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MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - MAHA TET MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography)

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MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 1

Consider the following:

1. Proximity of the jute-producing areas

2. Inexpensive water transport

3. Availability of economical labor

4. Abundant water for processing raw jute

How many of the above are responsible factors for the location of the Jute industry in the Hugli basin?

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 1

The correct answer is All fourKey PointsJute industry:

  • India is the largest producer of jute followed by Bangladesh and China.
  • However, in terms of acreage and trade, Bangladesh takes the lead accounting for three-fourths of the global jute exports in comparison to India’s 7%.
  • Major jute-producing states include West Bengal, Bihar, Odisha, Assam, Andhra Pradesh, Meghalaya and Tripura.
  • It is known as the golden fibre.
  • It is used in making gunny bags, mats, ropes, yarn, carpets and other artefacts.
  • The factors behind the present localization of the jute industry in Eastern India especially West Bengal are:
    • Raw material: West Bengal is the largest producer of jute and most mills are located there;
    • Water supply: High rainfall and the presence of rivers ensure abundant water for processing raw jute;
    • Easy Transportation: The region is well connected by a good network of railways, waterways, and roadways to facilitate the movement of raw materials to the mills.
    • Inexpensive water transport is also provided by the Hugli river;
    • Labour: Availability of economical labour from West Bengal and the adjoining States of Bihar, Orissa, and Uttar Pradesh;
    • Kolkata as a port and large urban centre, provides banking, insurance, and port facilities for the export of jute goods. Hence, statements 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 2

In which ocean is the "Sunda Trench" located?

Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 2

The "Sunda Trench" is located in the Indian Ocean.

Key Points

  • Oceanic Trenches are the areas which are the deepest parts of the oceans.
  • The trenches are relatively steep sided with narrow basins.
  • They are some 3-5 km deeper than the surrounding ocean floor.
  • They occur at the bases of continental slopes and along island arcs and are associated with active volcanoes and strong earthquakes.
  • The Sunda Trench, earlier known as and sometimes still indicated as the Java Trench, is an oceanic trench located in the Indian Ocean near Sumatra.
  • It is formed where the Australian-Capricorn plates subduct under a part of the Eurasian Plate.
  • It is 3,200 kilometres long with a maximum depth of 7,290 metres (23,920 feet). 
  • Its maximum depth is the deepest point in the Indian Ocean

Therefore, we can conclude that the "Sunda Trench" is located in the Indian Ocean.

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MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 3

Which of the following statements about Indian Geography is not correct?

Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 3

OHK Spate was a British Geographer who has contributed in the regional geography of India. He is best known for his book titled “India and Pakistan: A General and Regional Geography” published in 1954.

MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 4

In manufacturing industries of India, a micro enterprise is an enterprise where investment in plant and machinery does not exceed ____?

Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 4

In manufacturing industries of India, a micro enterprise is an enterprise where investment in plant and machinery does not exceed Rs. 25 Lakh.

MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 5
The empirical relationship among the three measures of central tendencies is
Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 5

Concept

The relationship between mean, median and mode is called empirical relationship. It is defines as :

Mean - Mode = 3(Mean - Median)

Calculation

Mean - Mode = 3(Mean - Median)

⇒ Mean - Mode = 3 Mean - 3 Median

⇒ 3 Median - Mode = 3 Mean - Mean

⇒ 3 Median = 2 Mean + Mode

∴ 3 Median = Mode + 2 Mean

MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 6
Who provided a framework for analyzing the geography of political concepts?
Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 6

Richard Hartshorne, an American Geographer who specialized in economic and political geography, attempted to provide a new framework for analyzing the geography of political areas and the modern state in the 1950s as the sub discipline was becoming narrowly systematic. Hartshorne had a lot of contributions to this field such as "Political Geography in the Modern World", "The Politico-Geographic Pattern of the World".

MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 7
As per the census 2011, what is the total Literacy rate of male population?
Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 7

The correct answer is 82.14 %.

About Literacy rate:

  • As per the census 2011, The total literacy rate of the Males population is 82.14 % and the females' population is 65.46 % in India.
  • The definition of Literacy rate is the Total Number of Literate persons in a given Age Group, as the Percentage of the Total Population in that Age group. For example, The Youth Literacy rate measures Literacy among persons Aged 15 to 24 years, and the Adult Literacy Rate measures Literacy among persons Aged 15 years and above.

Key Points

About India Statistical data:

All the data are in the table as per the census 2011.

Note: Now India has 28 states and 8 union territories.

Graphical Representation image of The Literacy rate in India (census,2011):

Note:- Draupadi Murmu (Current President of India):- from 25 July 2022 to Still.

MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 8

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above mentioned pairs are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 8

The correct answer is Only three.
Important Points

Here is the justification for each:

Mississippi:

  • The Mississippi River is one of the longest rivers in North America, flowing through ten U.S. states, from Minnesota to the Gulf of Mexico.

Amazon:

  • The Amazon River is in South America, primarily flowing through Brazil and Peru.
  • It's the second longest river in the world and has the largest drainage basin on the planet, not to mention its crucial role in the Amazon Rainforest's ecosystem.

Orange:

  • The Orange River, contrary to what's listed in the table, is not in Asia.
  • It's actually the longest river in South Africa and forms part of the border between South Africa and Namibia.

Darling:

  • The Darling River is the third longest river in Australia, running through New South Wales.
  • It is part of the Murray-Darling river system, which is the longest river system in Australia.
MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 9
Isohalines are lines joining equal:
Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 9

The correct answer is salinity.

Key Points

  • Isohalines
    • It is used on maps to show the salinity of different places. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
    • The average salinity of the ocean is 3.5% or 35 parts of salt in 1000 parts of water.
    • The salinity of the Great Salt Lake, (Utah, USA), the Dead Sea, and the Lake Van in Turkey are 220, 240, and 330 respectively.
    • The oceans and salt lakes are becoming saltier as time goes on because the rivers dump more salt into them, while freshwater is lost due to evaporation.
  • The more frequently drawn isopleths include:
    • Isotherm (equal temperature)
    • Isobar (equal pressure)
    • Isohyets (equal rainfall)
    • Isonephs (equal cloudiness)
    • Isohels (equal sunshine)
    • contours (equal heights)
    • Isobaths (equal depths)
MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 10

Assertion (A): In southern hemisphere, westerlies are stronger with very high velocity of winds than in the northem hemisphere.

Reason (R): In southern hemisphere, there is vast expanse of ocean and therefore westerlies attain terrific speed.

Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 10

The correct reason is Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Key Points

  • The westerlies are steadier and stronger in the southern hemisphere because they face minimal land interference as compared to the northern hemisphere.
    • Land interference causes obstruction in the flow of wind in the northern hemisphere, thus slowing the westerlies.
    • Hence (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • The prevailing wind in a region of the Earth's surface is a surface wind that blows predominantly from a particular direction.
    • The dominant winds are the trends in direction of the wind with the highest speed over a particular point on the Earth's surface.

  • Hence, option 4 is correct.

Additional Information

  • Westerlies
    • The westerlies are the winds blowing from the subtropical high-pressure belts towards the sub-polar low-pressure belts.
    • They blow from south­west to north-east in the northern hemisphere and north-west to south-east in the southern hemisphere.
    • The westerlies of the southern hemisphere are stronger and persistent due to the vast expanse of water, while those of the northern hemisphere are irregular because of uneven relief of vast land masses.
    • The westerlies are best developed between 40° and 65°S latitudes.
      • These latitudes are often called Roaring Forties, Furious Fifties, and Shrieking Sixties – dreaded terms for sailors.
    • The poleward boundary of the westerlies is highly fluctuating. There are many seasonal and short-term fluctuations. These winds produce wet spells and variability in weather.
  • Polar easterlies
    • The Polar easterlies are dry, cold prevailing winds blowing from north-east to south-west direction in Northern Hemisphere and south-east to the north-west in Southern Hemisphere.
    • They blow from the polar high-pressure areas of the sub-polar lows.
MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 11

Consider the following statements about the Indian desert:

1. The northern part of the Indian desert is sloping towards Sindh and the Southern towards the Rann of Kachchh.

2. Most of the rivers in this region are ephemeral.

3. It is a westward extension of the peninsular plateau.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 11

The correct answer is All three.

 

Key PointsIndian Desert: 

  • To the Northwest of the Aravali hills lies the Great Indian desert. It is a land of undulating topography dotted with longitudinal dunes and barchans.
  • This region receives low Rainfall below 150 mm per year; hence, it has an arid climate with low vegetation cover. It is because of these characteristic features that this is also known as Marusthali.
  • On the basis of orientation, the Desert can be divided into two parts: the Northern Part is sloping towards Sindh and the Southern towards the Rann of Kachchh. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Most of the rivers in this region are Ephemeral. The Luni river flowing in the southern part of the desert is of some significance. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Low precipitation and high evaporation make it a water deficit region. There are some streams which disappear after flowing for some distance and present a typical case of inland drainage by joining a lake.
  • Though the underlying rock structure of the desert is an extension of the Peninsular plateau, yet, due to extremely arid conditions, its surface features have been carved by physical weathering and wind actions. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 12
According to the Global Climate Risk Index of 2020 India is at which place ?
Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 12

According to the Global Climate Risk Index of 2020, published by German Watch, a think tank on North-South equity and preservation of livelihoods, India is the 5th most vulnerable country to climate change impacts. India’s increasing vulnerability is due to severe rainfall, heavy flooding and landslide.

Thus, the Correct answer is B.

MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 13
Which of the following statements are true?

(a) The western coast of Mahrashtra is the region most prone to cyclonic storms.

(b) The river Chambal in the North Indian plain is susceptible to frequent flooding.

(c) The north-eastern states lie in the earthquake prone region.

(d) The eastern coast of India has most vulnerability to cyclones.

Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 13

 The eastern coast of India has always been prone to cyclonic storms. The major ones include like Fani and Gaja most recently. Western coast of Mahrashtra on the other hand does not have much vulnerability to cyclones. The coastline of Gujarat is more vulnerable to cyclones. The north-eastern states lie in the Arkan Yoma mountain range and has had earthquakes like Tura(8.7-1897) and Cachar(7.5-1869) and more recently, on India-Nepal Border near Sikkim(7.1-2011). The river Chambal in North-Indian plains is not susceptible to floods on a frequent basis.

Thus, the correct answer is D.

MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 14
When was the Integrated Rural Development Programme launched?
Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 14

The Integrated Rural Development Program (IRDP) was launched by the Government of India during the financial year of 1978 and implemented during 1980. The main motto of the program was to provide employment opportunities to the poor community as well as opportunities to develop their skill sets so as to improve their living conditions.

MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 15

Which of the following Railway zones and their Headquarters is not correct?

Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 15

South-Central-Hyderabad Railway zones and their Headquarters is not correct. Secunderabad Division was split into two Divisions viz. Secunderabad and Hyderabad on 17-Feb-1978. Following re-organisation of zones and Divisions with effect from 01-04-2003, two new Divisions viz., Guntur and Nanded were operationalised duly transferring Hubli Division to newly formed South Western Railway.

MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 16

Which city of India is called as "Electronic city of India"?

Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 16

Banglore the capital of Tamil Nadu, is known as Electronic city of India. It is also known as IT hub or Silicon Valley of India because of the IT industries present there.

MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 17

Read the following statements and state which of them are true?

Spykman's Rimland Theory was a variant of Mackinder's Heartland Model. Both the models emphasised on

Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 17

The correct answer is the Role of the value of location in determining the political destiny of the world.

Key Points

  • Mackinder’s theory is a spatial analysis of the geopolitics in terms of its location, accessibility, and natural resource base. His theory has laid down the principle of geographical causation of history which means that the pulsations in human history have been caused by geographical conditions.
  • Mackinder interpreted history as essentially a struggle between Land & Sea Power and presented his paper “The Geographical Pivot of History” to elucidate his formula of Geographical Causation in World History.
  • For him, whoever could gain control of ‘World Island’ would be in an almost unstoppable position to dominate the entire globe. In his opinion, the heartland having Agricultural resources could conquer Europe, the Middle East & Far East.
  • The world power seemed to be centralized around the Heartland which he said had all the resources and natural defense by the physiographic factors. It is invincible and represents the supremacy of Land Power which political destiny of the world.
  • According to Mackinder -“Who rules East Europe commands the Heartland?” “Who rules Heartland commands the World-Island?” “Who rules the World-Island commands the World?”.
  • In 1944, Spykman as the point of critic or antithetic to the Heartland Theory presented his work titled “The Rimland Theory” in his book – “The Geography of Peace”. He gave a different interpretation of the relative importance of Heartland (Land Power) vis-a-vis the surrounding Inner and Outer Crescent
  • According to Spykman Sea Power has faster movement, and greater accessibility while Land can be inaccessible due to hills, rivers, deserts, etc. Sea Powers has more than 2/3rd the population of the world and is thus full of human & technological resources. Most of the population is located in Coastal areas.
  • Spykman considered geographical features as important determinants in foreign policy because of their emphasis on spatial variations.
  • In medieval human history and the pre-modern era, Naval Power had supremacy over Land power as they had Navigation Technology, Ships, etc. e.g. British, French, Germany, Portuguese, Spanish, and Italy were all sea powers and the whole world became a colonial house of these countries.
MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 18

_______ are lines drawn on a map to locate, in the plan view, points of equal ground elevation.

Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 18

The line joining the points of equal elevation on ground called contour line and the difference of elevation between two consecutive contours is called contour intervals.

Important points about Contour Line:

  1. Contour line never cross each other and never joins at one location except Vertical Cliff or overhang.
  2. All contours on earth surface are always closed contours.
  3. Contours of small spacing indicate steep slope and contour of large spacing indicate mild or gentle slope.
  4. If some contours are found in small map or small area then it indicates a pond or hill in that area.
MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 19
Consider the following statements:-

a. Geostationary satellites, at altitudes of approximately 29,000 km, revolve at speeds which match the rotation of the earth, so they seem stationary.

b. Weather and Communication satellites are commonly found in geosynchronous orbits.

c. Sun-synchronous satellites cover each area of the world at a constant local time of the day with almost no change in azimuth.

d. Geostationary satellites provide conditions for acquiring images in a specific season over successive years.

Which of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 19

Geostationary satellites are placed at altitudes of about 36,000km, and revolve at speeds which match the rotation of the earth. Hence, always view the same portion of the earth’s surface E.g., METEOSAT, GOES-e. etc.,

Due to the position of the sun-synchronous satellites and consistent illumination conditions as they cover each area of the world at a constant local time of the day, images can be acquired in a specific season over successive years. This is an important factor for monitoring the changes between images as they do not have to be corrected for different illumination conditions.

MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 20
Fiords' are associated with which one of the following processes?
Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 20

The correct answer is Glacial.

Key Points

Glacial Landforms:

  • A glacier is a large, perennial accumulation of crystalline ice, snow, rock, sediment, and water that originates on land and moves downslope under the influence of its own weight and gravity.

​Erosional Landforms:

  • Glacial Valleys/Troughs:
    • These valleys are trough-like and U-shaped with broad floors and relatively smooth, and steep sides.
    • The valleys may contain littered debris or debris shaped as moraines with a swampy appearance.
    • Very deep glacial troughs filled with seawater and making up shorelines (in high latitudes) are called fjords/fiords.
  • Cirques:
    • Often are found at the heads of glacial valleys, these are the most common of landforms in glaciated mountains.
    • They are deep, long and wide troughs or basins with very steep concave to vertically dropping high walls at their head as well as sides.
    • A lake of water can be seen quite often within the cirques after the glacier disappears. Such lakes are called cirque lakes or tarn lakes.
  • Horns and Serrated:
    • Ridges Horns form through headward erosion of the cirque walls.
    • If three or more radiating glaciers cut headward until their cirques meet, high, sharp-pointed and steep-sided peaks called horns form.

Additional Information

Depositional Landforms:

  • Glacial Till:
    • The unassorted coarse and fine debris dropped by the melting glaciers is called glacial till.
    • Some amount of rock debris small enough to be carried by such melt-water streams is washed down and deposited.
    • Such glaciofluvial deposits are called outwash deposits.
    • The outwash deposits are roughly stratified and assorted.
  • Moraines:
    • They are long ridges of deposits of glacial till.
    • Terminal moraines are long ridges of debris deposited at the end (toe) of the glaciers.
    • Lateral moraines form along the sides parallel to the glacial valleys.
    • Many valley glaciers retreating rapidly leave an irregular sheet of till over their valley floors called ground moraines.
  • Eskers:
    • These are ridges made of sands and gravels, deposited by glacial meltwater flowing through tunnels within and underneath glaciers, or through meltwater channels on top of glaciers.
MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 21
According to Francois Perroux's growth pole theory, what is the primary driver of economic growth and development in a region?
Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 21

Answer: Option 3) Concentration of economic activity in specific geographic areas

The growth pole theory, developed by French economist Francois Perroux, emphasizes the role of concentrated economic activity in specific geographic areas, known as growth poles, in driving regional development.

Key Points
  • According to Perroux's theory, the primary driver of economic growth and development in a region is:
  • Concentration of economic activity in specific geographic areas: Perroux argued that economic growth is not evenly distributed across a region, but rather tends to concentrate in certain geographic areas due to the presence of agglomeration economies and other factors. These growth poles, characterized by the presence of large-scale industries, infrastructure, and skilled labor, generate positive externalities and spillover effects that spread to surrounding areas, stimulating economic growth and development.
  • Perroux's growth pole theory has been influential in regional development planning and policy. It has been used to justify government policies aimed at promoting the development of growth poles and linking them to surrounding regions.
  • Critics of the growth pole theory argue that it can lead to increased inequality between regions, as growth tends to be concentrated in a few select areas.
Additional Information
Balanced growth across all sectors: While balanced growth across all sectors is desirable, it is not always feasible or necessary for regional development. Perroux's theory recognizes that economic growth often occurs in a concentrated manner, with certain sectors and regions taking the lead.
Even distribution of income and resources: Even distribution of income and resources is a desirable goal, but it is not the primary driver of economic growth according to Perroux's theory. He argued that concentration of economic activity in growth poles can lead to increased productivity and innovation, which in turn can benefit the entire region.
Government intervention and central planning: While government intervention and central planning can play a role in regional development, Perroux's theory does not emphasize these factors as the primary drivers of growth. He believed that the private sector, driven by market forces and agglomeration economies, is the main engine of economic growth.
MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 22
According to Hirschman, what is the main prerequisite for economic growth?
Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 22
Answer: Option 1) Creating Unbalances.
Albert O. Hirschman, a prominent development economist, introduced the concept of unbalanced growth as a strategy for economic development in developing countries. His theory challenges the notion of balanced growth, which advocates for simultaneous investment across all sectors of the economy.
Key Points
  • According to Hirschman, the main prerequisite for economic growth is the creation of imbalances. He argues that balanced growth is unattainable and undesirable for developing countries due to limited resources, capital, skilled labor, and essential raw materials. Instead, he proposes that countries should focus on strategic investments in selected sectors to generate growth through backward and forward linkages.
  • Backward linkages refer to the stimulation of industries that supply raw materials and inputs to the selected sector. For example, investing in a steel plant would increase demand for steel scrap and coal, leading to increased production in these industries.
  • Forward linkages, on the other hand, refer to the growth of industries that utilize the output of the selected sector. Continuing with the steel plant example, the expansion of the steel industry would encourage the growth of industries that use steel as a primary input, such as machine tool manufacturing.
  • By creating imbalances through targeted investments, Hirschman argues that developing countries can generate a chain reaction of growth across different sectors of the economy. This process helps to overcome the resource constraints and structural bottlenecks that often hinder development.
Additional Information
  • Hirschman's theory of unbalanced growth has been influential in development economics, and has been applied to various contexts, including industrialization, infrastructure development, and agricultural modernization.
  • Critics of Hirschman's theory argue that it may lead to excessive concentration of investment in certain sectors, neglecting other important areas of the economy.
  • The concept of unbalanced growth has been further developed by other economists, such as Paul Rosenstein-Rodan and Ragnar Nurkse, who emphasized the importance of balanced growth in the long run.
MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 23
The innermost layer of the earth is called
Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 23

The correct answer is Core.

  • The innermost layer of the earth is called the Core.

Key Points

  • Core:
    • The core is the innermost layer of the earth and the earth's centre.
    • It is about 3500 km in radius.
    • The outer part of the core is believed to have the properties of a liquid and the innermost part of the core may be called solid or crystalline.
    • This layer is also known as Nife (nickel and iron).
    • The temperature of the core is between 2200°C and 2750°C.
    • The density of this part of the earth is 17.2 gm/cm3.

Additional Information

  • The outermost solid cover or shell of the earth is known as the earth’s crust.
    • This layer is also called Sial (silica and aluminum).
  • The mantle is the intermediate layer of the earth in terms of both its location and density.
    • The mantle layer is also known as Sima (silica and magnesium).
MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 24
Why do coastal areas experience less contrasts in temparature conditions?
Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 24

The correct answer is due to moderating effect of the seas.

Key Points

  • Coastal areas experience fewer contrasts in temperature conditions because of the moderating effect of the seas.
  • The large water bodies help in moderating temperature.
  • Water has a higher heat capacity than soil and rock, so the ocean takes longer to heat and cool the land.
  • It means that the water takes more time to get hot or cold than land.
  • Thus on hot days, water absorbs heat keeping the air cool.
  • When the air gets cool, water slowly releases heat into the atmosphere, raising air temperatures.
  • The temperatures on land change more rapidly than temperatures on water.

Thus, we can say the coastal areas experience fewer contrasts in temperature conditions due to the moderating effect of the seas.

MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 25

Which of the statements is correct about visual interpretation of data?

Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 25

About visual interpretation of data in remote sensing:

  • It is a manual exercise.
  • Visual interpretation involves the reading of the images of the objects that require identification.
  • Extraction and interpretation of digital images require hardware as well as software components.
  • There are several elements involved in the visual interpretation of the data.
    • Size of the object
    • Location of the object
    • The object's relations with the surrounding environment.

Elements of visual interpretation:

  • Colour - This is the component wherein the energy reflected by the object is captured in different colours, grayscales.
    • Changes in the amount of radiation while coming across different types of terrain, changes in slope, changes in water, etc.
  • Texture - This component measures even the slightest changes in the smoothness of the structure.
    • The Texture is correlated to the resolution of the captured image. A high-resolution image of a sugarcane field will show coarse-grained texture.
  • Size - Reveals the size of the object. It helps in identifying various industrial complexes from other objects.
  • Shape - Accurately defines the shape of the object to easily identify unique structures. This also makes the interpretation of the object easy.
  • Shadow - Though, not very useful in visual interpretation of data, it is quite useful in aerial photography.
  • Pattern - This component depicts different spatial arrangements of the object with the respect to the surrounding.
  • Association - It depicts the relationship between the object and the surrounding along with their geographical location.

Thus, the correct answer to the question is option 4

MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 26
Which factor is NOT a parameter for declaring an area as an urban area?
Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 26

The correct answer is At least 60% of the population lie above poverty line.

Key Points

  • Urban areas:
    • These areas are defined as places that are extremely developed, have lots of options for employment and education, and have excellent infrastructure.
    • These areas have improved railroads, homes, businesses, bridges, and roadways.
    • There is typically a high population density in urban areas, such as cities and towns.
  • A person is said to be living in poverty if they fall below a certain level, known as the poverty line. Typically, the cost of essential necessities like food, housing, and clothing is used to determine the poverty line.
  • "At least 60% of the population lie above poverty line" is not a parameter for declaring an area as an urban area.

Additional Information

  • Since the state government does not have any objective standards for defining what constitutes a "urban settlement," the national government, acting through the Office of Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, defines a "urban settlement" according to the following standards:
    • (a) if it has an urban local government (i.e., statutory towns notified by the state government)
    • (b) any place that satisfies the following three criteria:
      • (i) minimum population of 5,000
      • (ii) at least 75 percent of male working population engaged in non-agricultural activities
      • (iii) population density of at least 400 persons per sq. km (1,000 persons per sq. mile).
  • The term "population density" describes the amount of people residing in a specific area, typically expressed as "persons per square kilometre."
  • The process by which a community moves from rural to urban settings, or from one location to another, is known as urbanisation. High population densities, non-agricultural jobs, and advanced infrastructure and services are characteristics of urban regions.
  • The suburbs are located outside of cities and typically have a lower population. They go by the name of residential areas as well. Compared to the city, the suburbs have larger homes, more parks, and open areas. A large number of city dwellers relocate to the suburbs. We call this suburban migration.
  • The metropolitan region and the rural area are diametrically opposed. In comparison to metropolitan areas, rural areas have lower population densities and fewer options for employment and education. Agriculture is the main industry in rural areas.
MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 27

Consider the Urban Settlements:

1. Conurbation

2. Megalopolis

3. Million City

4. Town

Which of the following is the correct sequence of the Urban settlements according to their increasing size?

Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 27

The correct answer is option 4.

  • Increasing size: Town - Million City - Conurbation - Megalopolis.

Key PointsTypes of Urban Settlements:

  • Depending on the size and the services available and functions rendered, urban centers are designated as town, million cities, conurbations, and megalopolis.

Town:

  • The concept of ‘town’ can best be understood with reference to ‘village’.
  • Population size is not the only criterion.
  • Functional contrasts between towns and villages may not always be clear-cut, but specific functions such as manufacturing, retail and wholesale trade, and professional services exist in towns.

City:

  • A city may be regarded as a leading town, which has outstripped its local or regional rivals.
  • In the words of Lewis Mumford, “ the city is in fact the physical form of the highest and most complex type of associative life”.
  • Cities are much larger than towns and have a greater number of economic functions.
  • They tend to have transport terminals, major financial institutions and regional administrative offices.
  • When the population crosses the one million mark it is designated as a million city.

​Million City:

  • The number of million cities in the world has been increasing as never before.
  • London reached the million mark in 1800, followed by Paris in 1850, and New York in 1860, and by 1950 there were around 80 such cities.
  • The rate of increase in the number of million cities has been three-fold in every three decades – around 160 in 1975 to around 438 in 2005.

Conurbation:

  • The term conurbation was coined by Patrick Geddes in 1915.
  • It is applied to a large area of urban development that resulted from the merging of originally separate towns or cities.
  • Greater London, Manchester, Chicago and Tokyo are examples.

Megapolis:

  • This Greek word meaning “great city”, was popularised by Jean Gottman (1957) and signifies ‘super- metropolitan’ region extending, as the union of conurbations.
  • The urban landscape stretching from Boston in the north to south of Washington in the U.S.A. is the best-known example of a megalopolis.
MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 28
In the northwestern Pacific Ocean, a tropical cyclone is called as
Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 28

A tropical cyclone has a low pressure centre, strong winds along with thunder and rains. It has different names in different places. In the Northwestern Pacific Ocean is called as typhoon. In Indian Ocean they are simply called severe cyclonic storms or tropical cyclones. In northeastern Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean, they are called as hurricanes.

Thus, the correct answer is D.

MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 29
National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) was launched in
Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 29

 National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) was launched on 10th January 2019 by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. The tentative national level target of 20%–30% reduction of PM2.5 and PM10 concentration by 2024 is proposed under the NCAP taking 2017 as the base year for the comparison of concentration.

MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 30

The use of microorganism metabolism to remove pollutants such as oil spills in the water bodies is known as :

Detailed Solution for MH SET Paper 2 Mock Test - 9 (Geography) - Question 30

Bioremediation is a process used to treat contaminated media, including water, soil and subsurface material, by altering environmental conditions to stimulate growth of microorganisms and degrade the target pollutants.

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