisoners to do forced labor, despite the prisoners being sick and starving.
  • Most Kapos from the pools of prisoners interned for violent criminal behavior also allowed this cruelty to flourish.
  • In Nazi camps Kapos, prisoners acted as trustees who had special privileges or well-known prisoners.

Hence, we can conclude that In the concentration camps in Nazi Germany, there were Kapos prisoners who acted as trustees who had special privileges or well-known prisoners.

KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 13
The alluvial soil of India is generally rich in
Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 13

The correct answer is Potash.

Key Points

  • Alluvial Soil
    • Alluvial soils are widespread in the northern plains and the river valleys. These soils cover almost 40% of the total area of the country. 
    • They are depositional soils, transported and deposited by rivers and streams
    • Zonal Soil- These types of soil have the same mineral properties that of the parent rock and are found in the same area where they are weathered.
    • The alluvial soils vary in nature from sandy, loam to clay.
    • Alluvial soils lack nitrogen, phosphorus and humus. However, they are generally rich in potash and lime. 
    • In the Upper and Middle Ganga plain, two different types of alluvial soils have developed, viz. Khadar and Bhangar.
    • Khadar is the new alluvium and is deposited by floods annually, which enriches the soil by depositing fine silts.
    • Bhangar represents a system of older alluvium, deposited away from the flood plains.
    • The colour of the alluvial soils varies from light grey to ash grey.
    • The soil lacks nitrogen content. 

Additional Information

  • Black Soil
    • Black soil covers most of the Deccan Plateau which includes parts of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, and some parts of Tamil Nadu.
    • These soils are also known as the ‘Regur Soil’ or the ‘Black Cotton Soil’.
    • The black soils are generally clayey, deep, and impermeable.
    • They swell and become sticky when wet and shrink when dried. Being sticky is characteristic of black soil.
    • So, during the dry season, this soil develops wide cracks. Thus, there occurs a kind of ‘self ploughing’.
    • The black soils are rich in lime, iron, magnesia, and alumina.
    • They also contain potash but they lack phosphorous, nitrogen, and organic matter.
KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 14

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 14

The correct answer is ​1, 3 and 4 only.

Key Points

  • Rural Settlement Patterns reflect the way the houses are sited in relation to each other.
  • The site of the village, the surrounding topography and terrain influence the shape and size of a village.
  • Rural settlements may be classified on the basis of a number of criteria:
    • On the basis of setting: The main types are plain villages, plateau villages, coastal villages, forest villages and desert villages.
    • On the basis of functions: There may be farming villages, fishermen’s villages, lumberjack villages, pastoral villages etc.
    • On the basis of forms or shapes of the settlements: These may be a number of geometrical forms and shapes such as Linear, rectangular, circular star-like, T-shaped village, double village, cross-shaped village etc.
      • Linear pattern: In such settlements houses are located along a road, railway line, river, canal edge of a valley or along a levee. Hence pair 1 is correct.
      • Rectangular pattern: Such patterns of rural settlements are found in plain areas or wide intermontane valleys.
        • The roads are rectangular and cut each other at right angles. Hence pair 2 is incorrect.
      • Circular pattern: Circular villages develop around lakes, tanks and sometimes the village is planned in such a way that the central part remains open and is used for keeping the animals to protect them from wild animals. Hence pair 3 is correct.
      • Star-like pattern: Where several roads converge, star-shaped settlements develop by the houses built along the roads.
      • T-shaped, Y-shaped, Cross-shaped or cruciform settlements: T -shaped settlements develop at tri-junctions of the roads, while Y-shaped settlements emerge as the places where two roads converge on the third one and houses are built along these roads.
      • Cruciform settlements develop on the crossroads and houses extend in all four directions. Hence pair 4 is correct.
    • Double village: These settlements extend on both sides of a river where there is a bridge or a ferry.
KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 15
Which one of the following river valleys is most important in respect of coal reserves of the Gondwana period?
Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 15

The correct answer is Damodar river valley

Key Points

  • The most important Gondwana coal fields of India are located in Damodar Valley.
  • Damodar River rises in the Chota Nagpur plateau of south-central Bihar state. It joins the Hugli (Hooghly) River of Kolkata (Calcutta). 
  • About 80 per cent of the coal deposits in India is of bituminous type and of non-coking grade. The most important Gondwana coal fields of India are located in Damodar Valley.

Important Points

  • Godavari Valley Coalfield is the only coalfield in South India.
  • Most of the Gondwana coal reserves are in the Godavari valley.
  • It is located in the Indian state of Telangana in the Godavari River basin.
  • It extends over an area of 9,000 km2

Additional Information

  • The major coalfields in this river valley are Jharia, Raniganj, and Giridih.
  • The Son River is a perennial river of central India originating at Amarkantak Hill of Madhya Pradesh.
  • The Mahanadi is a major river in East Central India. The Hirakud Dam is on this river. The river flows through the states of Chhattisgarh and Odisha and finally falls into the Bay of Bengal.
KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 16

Which one of the following is an east flowing river?

Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 16

The correct answer is Krishna.Key Points

  • Krishna River
    • The Krishna is the second-largest east-flowing river of the Peninsula.
    • The Krishna Basin extends over Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Karnataka with a total area of ~2.6 lakh Sq.km.
    • The Krishna River rises from the Western Ghats near Jor village of Satara district of Maharashtra at an altitude of 1,337 m just north of Mahabaleshwar.
    • Tributaries of Krishna River
      • ​Right bank: the Ghatprabha, the Malprabha, and the Tungabhadra.
      • Left Bank: the Bhima, the Musi, and the Munneru.

Additional Information

  • Narmada is the largest west-flowing river of peninsular India.
    • Narmada flows westwards through a rift valley between the Vindhyan Range on the north and the Satpura Range on the south.
    • It rises from the Maikala range near Amarkantak in Madhya Pradesh, at an elevation of about 1057 m.
    • Narmada basin extends over states of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Chhattisgarh.
  • ​Periyar river is the longest river in Kerala. 
    • It is popularly known as the lifeline of Kerala.
    • The length of the Periyar river is 244 km.
    • It originates from Sivagiri Hills in the Western Ghats and empties into Kodungallur lake.
    • It passes through two states: Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
    • The major Tributaries are:
      • Muthirapuzha River
      • Mullayar River
      • Cheruthoni River
      • Perinjankutti River
      • Edamala River
  • Sabarmati originates from Aravalli hills at an elevation of 762 m near village Tepur, in the Udaipur district of Rajasthan.
    • Sabarmati River is one of the major West flowing rivers of India.
    • It originates from the Aravali hill ranges in Rajasthan and after traveling 371 Km. meets the Gulf of Cambay (Khambhat) in the Arabian Sea.
    • 48 km of the river length is in Rajasthan, while the rest 323 km is in Gujarat.
KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 17
In Sri Lanka, shifting cultivation is called _______.
Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 17

The correct answer is chena.

Key Points

  • Shifting cultivation or swidden cultivation is called by different names in different areas.
  • In shifting cultivation, parts of forests are cut down and burnt in rotation.
  • Such plots are cultivated for a couple of years and then left fallow for 12 or 18 years for forest to grow back.
  • In Southeast Asia, it is called lading, milpa in Central America, tavy in Africa, and Chena in Sri Lanka.
  • In India, it is called by different local names like jhum, bewar, penda, newad, podu, kumri etc.

 Thus, we can say that in Sri Lanka, shifting cultivation is called chena.

KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 18
The most widespread relief feature of India is
Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 18

The correct answer is Plains.

  • The most widespread relief feature of India is Plains.

Key Points

  • Plains:
    • India’s most prevalent relief feature is plains 42.2 percent of the landscape.
    • The Indian peninsula consists mainly of plains and occupies a total area of 700,000 sq km.
    • It is referred to as the wide plains of the Indo Gangetic and has main rivers such as the Ganga, Yamuna, Brahmaputra & a total boundary of 15. 200 km.
    • This 43% of the land area is appropriate for irrigation and is for industrial use, covering states such as UP (Uttar Pradesh), Bihar, Rajasthan Haryana & Punjab that together occupies the north Indian plains.
KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 19
In India sex ratio refers to the numbers of females per _______ males.
Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 19
Indian Census has the tradition of bringing out disaggregated information by sex on various aspects of the population.
  • The first and foremost component of gender statistics revealed by Census 2001, 532 million constituting 52 percent are males and 497 million constituting remaining 48 percent are females in the population. In sheer numbers, males outnumber females by 35 million in population

Important Points

  • The sex ratio refers to the number of females per 1000 males. 
  • In India, only Kerala and Puducherry have more females than males.
  • According to the 2011 census, in India, there are 943 females per 1000 males.

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 20
Six Political Parties in India are recognized as National parties by the Election Commission of India, which of the following is the recently added?
Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 20

The correct answer is Aam Aadmi Party

  • A political party in India is called the Aam Aadmi Party.
  • Following the 2011 Indian anti-corruption campaign, Arvind Kejriwal launched the AAP in November 2012.
  • Currently, the AAP controls two governments: that of Punjab, and that of Delhi.
  • A broom is the party's electoral emblem.
    • Spokesperson: Saurabh Bhardwaj 
    • Rajya Sabha leader: Sanjay Singh
    • Founder: Arvind Kejriwal and others
    • Founded: 26 November 2012
  • Arvind Kejriwal-led Aam Aadmi Party, the Election Commission of India (ECI) on April 10, 2023, accorded it the status of a national party while withdrawing the same for the Trinamool Congress, Communist Party of India, and the Nationalist Congress Party.
  • With the removal of NCP, CPI, and TMC, there are now only six national parties in the country – BJP, Congress, National People’s Party, CPM, Bahujan Samaj Party and the latest addition AAP.
  • According to Election Commission rules, a party gets national status if it is recognized as a state party in four states.
  • For recognition as a state party, it has to secure at least six percent of the valid votes polled and two seats each in Assembly or Lok Sabha polls.
  • The AAP got the status of a national party as it secured nearly 13 percent of the vote share and five seats in the Gujarat Assembly polls earlier this year making it the state party in four states—Delhi, Goa, Punjab and Gujarat.
KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 21
Which of the following party systems is followed in India?
Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 21

The correct answer is a Multi-party system.

Key Points

  • In India, a multi-party system is followed.
  • In a multi-party system, several parties compete for power and more than two parties have a reasonable chance of coming to power either on their own strength or in alliance with others.
  • In this system, the government is formed by a coalition.
  • When several parties in a multi-party system join hands for the purpose of contesting elections and winning power, it is called an alliance or a front.

 Thus, we can say that in India, a multi-party system is followed.

Additional Information

  • A one-party system is followed in China.
  • A Two-party system is followed in the United States.
KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 22

Which of the following fundamental rights as enshrined in the Constitution of India belong only to the citizens?

  1. Article 19 (Protection of right to freedom of speech)
  2. Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty)
  3. Article 15 (Prohibition of discrimination)
  4. Article 16 (Equality of opportunity)

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 22
  • Fundamental Rights available to only citizens and not foreigners.
  • Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article 15).
  • Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Article 16).
  • Six basic freedoms subject to reasonable restrictions (Article 19).
  • Protection of language, script, and culture of minorities (Article 29).
  • Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions (Article 30).
  • Article 21 of the Constitution [right to life and liberty] applies to all citizens, whether Indian or foreign nationals. Their right to liberty could not be restrained by the police due to a business dispute.
KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 23
​According to Article 25 of the constitution, the right to freedom of religion is not subject to whom?
Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 23

The correct answer is Humanism.

Key Points

RIGHT TO FREEDOM OF RELIGION:

  • Freedom of Conscience and Free Profession, Practice and Propagation of Religion :
    • Article 25 says that all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion.
    • It covers not only religious beliefs (doctrines) but also religious practices (rituals).
    • These rights are available to all persons–citizens as well as non-citizens.
    • However, these rights are subject to public order, morality, health and other provisions relating to fundamental rights.
KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 24
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding Public Distribution System in India?
Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 24

The correct answer is that Antodaya Ann Yojana started in 2005.

Key Points

  • The Public Distribution System in India is the system through which the food procured by FCI is distributed through government-regulated ration shops among the poorer section of society.
  • PDS was started in 1960.
  • Revamped Public Distribution System was launched in 1992.
  • The targeted Public Distribution System was established in 1997.
  • It adopted the principle of targeting 'the poor in all areas.
  • Antodaya Ann Yojana was launched in December 2000.
  • Under this scheme, one crore of the poorest among the BPL families covered under the targeted PDS was identified.
  • Foodgrains were made available to eligible families.

 Thus, we can say that the Antodaya Ann Yojana was started in 2000.

KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 25
According to social scientists, which of the following is NOT an indicator of poverty?
Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 25

The correct answer is More members in a nuclear family.

Key Points

  • Social Indicators of Poverty
    • Illiteracy Level
    • Lack of general resistance due to malnutrition
    • Lack of access to healthcare
    • Lack of Opportunities
    • Lack of access to safe drinking water
    • Lack of access to safe sanitation facilities

Important Points

  • Poverty
    • Poverty is a state or condition in which a person or community lacks the financial resources and essentials for a minimum standard of living. 
    • Poverty means that the income level from employment is so low that basic human needs can't be met.
  • According to World Bank 
    • Poverty is pronounced deprivation in well-being and comprises many dimensions. 
    • It includes low incomes and the inability to acquire the basic goods and services necessary for survival with dignity. 
    • Poverty also encompasses low levels of health and education, poor access to clean water and sanitation, inadequate physical security, lack of voice, and insufficient capacity and opportunity to better one's life.
  • In India, 21.9% of the population lives below the national poverty line in 2011.
  • Causes of Poverty
    1. Population Explosion
    2. Low Agriculture Productivity
    3. Inefficient resource utilization
    4. Low rate of Economic Development
    5. Price Rise
    6. Unemployment
    7. Social Factors
    8. Climatic Factors
KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 26
Under COPRA, the State Commission deals with disputes involving claims between ______ and ______.
Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 26

The correct answer is Rs. 20 lakh to Rs. 1 crore.

Key Points

  •  Under COPRA, the State Commission deals with disputes involving claims between Rs. 20 lakh to Rs. 1 crore.
  • COPRA refers to the Consumer Protection Act.
  • State Commission is a type of consumer court which mainly deals with consumer-related disputes, conflicts, and complaints.
  • State Commission is also known as State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (SCDRC)
    • It is a state-level consumer court established by the state government.

Important Points

  • The Consumer Protection Act has been enacted to protect the interests of consumers in India.
  • Consumer Disputes Redressal Agencies under COPRA Act
    • National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC):
    • It is an apex body of Consumer Courts at the national level
    • It is the highest judiciary of the consumer court.
    • It deals with disputes involving claims over Rs. 1 crore.
    • HQ - New Delhi
    • Established - 1988
    • The First President of NCDRC was Justice V. Balakrishna Eradi.
    • Headed by - Justice R K Agrawal (July 1, 2018 to May 4, 2023)
  • State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (SCDRC):
    • It has appellate jurisdiction over the District Forum.
    • It deals with disputes involving claims between Rs. 20 lakh to Rs. 1 crore.
  • District Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum (DCDRF):
    • It is a district and lower consumer court.
    • It deals with disputes involving claims below twenty(20) lakh.

Additional Information

  • The Consumer Protection Act,1986 (COPRA) was replaced by the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
  • The Consumer Protection Act guarantees six Consumers Rights:
    1. Right to Safety
    2. Right to be informed
    3. Right to Choose
    4. Right to be heard
    5. Right to Redressal
    6. Right to Consumer Awareness
KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 27
According to the poverty estimates in India, in year 2011-12 approximately ____ of the Indian population was below poverty line, as estimated using Tendulkar Methodology.
Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 27

The correct answer is 22%.

Key Points

  •  According to the poverty estimates in India, in year 2011-12 approximately 22% (21.9%) of the Indian population was below poverty line, as estimated using Tendulkar Methodology.
  • Tendulkar's Methodology for poverty estimation is based on Calorie Consumption.
    • It is based on the consumption of the items like cereal, pulses, milk, edible oil, non-vegetarian items, vegetables, fresh fruits, dry fruits, sugar, salt & spices, other food etc.
    • In this method, a basket of these goods is made and the monetary value of that goods is calculated taking into account inflation and areas like rural and urban.

Important Points

  •  The percentage of the population living below the poverty line is:
    • In Rural India decreased to 25.7 % in 2011-12 (41.8 % in 2004-05)
    • In Urban India decreased to 13.7 % in 2011-12 (25.7 % in 2004-05)
  • Poverty Line: A minimum expenditure (or income) that is required to purchase a basket of goods and services necessary to satisfy basic human needs and this minimum expenditure is called the poverty line.
    • The families below this line are called Below Poverty Line (BPL) families
    • The families above this line are called Above Poverty Line (APL) families.
KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 28
Which of the following are factors of production?
Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 28

The correct answer is All of the above.

Key Points

  • Factors of production are resources used to produce goods and services.
  • They are building blocks of an economy.
  • Every production is organised by combining land, labour, physical capital and human capital, which are known as factors of production.
  • These are the four requirements for the production of goods and services.

 Thus, we can say that physical capital, human capital and land are all factors of production.

Additional Information

  • Physical capital includes fixed capital, that is, tools, machines, buildings etc. as well as working capital, that is, raw materials and money in hand.
KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 29
Formal sources of credit does not include
Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 29

The correct answer is Employers.

Key Points

  • Formal sources of credit do not include employers as there is no role of these employers all these works are related to banks and cooperatives.
  • Employers are there merely to serve the bank staff and do the work as it is asked to do by their owners.
  • The informal sources include all small and scattered units that are generally beyond the government’s control, they must obey its laws and regulations.
  • Profit-making is the primary motive for informal sources.
  • There is no organization that controls credit activities in informal sources.
  • They charge much higher interest rates for informal sources.
  • Examples: Moneylenders, merchants, workers(Employee), relatives and friends etc.
KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 30
Amul is a success story of cooperatives in milk and milk products from _______, which brought in the White Revolution in the country.
Detailed Solution for KVS TGT Social Science Mock Test - 7 - Question 30

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

  • Amul was founded in 1946 in Anand, Gujarat with a mission to prevent the exploitation of the farmers by middlemen.
  • The Gujarat Co-operative Milk Marketing Federation Ltd manages Amul.
  • Amul spurred the White Revolution in India, which placed India at the highest of milk-producing nations.
  • Amul is present in over 50 countries, and India alone has quite 7200 exclusive parlors.
  • In 1999, Amul was awarded the “Best of All” Rajiv Gandhi National Quality Award“ for maintaining the utmost quality in its plants.
  • Amul has been awarded the Guinness record for the longest-running advertising campaign.

Important Points

  • White Revolution in India:
    • The Government of India initiated Operation Flood known as the White Revolution after witnessing the huge success of the Green Revolution, which resulted in an immense increase in wheat and rice production.
    • The white revolution in India started with the motive of accelerating milk production to make the country one of the largest producers of milk in the world.
    • It created a national milk grid linking producers throughout India to consumers in over 700 towns and cities and reducing seasonal and regional price variations while ensuring that producers get a serious share of the profit by eliminating the middlemen.
    • Today, India is the world’s largest producer of milk, and Dr. Verghese Kurien is known as the father of the White Revolution in India.
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